NASM Sections 1-5 Flashcards by Joe McQueen

NASM’s approach to to exercise, the ____ model, was developed w/ evidence based practice as core philosophy.

OPT Model

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____ Disease is suddenly occurring medical condition that can be treated in healed in short time.

Acute

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______ disease is med. condition that persists or cannot be treated in short time.

Chronic

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Overweight =
Obese =

< 25.0 BMI
< 30.0 BMI

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_____ disease is broad term describing problems of heart, blood vessels, stroke, valve problems, arrhythias, etc.

Cardiovascular Disease

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___________ is one of the primary risk factors for heart disease and stroke, which are the
global leading causes of death.

Hypertension

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____________ is a waxy substance found in the blood that is made up of a combination of
protein and fatty acids.

Cholesteral

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__________ is a disease in which blood glucose levels are too high. Glucose comes from the
foods we eat.

Diabetes

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__________ is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps glucose get into cells to provide
the energy for work.

Insulin

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_______ is an abnormal growth of cells that can result from a wide range of genetic and
environmental factors.

Cancer

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_____ is an umbrella term for lung diseases characterized by increased breathlessness,
airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function.

COPD

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Two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle are……

……sprains and plantar fasciitis.

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Plantar fasciitis causes pain where?

In the plantar fascia tissue located on the underside of the foot.

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The _____ is made up of the lumbar spine (low-back area), pelvis, abdomen, and hip musculoskeletal structures; it is more commonly referred to as the “core.”

LPHC

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______ dysfunction is very common in the greater population, especially in those who frequently lift objects overhead.

Shoulder dysfunction

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BMI less than 18.5?
BMI 18.5-24.9

Underweight
Healthy weight

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____ blood pressure is top number.

Systolic

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Stage 1 hypertension?

130 - 139 Systolic or Diastolic 80-89.

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Stage II hypertension?

140 or higher systolic

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Hypertensive Crisis?

180 Systolic or greater

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LDL should be less than what, ideally?
HDL?

100 milligrams
HDL around 60 milligrams

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Type __ diabetes, body not making enough insulin.
Type __ diabetes, body makes insulin but it is not used properly by cells.

Type I
Type II

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____ techniques should be used to predict how many clients will need to be serviced to support desired financial goals.

Forecasting techniques

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4 Ps of marketing?

Product
Price
Place
Promotion

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SWOT analysis?

Strength Weakness Opportunities Threats

A total of ___ CEUs is required to renew your NASM Certification. Required every __ years. How does that number break down?

2.0 Every 2 years. Breakdown = 1.9 from continuing education efforts + 0.1 from renewing CPR certification.

Which organization serves as the international public health agency of UN?

World Health Organization (WHO)

The simplest form of carbohydrate used by the body for energy.

Glucose

The inability of the cells to respond to insulin; occurs in type 2 diabetes.

Insulin Resistance

A group of hormones secreted by the brain that provides a variety of physiological functions, such as reducing the perception of pain.

Endorphins

What is the most challenging of the public health problems faced today?

Obesity!

What does the term shoulder impingement syndrome refer to?

Shoulder pain caused by rotator cuff tissues rubbing against the acromion bone. (Rotator cuff rubbing against Bone)

Fitness Professional with advanced knowledge, training, and experience in designing and implementing strength / conditioning programs for competitive athletes

Strength & Conditioning Coach (You)

NASM recommends that all fitness professionals maintain a focus on an ____ _____ practice to attain the highest levels of success.

Evidence based practice

Is COPD curable?

No.

2 factors used to measure BMI?

Height & Weight

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

Ischemic heart disease

Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

LDL

What does the phrase “training under the table” refer to?

Joining a gym to offer personal training directly to other members

An individual who has been identified as a potential client.

Prospect

A nondirective question that can’t be answered with a simple yes or no

Open ended Qs

How are buying decisions primarily driven?

Emotionally

A set of specific skills or traits that are highlighted during a sales presentation. For you, this would be BJJ.

Unique Selling Proposition (USP)

At what rate does NASM award continuing education units?

0.1 units per hour

A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives (YMCA)

Non profit health club

How many pages are most appropriate for a resume?

1-2

What term describes the process of building a relationship based on communication and trust?

Building Rapport

Study of movement as it relates to anatomy and physiology.

Kinesiology

The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium.

Homeostasis

What are the 2 overwhelmingly preventable causes of death?

1) Tobacco use and 2) Overweight or obese.

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

Ischemic heart disease

What is unique about type II diabetes?

Insulin resistance

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner?

Confidentiality

Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation?

Socioeconomic status

A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability

Deconditioned

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?

Four years

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

Diastolic

An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body?

Knee

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?

Planning

Unlike an outcome goal, a ________ goal is something that is pursued overtime to reach a final outcome, like planning to run multiple times a week.

Process

This occurs when clients believe their thoughts to be true.

Cognitive Fusion

____ ______ is a cognitive technique where you identify a negative inner narrative (e.g., “I can’t do this”) and then actively replace it with positive or constructive statements.

Reverse Listing

People in the ____________ stage are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months. What if they are planning to start inside 6 months? What if they are exercising, but for less than 6 months. More than?

Outside 6 months = Pre-contemplation Inside 6 months = Contemplation Action / More than 6 months, Maintenance

PPL in this stage may engage sporadically in physical activity, but lacks consistency, structure, or a formal plan.

Preparation

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?

Action

A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior

Intention

1 = how positively or negatively someone evaluates the behavior. 2 = Belief that important people support the behavior 3 = Motivational factors influencing behavior = 4 = Confidence in ability to meet a goal

1 = Attitude 2 = Subjective norm 3 = Intention 4 = Self efficacy

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

Self efficacy

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?

Pre-contemplation Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?

Maintenance

Exercising because it is fun is an example of ________ motivation.

Intrinsic

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?

Health & well being

1) I want to get my purple belt. What type of goal is this? 2) First, I need to get stripes on my blue belt. Goal type?

1) Outcome goal 2) Process goal

______________--are the generic, modifiable factors that influence behavior (e.g., attitudes, self-efficacy, outcome expectations, which as specific examples of this)

Determinants

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?

Informational support

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?

Technique Imagery

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?

Group influence

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?

Reflective listening

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers?

Lack of time

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Outcome expectations Self-efficacy Intention Self-regulation

Self efficacy

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Social psychology Health psychology Developmental psychology Sport and exercise psychology

Social

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Unequal Independent Reciprocal Autonomous

Reciprocal

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Sustain talk An affirmation A collecting summary Change talk

Sustain talk

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Intrinsic motivation Incentive motivation Extrinsic motivation Amotivation

Instrinsic

__________ motivation happens when someone does something for rewards or recognition.

Extrinsic

____________motivation describes the motivation to do something that comes from within an individual; it is strongly related to long-term adherence.

Intrinsic

____________ to exercise occurs when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and likely sees pros and cons to participation.

Ambivalence

______________support includes the tangible things that assist people with the ability to exercise, such as providing transportation to a fitness facility, assisting with childcare, or packing someone’s gym bag.

Instrumental

__________ support comes from being caring, empathetic, and concerned about someone’s experience with exercise.

Emotional

___________support is often cited as the most influential type of support.

Instrumental

The ____ _____ sets the tone of the class and is responsible for creating an inviting and inclusive exercise environment.

Exercise leader

Examples of extrinsic motivation for exercise? (Very important)

Social recognition Rewards Improvement of physical appearance

Examples of Intrinsic motivation? (Very important)

Stress relief Increasing energy Finding new ways to be challenged physically

Examples of outcome goals? (VI)

Purple belt Bench 315

_________ is one of the strongest determinants of physical activity in adults; most coaching efforts are directed at increasing it.

Self-efficacy / self confidence

The human movement system includes an integration of what 3 main systems?

Muscular Skeletal Nervous

The nervous system provides _________(afferent) and _______ (efferent) information.

Sensory & motor information

The __________ is the functional unit of the nervous system.

Neuron

What included in nervous system?

CNS (Brain & Spinal) PNS (Somatic & autonomic nervous systems)

The ___ nervous systems contains different types of sensory receptors such as mechanoreceptors, nociceptors, chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.

PNS (Somatic / Autonomic)

PNS) Examples of mechanoreceptors?

Golgi tendon organ Muscle Spindle

The PNS contains two subdivisions.

Somatic & Autonomic

The nervous system requires different electrolytes for proper function, which includes...

sodium, potassium, magnesium, and water.

Motor skill development often occurs in three stages:

cognitive, associative, and autonomous.

The collective components and structures that work together to move the body: muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.

HMS / Human Movement System

Neuron components?

Cell, axon, dendrites

Nerves that connect the rest of the body to the central nervous system. (CNS) which is head and spine.

PNS / Peripheral Nervous System

PNS has two pathways.

Afferent (Sensory) and efferent (Motor)

_____ pathway (PNS): Sensory pathway that relays info to CNS.

Afferent

_____ pathway (PNS): Motor pathway which relays info to CNS.

Efferent

Specialized structures that respond to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

Mechanoreceptors

Main difference between Somatic and Autonomic nervous systems?

Somatic is voluntary

Main difference between Sympathetic and Para-sympatheic nervous systems?

Sympathetic increases neural activity, putting body in heightened state. Para-sympathetic relaxes.

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

Proprioception

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change. (VI)

Muscle Spindles

A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change. (VI)

Gogi tendon organ

2 divisions of skeletal system? (A and A)

Axial and Appendicular

There are five categories of bones:

long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.

In the human skeletal system, there are ______ bones of which approximately_____ are used in voluntary movement.

206 bones 177 for voluntary movement

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, the rib cage, and the vertebral column. There are approximately 80 bones in it.

Axial

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle. 126 bones in this system.

Appendicular

The process by which bone is constantly renewed by the resorption and formation of the bone structure.

Remodeling

1) Special cells that break down and remove old bone tissue. 2) Special cells that form and lay down new bone tissue.

1) Osteoclasts 2) Osteoblasts

A gliding joint that moves in only one plane, either back and forth or side to side.

Nonaxial joint

The _____ or _____ principle describes how a motor unit either maximally contracts or does not contract at all.

All or nothing principle

Type 1 muscle fibers Type 2 muscle fibers

1 = slow-twitch, muscle fibers are smaller in size, produce less force, and are fatigue resistant. 2 = fast-twitch, muscle fibers are larger in size, produce more force, and fatigue quickly.

3 muscle types?

Skeletal, Cardiac, Smooth.

____ Muscle = The type of muscle tissue that connects to bones and generates the forces that create movement.

Skeletal muscle

Connective tissue that surrounds muscles and bones.

Fascia

Inner layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle, commonly referred to as the “deep fascia.”

Epimysium

Tendons vs Ligaments?

Tendons = Connect muscles to bones. Ligaments = Connect bones to bones.

The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within this.

Myofibrils

What is inside Myofibrilis?

Myofilaments (Mysin and Actin)

Myofilaments (Myosin and Actin) are inside Mofibrils. What is diff. between Myosin and Actin?

Myosin = Thin, stringlike myofilament Actin = Thick myofilament

Normal heart rate range?

60-100

2 chambers in the heart?

Atrium and Ventricle

The electrical conduction system of the heart is responsible for its function and begins with the sinoatrial node, which is in the (Left/right) atrium.

Right

The ___________ node is referred to as the pacemaker of the heart and sends the electrical signal to the atrioventricular node and ultimately into the ventricles.

Sinoatrial

Which atrium (right or left) gathers deoxygenated blood from body and sends to heart?

Right. Left receives oxygenated blood from heart sends out.

_________ volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction.

Stroke

Stroke volume formula?

End Diastolic -- end systolic

_______ output is the volume of blood pumped out of the heart in a minute and is a function of both heart rate and stroke volume.

Cardiac output

___________ transport blood away from the heart to the body, whereas __________ transport blood back to the heart, and __________ function as an exchange channel between the vessels and bodily tissues.

Arteries Veins Cappillaries

Breathing (ventilation) is divided into two phases

Inspiration Expiration

A normal respiratory rate is ___ to ___ breaths per minute and relies on the primary respiratory muscles (diaphragm and intercostals).

12-16

___________ is a term used to describe the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the body’s tissues.

Diffusion

A respiratory rate of less than _____ breaths per minute would be considered too slow (bradypnea), whereas a rate of greater than _____ breaths per minute is considered too high (tachypnea).

8 24

The _________ system is comprised of glands that secrete hormones.

Endocrine

_____________ which is stimulated by the adrenal cortex, may be used to aid in recovery from exercise and as a marker of overtraining.

Cortisol

Although testosterone levels decline with age, they can be stimulated through....

Intense exercise

T/F) Evidence suggests that exercise can improve digestive function by increasing transit time of food from the upper to the lower GI tracts.

True

_________ Superior chamber(s) of the heart that gathers blood returning to the heart. ___________ Inferior chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs and body.

Atrium Ventricle

Ventricles receive blood from where?

Atriums

Located between the atria and ventricles, this node delays the impulse from the sinoatrial node before allowing it to pass to the ventricles.

Atrioventricular

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction.

Stroke volume

The filled volume of the ventricle before contraction.

End Diastolic

The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after ejection.

End systolic

____ ___ = The overall performance of the heart (heart rate x stroke volume) VI

Cardiac output

When the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. When the heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute.

Brachycardia Tachycardia

Movement is described in three dimensions that are based on planes, which include the....

sagittal, frontal, and transverse planes.

________kinematic describes the observable movement of a limb, whereas ______kinematic describes the movement taking place at the joint itself.

Osteokinematic Arthrokinematic

The ___________ plane is an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides. Movements in the sagittal plane include flexion and extension and plantar flexion and dorsiflexion of the foot and ankle.

Sagittal plane

The ________ plane bisects the body to create front and back halves. Movements in the frontal plane include abduction and adduction of the limbs (relative to the trunk), lateral flexion of the spine, and eversion and inversion at the foot and ankle complex.

Frontal

The _________ plane bisects the body to create upper and lower halves. Movements in the transverse plane include internal rotation and external rotation for the limbs, right and left rotation for the head and trunk, horizontal abduction and horizontal adduction of the limbs, and radioulnar pronation and supination.

Transverse

___ ____movements anchor the body to the ground or immovable object, whereas ____ ____ movement involves the distal limb moving freely in space.

Closed chain Open chain

Placing a muscle in a shortened position or lengthening a muscle beyond ___ ____ may reduce force output, because this is the position with maximal overlap of actin and myosin filaments.

Optimal length

The stretch-shortening cycle involves three phases, which include

1) eccentric phase, 2) amortization phase, and 3) concentric phase.

Stretch shortening cycle phases

Eccentric Ammortization Concentric

Anatomic locations: Medial = Lateral = Contralateral = Ipsilateral = Anterior = Posterior = Proximal = Distal =

Medial = Close to midline Lateral = Far away from midline Contralateral =Opposite side of body Ipsilateral = Same side of body Anterior = Front Posterior = Back Proximal = Nearest to center of body Distal = Farthest from center Inferior = Below IDd ref point Superior = Above IDd ref point

Anatomic locations Inferior = Superior =

Below ref point Above ref point

Anatomic locations: Medial = Lateral =

Medial = Close to midline Lateral = Far away from midline

Anatomic locations: Contralateral = Ipsilateral =

Contralateral =Opposite side of body Ipsilateral = Same side of body

Anatomic locations: Proximal = Distal =

Proximal = Nearest to center of body Distal = Farthest from center

Anatomic locations: Contralateral = Ipsilateral =

Contra = Positioned on opp side of body. Ipsi = Poisitioned on inside of body.

Anatomic locations: Medial = Lateral =

Close to midline Far away from midline

Anatomic locations: Anterior = Posterior =

Front of body Back of body

Dorsiflexion Plantar Flexion

Dorsi = Flexion occurring at the ankle (i.e., top of the foot moves toward the shin). Plantar = Extension occurring at the ankle. Pointing the foot downwards.

Muscle actions: _________ = Force is produced, muscle tension is developed, and movement occurs through a given range of motion. (Barbell press, pushup, bicep curl, squatting, etc.) "The man stuff"

Isotonic movement

_________ movement = Muscle tension is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint. (Planks, wall-sits, squat holds) "The gay stuff"

Isometric

_______ movement = The speed of movement is fixed, and resistance varies with the force exerted. It requires sophisticated training equipment often seen in rehabilitation or exercise physiology laboratories. "Rehab shit"

Isokinetic

_______ = The primary muscle which gives you the force needed for a exercise. IE: Pecs in chest press

Agonists

________ muscles assist agonists to produce a movement. IE: Tricep in chest press

Synergists

Agonists for squat? Synergist for squat?

A = Glutes S = Hamstrings

Agonists for chest press? Synergists? Antagonists?

A = Pecs S = Triceps AT = Back (Lats, delts, etc.)

Agonists for hammer curl? Synergists? Antagonists?

A = Biceps S = Forearms AT = Triceps

________ muscles are muscles on the opposite side of a joint / in direct opposition of agonist muscle in lift. IE: Tricep during hammer curls.

Antagonists

________ = Muscles that contract isometrically to STABILIZE the trunk and joints as body undergoes a lift. Gay shit

Stabilizers

Examples of closed-chain exercises?

Pushups Pullups Squats Lunges

Examples of open chain exercises?

Hammer curls Bench press Leg curls Leg extensions

____ ___ relationship = The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length. IE: Bottom of a curl, less force. Middle of curl, better force as Myosin and Actin overlap.

Length Tension relationship

______ L-T Relationship = When a muscle’s resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce. IE: Bad form in lift handicapping

Altered length tension relationship

When a muscle’s resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.

Reciprocal inhibition

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.

Altered reciprocal inhibition

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

Muscle imbalance

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint

Force couple relationship

Deltoid – pulls the humerus upward Rotator cuff (especially infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis) – pulls the humeral head downward and stabilizes it Whats happening?

Force-couple relationship

The energy molecule used to do cellular work is called adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and it is made from food substrates consumed in the diet.

ATP / Adenosine triphosphate

The first law of thermodynamics states......

that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, only converted from one form into another.

The fuels used to create ATP are: ________ from carbohydrates; _________ from fat; __________ from protein, and ketone bodies. These fuels are mostly obtained through the diet.

Glucose from carbs Fatty acids from fat Amino acids from protein & ketone bodies

Carbohydrates in the diet are broken down into __________, which can produce ATP quickly via the process of glycolysis.

Glucose

Glucose is stored in the form of _______; the amount of________ that can be stored in the body is much less than the amount of fat that can be stored.

Glycogen

Amino acids come from what?

Protein consumption

Free fatty acids come from what?

Consumed fat

Protein is usually reserved for muscle building rather than ATP production. (True or false)

True

When and how are ketone bodies produced?

Produced by liver when in severe deficit

Exercise is defined in two ways.

Intensity & duration

The higher the exercise intensity, the lower...

The lower the duration must be

The _________ pathway is the simplest and fastest way to generate ATP. This system can only support short duration activities because the supply of PC is limited.

ATC-PC pathway

______ _______ is a process that uses oxygen to create ATP from substrate molecules at a relatively slow rate.

Oxidative phosphorylation

ATP created in two ways?

Food (like glucose becoming glycogen) and Oxidate phosphorylation which uses oxygen to create.

_____ ______ exercise is defined as a situation in which a person engages in the same level of activity, without increases or decreases in intensity, for several minutes.

Steady state

T/F) Lower-intensity activities use a higher percentage of fat as a fuel but generally do not burn a lot of calories unless performed for a very long time.

True

Higher-intensity activities have a higher percentage of energy coming from ___________ and usually burn more total calories in a given time.

Carbohydrates

Low intensity burns High intensity burns

Fats Carbs

Daily food intake matching energy needs described as?

Energy balance

___________ (___) is the minimum number of calories needed at rest to keep a person alive and meet all functional needs of the body.

Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

The ________________ (TEF) is the number of calories that are used to digest a meal.

Thermic effect of food

This involves burning calories in activities that are not exercise.

NEAT nonexercise activity thermogenesis

NEAT = EAT =

Neat = energy burned non exercise EAT = Energy burned in exercise

The simplest form of carbohydrate used by the body for energy. Glucose that is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrate.

Glucose vs Glycogen

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body.

Triglyceride

Essential amino acids produced by body. How many? T/F

False, must be consumed in diet. 9 in total.

Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body and do not, under normal circumstances, need to be obtained in the diet.

Non essential amino acids

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources (proteins and fats).

Glyconeogenesis

Aerobic (low intensity) = Anaerobic (high intensity) =

Aerobic = requires oxygen (jogging) Anaerobic = Lack of oxygen (Sprinting)

An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approximately 10–15 seconds, via anaerobic metabolism. (Very Imp.) Sprints Olympic weightlifting

ATP-PC System

________ system: A metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell that converts glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate. Anaerobic glycolysis refers to when this process occurs in the absence of oxygen. It lasts longer, with a capacity of approximately 30 to 60 seconds of duration. (Very Imp) Strength training (8-12 reps)

Glycolytic system

The most complex of the three energy systems is the _______ system—a process that uses oxygen to convert food substrates into ATP. This process is called oxidative phosphorylation, and it is defined as an aerobic process because it needs oxygen to complete the reactions. Jogging or running long time

Oxidative system

How many amino acids in protein? How many essential?

20. 9 are essential.

Protein calories per gram? RDA for protein?

4 0.8 g/ bodyweight

AMDR for protein is what % of total calories?

10-35%

__________ carbohydrates are long chains of glucose units called polysaccharides, which are slower to digest and raise blood glucose levels slowly.

Complex carbs

Where to get complex carbs?

Legumes, veggies, starches (Sweet potato)

Protein calories per gram? Carb?

4 4

Glycemic load or index better predictor?

Load

Where is glycogen stored?

Liver and skeleton

T/F) Fiber is an indegistible carbohydrate

True!

AMDR % for carbs? Protein?

45-65% 10-35%

Fiber recommendation for men and women?

Women =25-28g Men= 30-34g

Calories per gram? Carb Protein Lipids

4 4 9

AMDR Protein Carbs Lipids

P = 10-35% C = 45-65% L = 20-35%

Vitamins include two groups:

Fat soluble Water soluble

Fat soluble vitamins?

A, D, E, K

Water soluble vitamins?

C and B

2 Mineral types?

Major Trace

Fluid recommendation?

Women = 11.5 / 2.7 L cups Men = 15.5 / 3.7 L

Athletes should replace fluid at _____ X the amount of body weight lost during an event.

1.25X

Sports drinks may be ______ (lower concentration than body fluids), _________ (similar concentration as body fluids), or __________ (higher concentration than body fluids).

Hypotonic Isotonic Hypertonic

Sports drinks are likely unnecessary for short-duration exercise lasting less than XX minutes (unless in hot or humid temperatures).

> 60 min

Adequate caloric intake, especially adequate _________ intake combined with resistance training, remains an essential element for increasing muscle mass.

Protein

Protein can replace carbs partially via _____________.

gluconeogenesis

Alcohol is a macronutrient which = ____ calories per gram.

Macronutrient list

Protein Carb Lipids Alcohol

A protein source that provides all essential amino acids.

Complete protein

RDA for protein?

0.8g per BW

Macronutrient AMDR ranges?

Protein = 10-35% Lipids = 20-35% Carb = 45-65%

Water Soluble vitamins?

C & B

Fluid intake?

11.5 / 2.7L women 15.5 / 3.7L men

An effective dose of creatine is at least _____ g per kg body weight, but a typical dose at 5 g per day ensures complete muscle saturation.

At least 0.03g

Creatine range guidelines?

0.3-5g

The _______ is considered an appropriate minimal screening tool for conducting a HRA.

Par-Q+

A short yes/no questionnaire Designed to identify obvious medical red flags before exercise Commonly used by gyms, personal trainers, and group fitness programs

Physical activity readiness Questionnarie

A more detailed evaluation than PAR-Q Often includes: Medical history Lifestyle factors (diet, smoking, alcohol, stress) Physical activity habits Family history Biometrics (weight, blood pressure, cholesterol, glucose)

Health Risk Appraisal HRA

T/F) The PAR-Q+ is considered an appropriate minimal screening tool for conducting a HRA.

True

A ________ includes information about a client’s medical history (e.g., injuries, surgeries, medications, and chronic disease) and lifestyle habits (e.g., exercise, diet, sleep, stress, and occupation).

Health History Questionnaire HHQ

There are many anatomical locations that can be used to measure a client’s RHR. However, for accuracy, safety, and ease of administering, NASM recommends that fitness professionals measure a client’s _______ pulse.

Radial (inside wrist)

Blood pressure (BP) is defined....

...as the outward pressure exerted by blood on the arterial walls.

_____________ is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

Anthropometry

Examples of cardiorespiratory assesments?

Vo2 max YMCA 3 min test Rockport walk test 1.5 mile run test

___________-- testing is considered the gold standard for identifying a client’s level of cardiorespiratory fitness, but it requires specialized equipment and training to conduct.

V O2max

The ________ test an informal cardiorespiratory assessment used to gauge the intensity of cardiorespiratory activity based on the client’s ability to hold a conversation.

Talk test

The ________ test is an incremental test performed on any device (e.g., treadmill, bike) that gradually progresses in intensity level and relies on the interpretation of how a person talks to determine a specific event at which the body’s metabolism undergoes a significant change. A key point to this protocol is to remember that it is an aerobic test that aims to estimate the intensity where the body is using a balance of fuels (i.e., 50% fat, 50% carbohydrates).

VT1

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

Contraindication

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

PAR Q+ physical activity readiness questionnaire

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

HHQ - Health history questionnaire

A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.

Bioelectrical impedance analysis

Jackson and Pollock 7 site measurements

Chest Mid axillary Subscapular Triceps Abs Supraaliac Thigh

Jackson and Polluck three site?

Chest, abs, thighs

Durnin - Womersley Four site measurment: VERY IMP

Biceps Triceps Subscapular Supraaliac

____________ is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

Anthropoetry

BMI is a type of ________ measurment.

Anthropometric

There are many methods for measuring a client’s body fat percentage, including underwater weighing, skinfold measurements, and bioelectrical impedance analysis. While all methods are valid, for ease of use, ______ _______ is arguably the most popular method used in fitness facilities.

Bio-electrical impedence

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

Par Q+

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

HHQ

BMI: Metric formula? Imperial formula?

Metric = Weight (kg) / height (m)2 Imperial = 703 X weight (lb) / height (in)2

A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.

Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

Durnin-Wormsely four site measurement?

Biceps Triceps Subscapular Suprailiac

Flat feet that cause a chain of movement problems up the body

Pes Planus distortion syndrome

In PP distortion, what happens to knee joints and hip joints?

Both are internally rotated

LC Sndrome: what are the overactive muscles?

Hip flexors Lumbar (lower back)

Lower crossed syndrome, potentially underactive muscles?

Abs, glutes (maximus and medius), and hammies

Lower crossed syndrome, over and underactive muscles?

Over = Lumbar (lower) and hips Under = Abs, glutes, hammies

Static position for lower crossed syndrome? (The back is pushing forward) Hip joints = Pelvis = Lumbar spine =

Hip joints = Flexed Pelvis = Anterior pelvic tilt Lumbar spine = Excessive lordosis (extension)

_____ _____ Syndrome is a postural distortion pattern where certain muscles are tight/overactive and others are weak/underactive, creating a “crossed” pattern around the pelvis and lower spine.

Lower crossed

With this syndrome, the back muscles push forward, muscles on front of body are weak.

Lower crossed syndrome

PP distortion, overactive muscles?

Calves, inner thighs, and muscles on front of hips.

PP distortion, under active muscles?

Shin muscles, glutes

_______ _______ Syndrome is a postural distortion pattern involving the neck, shoulders, and upper back, where tight and weak muscles form a crossed imbalance. It is common in people who spend long hours sitting, studying, or using phones/computers.

Upper Crossed

___ ___ syndrome: Hunchback (flexed), shoulders rounded forward, head and neck jutted foward.

Upper crossed syndrome

Overactive muscles in Upper crossed syndrome?

Chest, neck, traps

When feet turn out, what are the overactive muscles?

Calves and hammies

Knees caving in known as?

Knee valgus

Overactive muscles for knee valgus?

Front of hip muscles and inner thigh muscles

Overactive muscles when low-back arches?

Hip flexors, lumbar, and lats

Arms fall forward, overactive muscles?

Lats, pecs, shoulders

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

When to immediately terminate exercise that requires exertion?

Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Lower trapezius Infraspinatus Upper trapezius Latissimus dorsi

Upper traps

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Pushing assessment Overhead press Push-up test Bench press strength assessment

Push-up test

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Overhead squat 40-yard dash Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Pro shuttle

40 yard dash

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears? Arms fall forward Scapular winging Forward lean Shoulder elevation

Shoulder elevation

Radial pulse for 6 seconds is 8. What is BPM?

8 X 10 = 80 BPM

What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg? Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested). Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring Lifestyle changes alone

Life style + medical monitoring

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for? A) An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals B) Overall level of physical fitness C) Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height D) Body fat and lean mass composition

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? A) Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) B) 40-yard dash C) Long (broad) jump D) Pro shuttle

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? A) Push-up test B) Overhead press C) Pushing assessment D) Bench press strength assessment

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Hamstrings complex Hip flexors Gluteus medius Gluteus maximus

Hip flexors

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Healthy weight Class II obesity Overweight Obese

Overweight (25-29)

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? A) Anthropometry B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) C) Skinfold measurements D) Body mass index (BMI)

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Pushing assessment Single-leg squat Overhead squat Pulling assessment

Overhead squat

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders? A) Upper crossed syndrome B) Pes planus distortion syndrome C) Knee valgus D) Lower crossed syndrome

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? A) Gluteus maximus and medius B) Tensor fascia latae C) Adductor complex D) Lower trapezius

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) Resting metabolic rate (RMR) Thermoregulation Peripheral vasodilation

Thermoregulation

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? YMCA 3-minute step test Rockport walk test 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

VT1

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele? Every month Every week Every 6 months Every year

Every month

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Upper trapezius Serratus anterior Cervical extensors Lower trapezius

Lower traps

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips Forward head and protracted shoulders Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

Forward head and protracted shouders

What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Femoral artery Brachial artery Radial artery Carotid artery

Brachial artery

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? (A) A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature (B) A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle (C) A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed (D) A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? The knees bowing outward An upright trunk and knees in front of toes The hip shifting toward one side or the other The knees collapsing inward

Knees collapsing inwards

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Four Seven Six Three

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus maximus Gastrocnemius and soleus Hip flexor complex Rectus abdominis

Gluteus maximus

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? VO2max Rockport walk test 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test YMCA 3-minute step test

Vo2 Max

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power? Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) 40-yard dash Pro shuttle Vertical jump

Vertical Jump

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Squat Overhead squat Single-leg squat Lunge

Squat

What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate? Femoral pulse Pedal pulse Radial pulse Carotid pulse

Radial

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion? Static posture assessment Performance assessment Overhead squat assessment Dynamic posture assessment

Dynamic

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? WHR of 0.72 WHR of 0.88 WHR of 0.78 WHR of 0.83

0.88 because anything over 0.86 is high risk

High risk waist to hip ratio?

Above 0.86

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Rockport 1-mile walk test 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test YMCA 3-minute step test Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test

YMCA

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Blood pressure Flexibility Resting heart rate Body composition

Flexibility

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Rhomboids Posterior deltoid Middle and lower trapezius Latissimus dorsi

Lats

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity? Cardiorespiratory fitness Muscular fitness Body composition Flexibility

Body comp

Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement? A) At the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold (while standing) B) At the widest portion of the buttocks (while standing with feet together) C) At the widest point of the waist (while seated) D) At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Heart Soft tissue Bone Nerves

Nerves

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Progressive overload All-or-nothing principle Systematic approach SAID principle

Progressive overload

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? Powerlifter Cross-country runner Olympic weightlifter Avid resistance trainer

Cross country runner

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Triceps brachii Quadriceps Latissimus dorsi Biceps brachii

Triceps

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Obesity Smoking Heart disease Cancer

Heart disease

NASM Integrated Training Session Order?

Warm-up Cardio Resistance Core / balance

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Muscle hypertrophy Muscle power Muscle strength Muscle endurance

Muscle hypertrophy

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training? Rehabilitation Plyometrics Core Resistance training

Rehab

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder? Power Training Maximal Strength Training Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training

Muscular development training: Moderate to heavy loads, moderate reps 6-12

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Anterior Lateral Posterior Superior

Posterior

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? Quadratus lumborum Obliques Pectoral group Gluteal complex

Pecs

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Muscular Development Training Maximal Strength Training Stabilization Endurance Training Strength Endurance Training

Maximal strength training

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? Sagittal Frontal Transverse Axial

Sagittal

Volume formula?

Sets X reps X weight

_______ training: A training concept that applies all forms of exercise, such as flexibility; cardiorespiratory; core; balance; plyometric; speed, agility, quickness; and resistance training, into one system.

Integrated

____ _____ : Increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach.

Progressive overload

Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session. PT must be able to demonstrate

Fundamental movements

Examples of fundamental movements?

Squatting Hip hinge Pulling motions Pushing motions Vertical pressing

Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance? a Systematics b Integrated training c Boot camp training d High-intensity interval training (HIIT)

Integrated training

What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach? a Ramping b Undulation c Periodization d Progressive overload

Progressive overload

NASM OPT Model?

LV 1 = Stabilization endurance LV 2 = Strength endurance, muscular development, max strength LV 3 = Power

Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise? a Phase 1 b Phase 2 c Phase 3 d Phase 4

Phase 1

Which portion of a client’s exercise program should be designed first? a The stability portion b The strength portion c The flexibility portion d The cardiorespiratory portion Well done! You answered correctly.

Flexibility portion

What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)? a Reciprocal inhibition b Synergistic dominance c Altered reciprocal inhibition d Neuromuscular inefficiency Well done! You answered correctly.

Synergestic domiannce

Muscular imbalances have become common and prevalent in society, which are often caused by _______ ________. This is consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, such as baseball pitching, long-distance running, and specific occupations, which with time places abnormal stresses on the body

Pattern overload

States that soft tissue models along the line of stress.

Davis law

With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following? a Arthritis b Decreased vascular tone c Decreased pain response d Tissue trauma and inflammation

Tissue trauma and inflammation

What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity? a Afterburn b Rhizopathy c Lactic acidosis d Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

DOMS

What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held? a 15 seconds b 30 seconds c 45 seconds d 60 seconds

30 seconds

TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance. a True b False

False

What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion? a Active stretching b Ballistic stretching c Passive stretching d Isometric stretching

Active stretching

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching? a Stretch tolerance b Myofascial techniques c Autogenic inhibition d Reciprocal inhibition

Reciprocal inhibition

What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances? a PNF stretching b Ballistic stretching c Light aerobic activity d Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

What is the goal of dynamic stretching? a To pre-fatigue the muscles b To decrease neuromuscular efficiency c To prepare the body for more intense activity d To cause temporary breathlessness and exhaustion

Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps Active stretching of the hamstrings

SMS and static stretching of quads

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness Muscle strength and power Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency Flexibility and joint ROM

Flexibility and ROM

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls

Flexibility is defined as the following: Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees A muscle’s capability to be elongated or stretched Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Nociceptor Mechanoreceptor Action potential Neurotransmitter

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? A) Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema B) Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising C) Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising D) Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance

Phase 1

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads? Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training Strength Endurance Training

Max strength training

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Rectus abdominis Latissimus dorsi Gluteus medius Erector spinae

ABS

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Strength and volume Strength and stabilization Growth and volume Growth and stabilization

Growth & volume

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength An overweight client with adequate strength A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength

A (Must have "adequate" strength) to engage in SAQ.

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Strength Endurance Power Stabilization Endurance Maximal Strength

Strength endurance

Describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

General adaption syndrome

Saiyan training: The first stage is known as the ______ _______stage, which is the initial reaction to a stressor. These reactions can include fatigue, joint stiffness, or delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS).

Alarm reaction

SS1: fitness professionals should apply the principle of progressive overload to assist the body in overcoming unaccustomed stressors (Cunanan et al., 2018).

Progress overload

SS1: During the _____ ______ stage, numerous physiological changes occur that ultimately lead to training adaptations that promote increases in performance

Resistance development

SS1 training stages?

1) Alarm reaction 2) Resistance development 3) Exhaustion

SS1) Resistance training, in addition to other forms of exercise, must be cycled through different stages that increase stress placed on the body but also allow for sufficient repair and regeneration to avoid the ___________ stage.

Exhaustion

SS1) A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the specific adaptations to imposed demands (SAID) principle.

Principle of specificity

__________ ____________ refers to the weight and movements placed on the body (Schoenfeld, 2011). For example, the development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. To develop maximal strength in the chest, the fitness professional must include the use of heavy weights during chest-related exercises.

Mechanical specificity

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

Neuromuscular specificity

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.

Metabolic specificity

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

ATP / Adenosine triphosphate

Which term refers to the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress? a General adaptation syndrome b Overtraining syndrome c Supercompensation d Overreaching

General adaption syndrome

_____ ______ is the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training (Schoenfeld, 2010). Muscle hypertrophy is characterized by an increase in the cross-sectional area of individual muscle fibers resulting from an increase in myofibril proteins

Muscular hypertrophy

The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within a myofibril.

Myofibrilis

Power formula?

Force X velocity / time

Power formula?

Force X velocity / Time

Which term refers to a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates? a Myofibril b Motor unit c Sarcomere d Sarcoplasm

Motor unit

Sets and reps: Stabilization and muscular endurance

High reps (12-20) and normal sets (1-3)

Sets and reps: Muscular hypertrophy

Low to mod reps (6-12) Mod to high sets (3-6)

Max strength reps and sets

Low reps (1-5) High sets (4-6)

Reps: Slow reps provide = Fast reps provide =

Slow = muscular hypertrophy Fast reps = Strength and power

Resistance systems: 1. Increasing or decreasing weight with each set. 2. Performing to failure, reducing weight a little, then cont. 3. Performing 4 or more exercises in rotation with as little rest as possible.

Pyramid Drop set Giant set

____ tempo = Speed at which each rep is performed.

Rep tempo

Training intensity and duration have _____ relationship.

Inverse

5 components of fitness?

1. Muscular strength 2. Muscular endurance 3. Flexibility 4. Body comp 5. Cardiovascular

Phases of exercise movement 1. Lowering 2. Pausing 3. Rising

1. Eccentric 2. Isometric 3. Concentric

Rep temp 1. Slow speeds used for? 2. High speeds used for?`

1. Muscular hypertrophy 2. Power

What type of resistance training alternates heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement? a Complex training b The multiple set system c Escalating density training d Convergent phase training

A) Complex training

What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle? a Pre-activation potentiation b Pre-activation amortization c Post-activation potentiation d Post-activation amortization

C) Post activation potential

Shoulder press spot?

At the wrists, not the elbows!

Which of the following is a process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability? a Abdominal bracing b Valsalva maneuver c Apneustic breathing d Kussmaul breathing

Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes? a Hypertrophy-focused exercises b Stabilization-focused exercises c Strength-focused exercises d Power-focused exercises

Proper squat form?

Knees above 2nd / 3rd toe, not falling inward Feet shoulder length apart Shoulders neutral Hips neutral

TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the “ball squat, curl to press” exercise, the client should lean back into the ball throughout the squatting motion, relying on it for support. a True b False

False

Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids? a Single-leg squat to row b Single-leg squat, curl to overhead press c Multiplanar lunge to two-arm dumbbell press d Multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead pressv

Single leg squat to row

Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press? a Shoulder shrug b Posterior pelvic tilt c Knee valgus of the back leg d Knee hyperextension of the front leg

Shoulder shrug

TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight plates under the feet when performing a barbell bench press exercise is never acceptable. a True b False

False

When performing a ball cobra exercise, which of the following instructions should the Certified Personal Trainer provide to the client? a Internally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing up toward the sky b Externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing up toward the sky c Internally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing down toward the ground d Externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing down toward the ground

When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement? a Tucking the chin b Elevating the shoulders c Anteriorly tilting the pelvis d Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

T/F) TRUE OR FALSE? Performing shoulder external rotation with tubing helps strengthen the subscapularis. a True b False

False

When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl, which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the bicep’s musculature? a Keeping the scapulae retracted b Keeping the scapulae protracted c Keeping the palms facing inward d Keeping the palms facing downward

TRUE OR FALSE? To decrease stress on the elbows when performing a standing barbell curl, the client should use a very wide grip. a True b False

False

TRUE OR FALSE? Using a rope when performing cable pushdowns may help decrease the risk of elbow pain. a True b False

TRUE

Which of the following best describes proper hand position when performing a close grip bench press? a Slightly outside shoulder-width apart b Slightly inside shoulder-width apart c Close together near the center of the bar d Far apart near the ends of the bar

What is the general adaptation syndrome? A) The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time. B) The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress. C) The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down from parents to offspring. D) The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally adapts to positive reinforcement.

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? A) At least 21% of body weight B) 11 to 15% of body weight C) 16 to 20% of body weight D) No more than 10% of body weight

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Pyramid system Complex training Multiple-set system Superset system

Pyramid systems

What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise? Knees inside the first toe Knee varus Knees over second and third toes Knee valgus

Knees over 2nd and 3rd toes

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? SAID principle Law of thermodynamics Archimedes' principle Theory of general relativity

SAID Principle ) The SAID principle stands for Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands. It means: The body adapts specifically to the type of stress placed on it.

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Romanian deadlift Standing cable chest press Ball squat, curl to press Push-up

Ball squat, curl to press

What is the principle of specificity? A) The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle B) The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium C) A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it D) The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? A) Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion B) Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth C) Stabilization, strength, and power D) Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? A) Multiplanar step-up B) Squat, curl to two-arm press C) Ball squat D) Single-leg Romanian deadlift

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Ice skaters Box jumps Depth jumps Single-leg hops

Depth Jumps

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. The attempt at jumping will fail. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

D (Law of thermodynamics)

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? A) Neuromuscular function B) Vestibular function C) Sensory function D) Afferent nerve function

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? A) Increasing speed B) Being more explosive C) Adding a stabilization pause between reps D) Switch to single-leg power step-ups

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent? A) Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression B) Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern C) Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern D) Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? A) Mechanical and neurophysiological response B) Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength C) Davis's law and Wolf's law D) Pain response and muscle spasm

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance? Stabilization Endurance Training Power Training Strength Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Synergistic dominance Altered reciprocal inhibition Autogenic inhibition Reciprocal inhibition

Speed is the product of what two variables? Acceleration and deceleration Power and time Stride rate and stride length Quickness and agility

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature? Uneven surfaces Soft mats Balance plates Supportive shoes

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Medicine ball throw Back squat Drawing-in maneuver Bracing

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Muscular endurance Rate of force production Muscular hypertrophy Stabilization

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? 30 seconds 0 seconds 60 to 120 seconds 5 minutes

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training? A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest A reduction in blood pressure at rest A decrease in metabolic rate Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Somatosensory system Vestibular system Visual system Hearing system

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Agility Stride rate Quickness Speed

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? 120 minutes per week 75 minutes per week 90 minutes per week 60 minutes per week

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Length-tension relationships Synergistic dominance Lengthening reaction Reciprocal inhibition

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Increased parasympathetic nervous activity Decreased oxygen exchange capacity Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? 8 to 10 reps 3 to 5 reps 1 or 2 reps 6 to 8 reps

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Prone dead bugs on floor Marching on a stable surface Instability training using a stability ball Planking on a stable surface

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Thumbs pointing down Palms facing each other Palms facing down Thumbs pointing up

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Lateral hamstrings Middle deltoid Medial gastrocnemius Lateral triceps brachii

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Concussions Ankle sprains Anterior cruciate ligament injuries Medial collateral ligament injuries

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Biomechanical ankle platform system Weight training Stable floor environment Aqua therapy

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Strength and volume Growth and stabilization Growth and volume Strength and stabilization

What term refers to excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery? a Overuse b Overtraining c Overreaching d Supercompensation

Overtraining (B)

Name the cycle of training Weekly plan = Monthly plan = Annual plan =

Weekly = Microcycle Monthly = Mesocycle Annual = Macrocycle

Which of the following is a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time? a Block periodization b Linear periodization c Reverse periodization d Undulating periodization

B Linear

Name the adaption for each OPT state: (1) Muscular endurance and prime mover strength (2) Rate of force production (3) Postural alignment and control

(1) Strength (2) Power (3) Stabilization

Fundamental movement examples? 1. Pushing 2. Pressing 3. Pulling 4. Step-ups 5. hip hing

1. Barbell press 2. Push press 3. Rows 4. Squat 5. Kettle bell swings

What is the focus of the second level of training in the OPT model? a The main adaptation of strength b Joint stability c Core stability d Power

Muscle hypertrophy is the primary goal of which phase of training within the OPT model? a Phase 1 b Phase 2 c Phase 3 d Phase 4

Phase 3

OPT Model? Levels AND phases.

1. Stab = Stab endurance 2. Strength = Strength endurance, musc development, max strength 3. Power = power

3 overarching levels of OPT?

Stablization Strength Power

3 phases of OPT strength level?

1. Strength endurance 2. Musc development 3. Max strength

1 phase of the OPT stabilization level?

1. Stabilization endurance

1 phase of the OPT power level?

1. Power

With regard to the application of the OPT model for the goal of body fat reduction, what is the best way to increase the calories burned? a Increase the intensity of each training session b Consume greater quantities of complete proteins c Increase the duration of cardiorespiratory fitness exercises d Move more through both structured exercise and daily physical activity

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Stability Endurance Strength Power

Stability

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Mesocycle Linear Macrocycle Undulating

Undulating

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Pushing Pulling Squatting Hip hinge

Pushing

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Acute variables Training plan Macrocycle Periodization

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises? Phase 4 Maximal Strength Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Phase 3 Muscular Development Phase 5 Power

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what? Phases Exercises Sports skills Movement patterns

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Changes acute variables on a weekly basis Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring Increases intensity while decreasing volume Involves training multiple styles each week

NASM Sections 1-5 Flashcards

(491 cards)