NASM study guides Flashcards by Joe McQueen

What training modality recommended for clients with PAD?

Circuit training

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For folks with COPD, what exercises should you be careful to monitor?

Upper body

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Exercise considerations for clients with arthritis?

Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions. However, high repetitions with low
load may be appropriate.

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What exercise should be avoided for clients with osteoparosis?

Avoid excessive spinal loading on squat and leg press exercises.

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Exercise progression for older adults?

Progression should be slow, well monitored, and based on postural control.

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Exercise progression / consideration for children?

Progression for the youth population should be based on postural control and
not on the amount of weight that can be used.

Make exercising fun!

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T/F) Cable machines can provide greater ROM when compared to selectorized strength
equipment. When using cable machines, it is important to match the cable’s resistance
to the muscle’s natural line of pull.

True

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Strength-training machines are regarded as inferior to free weights for improving ______________
and ________________, as they offer artificial support instead of using one’s core
musculature.

Core stability
Muscular coordination

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OPT:
Phase I
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 4
Phase 5

1 Stability Endurance
2 Strength Endurance
3 Muscular Development
4 Max Strength
5 Power

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Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training teaches clients how to perform….

….proper / fundamental movement patterns, including pushing, pulling, pressing, squatting, hip hinging, trunk
rotation, and overall movement competency.

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Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training is a hybrid form of training that involves the use of….

…..superset training in which a strength-focused exercise is immediately followed by a
stabilization-focused exercise with similar biomechanical motions.

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Phase 2 Strength Endurance employs superset workouts. Define.

Strength focused (Bench press)
followed by
Stabilization focused (Pushup)

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Phase 1 Stabilization endurance focuses on what type of movements?

Fundamental movement patterns: Pushing, pulling, pressing, squatting, etc.

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An annual training plan, or ___________, demonstrates the long-term training program
and how it progresses each month.

Macrocycle

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A __________ plan determines the forms of training to be used, how long it will take, how
often it will change, and what specific exercises will be performed.

Training plan

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Training plans:
Annual =
Monthly =
Weekly =

A = Macrocycle
M = Mesocycle
W = Microcycle

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Monthly training plan?

Mesocycle

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Weekly training plan?

Microcycle

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_________ periodization gradually increases the intensity of the training program while
simultaneously decreasing volume over a specific period of time.

(Increasing weight, decreasing sets)

Linear periodization

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You enjoy this type of strength exercise.

Linear periodization

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________ periodization uses changes in volume, intensity, and exercise selection to
provide loading differences on a daily or weekly basis.

Undulating Periodization

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The OPT model consists of three levels:

Stabilization
Strength
Power

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The OPT model includes five unique phases of training:

Stabilization endurance
Strength Endurance
Muscular Development
Max Strength
POWER!

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The OPT workout template is divided into six parts:

Warm up (Stretching)
Activation (Core and balance)
Skill development (Optional)
Resistance training
Client choice (Specific needs)
Cool down

Cardio can insert anywhere

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OPT workout template 2nd part? After warm up?

Activation

What comes before Resistance training in the OPT Template?

Skill development (optional)

Phase ____ of the OPT model is a hybrid form of training that involves the use of superset training in which a strength-focused exercise is immediately followed by a stabilization-focused exercise with similar biomechanical motions.

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

Phase ____ of the OPT model is designed to enhance muscle hypertrophy using a high volume of strength-focused exercises.

Phase 3: Muscular development

Phase ____ of the OPT model requires the inclusion of heavy resistance training exercises to increase muscular strength.

Phase 4: Max Strength

Phase ___ of the OPT model uses superset techniques to increase rate of force production. These superset techniques include performing a heavy resistance training exercise immediately followed by an explosive power-based exercise with similar bio-mechanical motions.

Phase 5 Power

Phase 5 workout examples?

Bench press (HEAVY) followed by Pushup 3-5 sets 1-5 reps Barbell squat (HEAVY) followed by bodyweight squats

Phase 4 workout examples?

Bench press (HEAVY) 1-5 reps 4-6 sets And long rest periods

Phase 3 workout examples?

Bench press 3-6 sets 6-12 reps High rep low(ish) weight

Phase 1 example workouts?

Foam roll / stretch Planks Squat jumps Single-leg balnce reach

_______ is an acronym for vitality, performance, and reconditioning. It is designed to be dragged, tossed, lifted, pulled, pressed, and carried. This design provides the fitness professional the ability to perform multidirectional, full-body exercises with external load resistance, known as loaded movement training.

ViPR (Black carry tube)

ViPR stands for?

Vitality Performance Reconditioning (Black carry tube)

Battle ropes are typically made of heavy-duty nylon and come in a variety of lengths and thicknesses. Battle ropes are ____ _____ activities, which provide less impact on the joints.

Low impact

The ____ _____ is comprised of an inflatable rubber bladder and hard-surfaced backing. Unlike stability balls, it is safe to perform several resistance training exercises, such as a dumbbell chest press, while lying supine on the Terra-Core.

Terra core

Current recommendations state that children and adolescents should get _____ minutes (1 hour) or more of moderate to vigorous physical activity daily.

60 minutes

Recommended activity level daily? Kids: Adults:

Kids = 60 Adults = 75

T/F) Research has clearly demonstrated that resistance training is both safe and effective in children and adolescents.

True

T/F) Exercise is an important intervention for clients recovering from cancer. It can improve exercise tolerance, reduce the cellular risks associated with cancer, and improve quality of life.

True

Clients with lung disease experience fatigue at low levels of exercise and often experience __________.

Dyspnea

Which of these is NOT a side effect of B12 deficiency? Numbness Poor memory Muscle damage Anemia

Muscle damage

What can B12 deficiency cause?

Numbness, memory fog, fatigue, confusion, etc. Basically neurological symptoms.

How many training zones of training intensity are there in cardio training?

Cardio training zones? 1 2 3 4

1 = Starting to sweat, but can talk fine. 2 = Becoming challenging, talking more diff. Sweating more. 3 = Vigorous. Profuse sweating. Limited ability to talk. 4 = Very hard, max effort. Speaking impossible / grunts only.

______ flexibility is used in phase 1, aimed at improving muscle imbalance, range of motion, and / or altered joint motions.

Corrective flexibility

__________ stretching involves active, controlled movements that prepare muscles for exercise, making it ideal for warm-ups to increase mobility and performance. Best used b4 workout. _________ stretching involves holding a pose for 30–90 seconds to improve flexibility and aid recovery, best used after workouts.

Dynamic Static

Corrective flexing techniques?

Foam roll Static stretching

How to calculate volume?

Sets X reps X weight

Kylo Ren just finished barbell press exercise. 3 sets of 7 reps with 225 on the bar. Calculate volume.

4,725lbs. Sets X reps X weight = Volume

_________ _______ ________ is a neuromuscular dysfunction where a tight, overactive agonist muscle causes neural inhibition of its functional antagonist, preventing proper contraction.

Altered reciprocal Inhibition

Which connective tissue is responsible for attaching muscle to bone? Bone to bone?

Muscle to bone =Tendons Bone to bone = Ligaments

The synthesis & repair of cells requires how many calories per gram?

4 (Protein)

2 most common areas to record a pulse?

Radial and Carotid

What two factors make up speed?

Stride rate and length

Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? A) Insulin resistance B) The pancreas does not make insulin.

A) Type II is Insulin resistance

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?

Endorphins

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?

Plantar Fascitis Sprains

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Self-monitoring Creating a coping plan Forming an implementation intention Stating an outcome expectation

Implementation Intention

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?

Precontemplation

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?

Intrinsic motivation

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

Self efficiacy

`What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?

Preparation

What is the RDA for protein?

0.8 g per lb body weight

Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?

Mitochondria

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

Slowing down both eccentric AND concentric contractions.

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

Slow twitch, fatigues slowly.

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

Where nervous systems and muscles communicate brah

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?

The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue.

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint?

Type II

Which organ secretes insulin?

Pancreas

Calcium needed for what?

Bone strength

When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?

Procioreception

How many B vitamins are there?

Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?

Sodium & Potassium

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Glucagon Cortisol Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) Calcitonin

Insuline-like GROWTH FATOR

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?

60% / 0.6

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?

Eccentric loading and Concentric unloading

What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis?

20-40 grams brah

Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Vitamin A Vitamin C Vitamin B12 Vitamin B6

A b/c it is fat soluable vitamin and these build up quicker in the body.

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Right ventricle Right atrium Left ventricle Left atrium

Left ventricle brah

__________ carry blood from the heart to the body.

Arteries

Which hormone, when elevated at baseline, may indicate overtraining?

Cortisol

1. What are the two components of the central nervous system? 2. Autonomic nervous system?

1. Brain & Spinal 2. Sympathetic & Parasympathetic systems

ATP has how many phosphate groups?

Three! (Cheat for exam MCQ)

How many calories in 1 LB of body fat?

3,500 brah

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Knowledge of results Knowledge of performance Proprioception Motivation`

Procioreception

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?

Ligament

What are the three types of muscles in the body?

Skeletal, Cardiac, & Smooth brah

What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement?

Kinetic chain

______ chain: Concept which describes the human body as a chain of links working 2-gether to perform movement.

Kinetic chain

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Water-soluble vitamins Fat-soluble vitamins Vitamin C B vitamins

B Vitamins brah

When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?

Sympathetic NS

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachioradialis Brachialis

Brachioradialis

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed?

Remodeling

What is the primary function of the large intestine? Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?

96 Steps per min

Waist to hip ratio formula?

Waist circumference / hip circumference

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Knees to 45 degrees Full-depth squat Femur parallel to ground Butt to heels

Femur parallel to ground

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Pulling assessment Single-leg squat Pushing assessment Overhead squat

Overhead squat

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?

Overhead squat

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

Forward head, protracted shoulders

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

Forward head, protracted shoulders

Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk? Arm Waist Thigh Hips

Waist

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Bow inward?

Outward = Knee varus Inward = Knee valgus

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?

Whether person weight is appropriate for their height

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? (A) A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise (B) A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

(A) A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, head & neck.

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

Under the armpits

What are ground reaction forces?

Forces input to the body in reaction to feet hitting the ground

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

Alarm reaction Resistance development Exhuastion

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

At the wrists!

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?

5-10 minutes is recommended by NASM

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

Thumbs pointed up.

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?

No more than 10% of BW.

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

Isometric.

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Dynamic Semi Dynamic Static Semi Static

Semi-Dynamic

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? (A) The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface (B) The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support (C) The approximate midpoint of the body (D) The location of where one foot touches the ground

(A) The area beneath person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support service.

______ of ______: The area beneath person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support service.

Base of Support

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Resistance training Balance training Core training Cardiorespiratory training

Resistance training

What does adduction mean?

Movement toward center of body. IE: Bringing arms in from out Bring legs in from out

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Frequency Recovery Intensity Volume

Volume

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise? Moderate?

Vigorous = 75 minutes per week Moderate = 150 minutes per week

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed? 4 seconds 1 second 3 seconds 2 seconds

4 seconds eccentric 1 second isometric bottom **3 Seconds Concentric** 2 seconds isometric top

Moving FWD and Back = ___________ Plane Moving out to the side = ___________ Plane Turning / twisting = ___________ Plane

Sagittal Plane Frontal Plane Transverse Plane

Bicep curl, tricep extension, squats, bench press, lunges, deadlifts. What plane?

Moving up and down = Moving FWD & Back for NASM. This is the Sagittal plane of motion.

Lateral raises, side shuffles, Side steps, jumping jacks. What plane?

Frontal Plane

Cable rotations, Medicine ball rotational throws, baseball swing, etc. What plane?

Transverse (Twisting / turning)

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?

Frontal plane b/c the spine is twisting from side to side.

Some strength is not enough to complete SAQ drills; it must be ___________ strength.

Adequate strength

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements? The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion

The body's ability to sense body position / limb movements.

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Deadlifts Floor bridge Repeat step-ups Barbell chest press

Floor bridge

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations? Strength endurance Muscular development Stabilization endurance Power

Power

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what? Sports skills Phases Movement patterns Exercises

Movement patterns

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Phase 5 Phase 3 Phase 2 Phase 4

Phase 2

Flexion = Extension =

Flexion = Becoming smaller angle Extension = Creating larger angle

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Push-ups Lat pulldown Machine leg extension Biceps curls

Push up

NASM study guides Flashcards

(140 cards)