NASM practice exam Flashcards by Joe McQueen

Recommended sets for myofascial rolling gay shit?

1-3 sets

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

Exhaled carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

1 food = 1 calorie; and / or
Energy needed to raise 1 KG of water by 1 degree

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
Select one:

a.
Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

b.
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.

c.
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

d.
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Valsalva manuever?

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Select one:

a.
Arthrokinematics

b.
Kinesiology

c.
Biomechanics

d.
Osteokinematics

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Select one:

a.
Vertical jump

b.
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

c.
40-yard dash

d.
Pro shuttle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Select one:

a.
Muscle imbalance

b.
Stretch-shortening cycle

c.
Length-tension relationship

d.
Reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:

a.
Gluteus maximus and medius

b.
Lower trapezius

c.
Tensor fascia latae

d.
Adductor complex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Vestibular system?

Provides info above movement of your head through space

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Select one:

a.
Axial and appendicular

b.
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

c.
Upper and lower

d.
Anterior and posterior

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Select one:

a.
Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)

b.
Painkillers

c.
Insulin

d.
Inhalers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Select one:

a.
Frequency

b.
Volume

c.
Recovery

d.
Intensityq

Volume

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
Select one:

a.
Muscle atrophy

b.
Sarcopenia

c.
Muscle hypertrophy

d.
Neural adaptations

Neural adaptions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?
Select one:

a.
Proper technique

b.
Explosive power

c.
Amortization speed

d.
Jump height

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Select one:

a.
Client values and expectations

b.
Number of continuing education units earned

c.
Individual professional expertise

d.
Best external evidence

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
Select one:

a.
Thighs parallel to the ground

b.
As far as can be controlled without compensating

c.
Knees at 80 degrees of flexion

d.
Knees at 90 degrees of flexion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Select one:

a.
Pectoralis major

b.
Gluteus maximus

c.
Anterior deltoid

d.
Latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Select one:

a.
Acetyl CoA

b.
ATP

c.
Amino acids

d.
Pyruvate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?
Select one:

a.
Validity

b.
Appropriateness

c.
Relevance

d.
Reliability

Reliability

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:

a.
Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

b.
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

c.
Hamstrings and erector spinae

d.
Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

Hamstrings and erector spinae

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?

Bone density baby! Your almost there bro keep pushing you got this1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

Bracing in

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How is Fartlek training best described?

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

(Unstructured interval training)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?

Appearance imagery

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?

3-5 reps

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rectus abdominis d. Erector spinae

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Force velocity c. Force d. Torque

Torque

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 6 to 8 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 3 or 4 sets

Pussies 1-2 reps

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails b. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center c. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open d. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Thoracic spine c. Lumbar spine d. Sagittal plane

Thoracic spine

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

Thoracic spine

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hamstrings complex b. Gluteus medius c. Hip flexor complex d. Gluteus maximus

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Resting heart rate b. Stroke volume c. Cardiac output d. Venous return

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? Select one: a. The approximate midpoint of the body b. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, B complex, and K b. Vitamin C, B complex, and D c. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins d. Vitamin C, D, and K

B and C vitamins. You got this! NEVER BACK DOWN.

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Select one: a. Agility b. Speed c. Stride rate d. Quickness

Agility

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Health influence b. Group influence c. Societal influence d. Peer pressure

Group influence

Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Macromineral b. Performance supplement c. Vitamin d. Trace mineral

Trace mineral

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still? Select one: a. Overhead squat assessment b. Performance assessment c. Dynamic posture assessment d. Static posture assessment

Static posture assesement

Which joints are most associated with human movement?

Synovial

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program? Select one: a. Amount of external resistance b. Speed of exercise completion c. Quality of movement d. Number of sets/reps

Quality of movement for core

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Hip flexors c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Upper trapezius

Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building? Select one: a. Peristalsis b. Mastication c. Motility d. Absorption

Absroption

How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system

Sympathetic nervous system

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra b. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion c. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation d. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement? Select one: a. Inversion and eversion b. Abduction and Adduction c. Rotation d. Flexion and extension

Rotation

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate?

Radial

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Agility c. Speed d. Quickness

Reaction times invoke QUICKNESS

Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. Exercises that are performed one after another with minimal rest between each movement b. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements c. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch d. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

Circuit training = Exercises performed one after the other with minimal rest

A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. What principle is this?

All or nothing

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell? Select one: a. Endomysium b. Actin c. A sarcomere d. Myosin

Sarcomere

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch b. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes c. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest d. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

Forward head and protracted shoulders

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? Select one: a. Thoracic spine b. Tensor fascia latae c. Adductors d. Piriformis

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?

Maintenance

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function? Select one: a. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle. b. It converts ADP back to ATP. c. It helps transmit the motor signal. d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The assembled environment b. The manufactured environment c. The constructed environment d. The built environment

The built environment

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Speed c. Acceleration d. Assessment of visual stimuli

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Force production b. Power development c. Landing mechanics d. Core stability

Landing mechanics

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

Thumbs pointing up

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Transverse abdominis d. Erector spinae

Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Lactic acid b. Glycogen c. Acetoacetic acid d. Pyruvate`

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight movements b. Loaded movements c. Open-chain movements d. Closed-chain movements

Body weight = closed chain

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent? Select one: a. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression b. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern c. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression d. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? Select one: a. Exposing actin-binding sites b. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate c. The sliding filament theory d. The site of muscular contractions

How many sets recommended for mysofascial rolling?

1-3 sets pause for 30 seconds

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?

Eversion DORSION Flexion Ankle ABduction

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?

Sport and exercise psychology

Building blocks of proteins?

Amino acids baby

Improving _______ ________ using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.

Injury resistance

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

Glutes

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?

Intensity and duration

What statement best describes the category of simple sugars?

Single and double molecule sugars that are easily absorbed

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Overactive?

Overactive = Upper traps Underactive = lower traps

What is NOT included as a level or phase in the OPT model?

Rehabilitation

Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk?

Waist

During balance training, relevant / involved muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

Isometrically contracted

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?

Calf raise

Calf muscles name?

1. Gastrocnemius 2. Soleus

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality? Select one: a. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations. b. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance. c. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises. d. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.

B) Elastic bands are beneficial for muscular strength and endurance

T/F) Elastic bands are useful for muscular strength and endurance

True // But i doubt it lol

The __________ phase in plyometrics is the crucial, brief transition time between the eccentric (loading/landing) and concentric (explosive) phases, where elastic energy is stored and rapidly transferred for maximum power.

Amortization phase

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate?

208 - (0.7 X age)

What is the Tanaka formula for?

Estimating individual max heart rate

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

Low impact exercise

client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue?

Depletion of glycogen stores

Somatosensation?

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining position while standing or moving on unstable surfaces.

Somatosensation

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

Femur parallel to the ground

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"?

Stability

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle?

Undulating

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Client's choice b. Activation c. Skill development d. Resistance training

B) Activation

______ support: The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

Social support

The total duration of this workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

TABATA

T/F) As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

True

__________ Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways.

Neuroplascicity

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?

Reassessment

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?

24-72 hours

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which adjustment to a workout session could be implemented?

Decreased rest periods

T/F) Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

True

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Hip flexors and lumbar extenders

Hip flexors and lumbar extender associated with overactivity in what syndrome?

Lower crossed

A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership

Mid market health club

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?

Provide them with education and knowledge

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?

Eccentric phase

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases b. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading c. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?

60 min. vigorous activity per day

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?

Carbon dioxide

Which VT threshold? An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging.

VT Threshold 1

Creatine is most effective for what purpose? Select one: a. Improving strength and muscle size b. Damaging the kidneys c. Improving heart health d. Improving endurance

A) Improving strength and muscle size

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production?

ATP-PC System

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?

Tranverse abdominis

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Hip flexors

A) Adductor complex

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?

Procioreception

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Increasing bone density b. Collagen synthesis and immunity c. Immunity only d. Collagen synthesis only

Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. Eastern European gymnastic programs b. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales c. The Russian military d. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. External feedback b. Proprioception c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Force velocity

___________ techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

Self-myofascial

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients? Select one: a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 120 to 180 seconds d. 0 to 60 seconds

0-60

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength b. Davis's law and Wolf's law c. Pain response and muscle spasm d. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?

Carbs

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Pushing b. Hip hinge c. Squatting d. Pulling

C) Squatting

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?

Speed of force generation

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch b. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch c. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch d. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Single-leg balance c. Single-leg lift and chop d. Multiplanar hop with stabilization

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?

80%

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?

Intensity

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?

Stretch reflex

______ _____ : When the muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with immediate contraction to stop the stretch.

Stretch reflex

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?

4 years

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Floor crunch c. Side plank d. Medicine ball soccer throw

Side plank

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

Females

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect? Select one: a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Glycogen

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Undulating periodization b. Localized periodization c. Direct periodization d. Linear periodization

Undulating

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Infraspinatus b. Latissimus dorsi c. Lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius

Upper traps

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

Ice skaters

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?

Strength endurance

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

Glutes

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Rotator cuff muscles c. Deltoid d. Rhomboids

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Isometric contraction

Autogenic inhibition

VT1 and 2 stages: ________ The point where ventilation (the amount of air breathed) begins to increase disproportionately relative to oxygen consumption. Easy convo. _______: Steeper, non-linear increase in ventilation, typically occurring when the body needs to expel excess \(CO_{2}\) produced by buffering acidity (lactate). Difficult to hold convo. Primarily uses carbs for fuel.

VT1 VT2

This stage of VT talk test is when body shifts to primarily using carbs for fuel. Also difficult to talk here.

VT2

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

Monthly!

What are the three categories within the lipid family?

Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Free hydrogen ions b. Lack of pyruvate c. Depletion of phosphocreatine d. Lack of fatty acids

Free hydrogen ions

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Gluteus medius d. Latissimus dorsi

Erector spinae (BACKSTRAPS)

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Amortization c. Concentric d. Eccentric

Amortization

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain? Select one: a. Androgens b. Melatonin c. Endorphins d. Adrenaline

Endorphins

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Quadriceps c. Hamstrings d. Sartorius

Quadriceps

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? Select one: a. Speed b. Strength c. Agility d. Quickness

Quickness

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? Select one: a. Fatty acids b. Pyruvate c. Amino acids d. Glycogen

Pyruvate

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Exercise b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis c. Resting metabolic rate d. Thermic effect of food

Resting metabolic rate

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 2-0-2-0 b. 1-2-3-4 c. 4-2-1-1 d. X-X-X-X

4-2-1-1

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

Forearm muscle name?

Brachioradis

Brachioradis?

Forearm muscles

Formal name for biceps and triceps?

Bicep Brachii Tricep Brachii

Front, side, and back of shoulder muscle name?

Anterior deltoids Lateral and Posterior deltoids

Proper name for chest muscle? What about smaller muscle of pecs?

Pectoralis major and minor

Forearm muscle name?

Brachioradilis

Muscle below the traps on back?

Rhomboids Major and minor

Rhomboids major and minor?

Below traps on back

Muscle group center line of abs? Side of abs?

Transverse abdominis Obliques

Name for long muscle on outside of quad? Inside of quad?

1. Biceps femoris (longhead and shorthead) 2. Semimembransus

Calf muscle groups?

Tibialis Gastrocremisu and Soleus

NASM practice exam Flashcards

(171 cards)