MT dalta Flashcards by Belle Sugar

The father of modern orthodontics:
a. Norman Kingsley
b. Edward Angle
c. Calvin Case
d. Charles Hawley

b. Edward Angle

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This radiograph is used widely in orthodontic treatments:
a. Cone beam computed tomography
b. PA Water’s view
c. Lateral cephalometric
d. Submentovertex

c. Lateral cephalometric

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The most anterior point on the maxilla at the level of the palate:
a. Subspinale
b. Posterior nasal spine
c. Anterior nasal spine
d. Nasion

c. Anterior nasal spine

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Frontonasal suture at its most superior point on the curve at the bridge of the nose:
a. Subspinale
b. Posterior nasal spine
c. Anterior nasal spine
d. Nasion

d. Nasion

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The most anterior point on the contour of the chin:
a. Pogonion
b. Gnathion
c. Menton
d. Gonion

a. Pogonion

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The lowest point on the symphyseal outline of the chin:
a. Pogonion
b. Gnathion
c. Menton
d. Sella Turcica

c. Menton

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The center of the hypophyseal fossa which indicates the location of the pituitary gland:
a. Pogonion
b. Gnathion
c. Menton
d. Sella Turcica

d. Sella Turcica

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The lowest point of the bony orbit:
a. Orbitale
b. Gonion
c. Nasion
d. Condylion

a. Orbitale

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This horizontal cephalometric line has many variations based on different analysis:
a. SN plane
b. Frankfort horizontal plane
c. Functional occlusal line
d. Mandibular plane

d. Mandibular plane

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A commonly used analysis that has three division: skeletal, dental and soft tissue analysis:
a. Down’s
b. Steiner’s
c. Tweed’s
d. Angle’s

b. Steiner’s

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A plane formed by connecting the sella turcica to the nasion:
a. SN plane
b. Frankfort horizontal plane
c. Functional occlusal line
d. Mandibular plane

a. SN plane

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In Steiner’s analysis, the mean reading of SNA angle is 82˚. A larger value indicates a:
a. Protruded maxilla
b. Retruded maxilla
c. Protruded mandible
d. Retruded mandible

a. Protruded maxilla

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If lips are behind the S-line, it denotes that the lips are:
a. Protruded
b. Retruded
c. Normal
d. None of the above

b. Retruded

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In Steiner’s analysis, the mean reading of SNB angle is 80˚. A smaller value indicates a:
a. Protruded maxilla
b. Retruded maxilla
c. Protruded mandible
d. Retruded mandible

d. Retruded mandible

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In Down’s analysis, if the value of the facial angle is larger than the normal range (82˚
-95˚), the
patient is:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

c. Class III

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This appliance is useful particularly in patients who have tense buccal and labial musculature:
a. Lip bumper
b. W-arch
c. Quad helix
d. Inclined bit plane

a. Lip bumper

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The disadvantage of a removable orthodontic appliance is:
a. Difficult to clean
b. Not effective with uncooperative patients
c. Need for special equipment
d. Large in size

a. Difficult to clean

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The advantage of a fixed orthodontic appliance is:
a. Allows greater range of movement than the removable appliance
b. Easy to clean
c. Less complicated
d. Does not allow for accumulation of food

a. Allows greater range of movement than the removable appliance

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Retentive components of a removable appliance include the following EXCEPT:
a. Adam’s clasp
b. Acrylic resin framework
c. Labial arch/bow
d. None of the above

d. None of the above

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It is a lower removable functional treatment appliance used for treatment of skeletal Class II due
to mandibular retrusion:
a. Quad-helix
b. Hyrax expansion
c. Mono-block
d. Head gear

d. Head gear

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A fixed-removable active treatment appliance used for treatment of skeletal Class II due to
maxillary protrusion:
a. Quad-helix
b. Chin cup
c. Mono-block
d. Head gear

d. Head gear

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A removable active treatment appliance used for treatment of skeletal Class III due to
mandibular protrusion:
a. Quad-helix
b. Chin cup
c. Mono-block
d. Head gear

b. Chin cup

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Components of a Nance holding arch include the following EXCEPT:
a. Orthodontic bands
b. Acrylic button
c. Trans-palatal arch
d. Orthodontic brackets
e. None of the above

e. None of the above

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The equivalent of the Nance holding arch for the lower dentition is the:
a. Labial bow
b. Lingual arch
c. Lip bumper
d. Band and loop

b. Lingual arch

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The most popular and widely used retainer: a. Essix retainer b. Hawley retainer c. Bondable retainer d. None of the above

b. Hawley retainer

The branch of orthodontics focused on actions taken to preserve the integrity of what appears to be normal occlusion at a specific time: a. Corrective orthodontics b. Preventive orthodontics c. Interceptive orthodontics d. None of the above

b. Preventive orthodontics

Factors leading to delay in eruption include the following EXCEPT: a. Over-retained deciduous teeth b. Supernumerary teeth c. Cysts or tumors d. Ankylosis e. None of the above

e. None of the above

A disadvantage of removable space maintainers is: a. Easy to clean b. Allows blood circulation when not worn c. Allows for adjustments d. Success based on patient’s cooperation

d. Success based on patient’s cooperation

An advantage of fixed space maintainer is: a. Requires no to minimal tooth preparation b. Jaw growth is not hampered c. Can be used in uncooperative patients d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The most commonly used space maintainer: a. Nance holding arch b. Crown and loop c. Band and loop d. Lingual holding arch

c. Band and loop

In cases where the abutment tooth for a fixed space maintainer is highly carious, a crown and loop appliance is preferred. a. True b. False

a. True

Consists of bands joined by a stainless steel wire contacting the lingual surface of the four mandibular incisors: a. Nance holding arch b. Transpalatal arch c. Band and loop d. Lingual holding arch

d. Lingual holding arch

Best indicated when one side of the arch is intact and the other has several missing primary teeth: a. Nance holding arch b. Transpalatal arch c. Band and loop d. Lingual holding arch

b. Transpalatal arch

The appliance guides the 1st permanent molar into position when the deciduous 2nd molar is prematurely removed: a. Mesial shoe b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Labial bow

b. Distal shoe

Branch of orthodontics employed to recognize and eliminate the potential irregularities and malpositioning in the developing dento-facial complex: a. Corrective orthodontics b. Preventive orthodontics c. Interceptive orthodontics d. None of the above

a. Corrective orthodontics

The correctly timed and planned removal of deciduous and permanent teeth in mixed dentition stage: a. Serial surgery b. Serial exfoliation c. Serial extraction d. None of the above

c. Serial extraction

A contraindication to the answer of the previous item is deep or open bite: a. True b. False

a. True

A reciprocal active space regainer which used once the 1st premolar has erupted so as to create space for the 2nd premolar: a. Greber’s space regainer b. Hotz lingual arch c. Lip bumper d. Open coil space regainer

d. Open coil space regainer

Best suited for a situation where the 1st molar has drifted mesially but the premolars or canines has not: a. Greber’s space regainer b. Hotz lingual arch c. Lip bumper d. Open coil space regainer

b. Hotz lingual arch

Used to relief the lip pressure which can be used to distalize the molars: a. Greber’s space regainer b. Hotz lingual arch c. Lip bumper d. Open coil space regainer

c. Lip bumper

Crowding occurs when there is adequate arch circumference to accommodate the teeth in proper alignment. a. True b. False

b. False

Premature exfoliation of primary canine may indicate: a. An arch length deficiency b. An arch length excess c. Skeletal malocclusion d. All of the above

a. An arch length deficiency

The most common etiology of non-skeletal anterior crossbite is: a. Delayed eruption of permanent teeth b. Over retention of primary incisors c. Lack of space for the permanent teeth d. None of the above

b. Over retention of primary incisors

Class II division 2 malocclusion is always associated with: a. Open bit b. Cross bite c. Siccor bite d. Deep bite

d. Deep bite

Correction for crossbite can be done by using the following EXCEPT: a. Tongue blade b. Inclined bite plane c. Elastic bands d. Z-spring e. None of the above

e. None of the above

The tooth in the mandibular arch most likely to be malposed in cases of arch length discrepancy: a. 1st molar b. 2nd molar c. 1st premolar d. 2nd premolar

d. 2nd premolar

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the submerged primary molar? a. The tooth is non-vital b. The tooth is ankylosed c. There is no permanent successor d. Resorption of root is not evident

b. The tooth is ankylosed

Frankfort horizontal plane extends from: a. Porion to orbitale b. Nasion to porion c. Nasion to orbitale d. Gonion to orbitale

a. Porion to orbitale

Asymmetric anterior open bite with normal posterior intercuspation is characteristic of: a. Finger sucking b. Mouth breathing c. Abnormal swallowing d. None of the above

a. Finger sucking

A convex facial profile is associated with: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. None of the above

a. Class I

Most common dental diseases/disorders in children include the following EXCEPT: a. Thumb sucking b. Malocclusion c. Trauma d. Periodontitis

b. Malocclusion

Acts by inhibiting acid demineralization of tooth enamel and promoting remineralization: a. Systemic fluoride b. Topical fluoride c. Both A and B d. None of the above

d. None of the above

A state of mental excitement characterized by physiological, behavioral changes and alterations of feelings: a. Behavior b. Fear c. Emotion d. None of the above

c. Emotion

Defined as any change observed in the functioning of the organism: a. Behavior b. Fear c. Emotion d. None of the above

a. Behavior

Defined as persistent, excessive, unreasonable fear of a specific object, activity or situation that results in a compelling desire to avoid the dreaded object: a. Fear b. Anxiety c. Phobia d. Situational anxiety

c. Phobia

Type of positive reinforcement that includes tokens and toys: a. Social reinforcement b. Non-social reinforcement c. Both A and B d. None of the above

b. Non-social reinforcement

Objectives of voice control include the following EXCEPT: a. Gain the patient’s attention and compliance b. Avert negative or avoidance behavior c. Establish appropriate adult-child roles d. None of the above

d. None of the above

Diverting the patient’s attention from what may be perceived as an unpleasant procedure: a. Restraining b. Distraction c. Retraining d. Positive reinforcement

b. Distraction

A restraint used usually for patients <2 years old that restricts body movement: a. Mouth prop b. Bite block c. Papoose board d. None of the above

c. Papoose board

Film size for bitewing and periapical radiographs for small children: a. Size 0 b. Size 1 c. Size 2 d. Size 3

a. Size 0

Disadvantages of paralleling technique in pediatric patients include the following EXCEPT: a. Uncomfortable b. Positioning of holder can be difficult c. Image is more or less inaccurate d. None of the above

c. Image is more or less inaccurate

When trying to get a radiograph of mandibular molars with bisecting technique, the angulation should be at: a. 10 degrees b. -15 degrees c. 40 degrees d. -5 degrees

d. -5 degrees

The pediatric patient’s protection from radiation include the following EXCEPT: a. Lead apron b. Thyroid collar c. Minimal number of retakes d. Use of long rectangular collimator e. None of the above

e. None of the above

A unilateral fixed appliance that is the most commonly used space maintainer: a. Band and loop b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Primary tooth e. Lingual holding arch

a. Band and loop

A space maintainer that has an acrylic button in the mid palate: a. Band and loop b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Primary tooth e. Lingual holding arch

c. Nance holding arch

When using bisecting technique, presence of a cone cut is impossible. a. True b. False

b. False

Used in case of condylar neck fractures: a. Water’s view b. Reverse Towne’s view c. Postero-anterior view d. None of the above

b. Reverse Towne’s view

Radiograph that includes the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth and the alveolar crests: a. Periapical b. Occlusal c. Bitewing d. None of the above

c. Bitewing

Radiograph used to examine areas of cleft palate: a. Periapical b. Occlusal c. Bitewing d. None of the above

b. Occlusal

The best space maintainer is a: a. Band and loop b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Primary tooth e. Lingual holding arch

d. Primary tooth

Indications of space maintainers include the following EXCEPT: a. If the space shows signs of closing b. If the use of space maintainer will make the future orthodontic less complicated c. If the need for treatment of malocclusion at a later date is not indicated d. When the space should be maintained for two months or less

d. When the space should be maintained for two months or less

This space maintainer should be evaluated with radiograph prior to cementation: a. Band and loop b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Primary tooth e. Lingual holding arch

b. Distal shoe

Removable unilateral space maintainers are usually not used since they are too small and present swallowing and choking dangers for children. a. True b. False

a. True

This space maintainer will be replaced with another space maintainer when the permanent 1st molars erupts: a. Band and loop b. Distal shoe c. Nance holding arch d. Primary tooth e. Lingual holding arch

b. Distal shoe

If moisture control is difficult, a zinc-free, ________amalgam alloy should be used. a. Copper-less b. Low copper c. High copper d. None of the above

c. High copper

Insufficient depth at the isthmus of a restoration can lead to failure. Therefore, how deep should the preparation be when placing a class I dental amalgam? a. 0.5-1.0mm b. 1.5-2.0mm c. 2.5-3.0mm d. None of the above

b. 1.5-2.0mm

Indications for stainless steel crowns in primary teeth include the following EXCEPT: a. Pulpotomy and pulpectomy b. Extensive multi-surface caries and/or fractures c. High caries-risk patient d. Hypoplastic/hypocalcified carious teeth e. None of the above

a. Pulpotomy and pulpectomy

Margins for pre-fabricated stainless steel crowns should be: a. Chamfer b. Shoulder c. Deep chamfer d. Knife-edge

d. Knife-edge

The resin with the least filler content: a. Flowable composite b. Packable composite c. Bulk-fill composite d. Pit and fissure sealant

d. Pit and fissure sealant

Composite restorations are technique-sensitive and not moisture-sensitive. a. True b. False

b. False

Reasons for failure of pit and fissure sealants include the following EXCEPT: a. Inadequate isolation from saliva b. Inadequate light cure c. Voids from air bubbles d. None of the above

d. None of the above

Indications for use of glass ionomer cements include the following EXCEPT: a. Liner/Cement b. Atraumatic Restorative Technique c. Permanent teeth nearing extraction d. Provisional/temporary restorations e. None of the above

c. Permanent teeth nearing extraction

The restorative material with fluoride release: a. Amalgam b. Composite resin c. Glass ionomer cement d. Zinc oxide eugenol

c. Glass ionomer cement

During thermal tests, a strong, momentary pain that subsides in 1-2 seconds is indicative of: a. Normal pulp b. Reversible pulpitis c. Irreversible pulpitis d. Pulpal necrosis

b. Reversible pulpitis

Electrical Pulp Testing is not reliable in primary teeth due to false response of the pediatric patient. a. True b. False

a. True

Pain from pressure on a tooth indicates that the _____________ is inflamed. a. Surrounding alveolar bone b. Pulp c. Periodontal ligament d. Lamina dura

c. Periodontal ligament

The procedure involving a tooth with a deep carious lesion where carious dentin removal is left incomplete, and the decay process is treated with a biocompatible material for sometime in order to avoid pulp tissue exposure: a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy c. Indirect pulp capping d. Direct pulp capping e. Root canal treatment

c. Indirect pulp capping

The procedure in which the small exposure of the pulp, encountered during cavity preparation or following a traumatic injury, with a sound surrounding dentin, is dressed with an appropriate biocompatible radiopaque base in contact with the exposed pulp tissue prior to placing a restoration: a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy c. Indirect pulp capping d. Direct pulp capping e. Root canal treatment

d. Direct pulp capping

Rubber dam placement is mandatory in direct pulp capping procedures, as it is the only way to provide a sterile environment. a. True b. False

a. True

The complete removal of the coronal portion of the dental pulp, followed by placement of a suitable dressing or medicament that will promote healing and preserve vitality of the tooth: a. Pulpotomy b. Pulpectomy c. Indirect pulp capping d. Direct pulp capping e. Root canal treatment

a. Pulpotomy

Containdications for pulpectomy include the following EXCEPT: a. Excessive tooth mobility b. Communication between the oral cavity and area of furcation c. Communication between the roof of the pulp chamber, and the region of furcation. d. Insufficient tooth structure to allow isolation by rubber dam and extracoronal restoration e. None of the above

e. None of the above

Material used for apexogenesis procedures: a. Calcium Hydroxide b. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate c. Bone Morphogenic Protein d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Material used for pulpotomy procedures: a. Zinc oxide eugenol b. Glass ionomer cement c. Formocresol d. Lidocaine HCl e. All of the above

c. Formocresol

A method of inducing apical closure through the formation mineralized tissue in apical pulp region of a non-vital tooth with an incompletely formed root: a. Apexification b. Apexogenesis c. Apicoectomy d. None of the above

a. Apexification

Involves removal of the inflamed pulp and the placement of calcium hydroxide on the remaining healthy pulp tissue: a. Apexification b. Apexogenesis c. Apicoectomy d. None of the above

b. Apexogenesis

The primary cause of gingival enlargement in children is: a. Trauma b. Inflammation c. Fibrosis d. Eruption of teeth

d. Eruption of teeth

Most cases of eruption gingivitis are due to: a. Hormonal changes associated with tooth emergence b. Poor oral hygiene c. Infection during tooth emergence d. Hyperemia normally associated with tooth emergence

d. Hyperemia normally associated with tooth emergence

Examination procedures and diagnostic acids should be: a. Minimal for the child patient b. Maximal for the periodontal patient c. Basically the same for each and every patient d. Minimal for edentulous patients

c. Basically the same for each and every patient

Artificially fluoridating community water supply: a. Reduce cariogenic lesions by approximately 60% b. Causes deposition for fluoride in the kidney c. Is not definite preventive aid d. Elicits an increase in periodontitis

a. Reduce cariogenic lesions by approximately 60%

The tooth most frequently involve in a traumatic episode is the: a. Maxillary lateral incisor b. Maxillary central incisor c. Mandibular central incisor d. Mandibular lateral incisor

b. Maxillary central incisor

MT dalta Flashcards

(100 cards)