1
Q
When can you operate SVFR?
A
- by day
- authorised by ATC
- clear of cloud
- 800m vis
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
2
Q
Light signals to aircraft?
A
Steady green - clear to take off/land
Flashing green - clear to taxi/return for landing
Steady red - give way and continue circling/stop
Flashing red - unsafe don’t land/taxi clear of landing area
White flash - return to starting point
3
Q
VMC criteria Class C below 10,000ft
A
5km vis
1000ft vertical separation
1500m lateral separation
4
Q
Class D VMC
A
5km vis
500ft below
1000ft above
600m lateral
5
Q
Class G VMC below the higher of 3000 AMSL or 1000 AGL
A
- 5km vis
- clear of cloud
- in sight of ground or water
6
Q
Class G VMC below 700ft with track guidance
A
- 800m vis
- clear of cloud
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows the pilot to see and avoid
- within 10nm of an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from IFR aircraft
7
Q
Class G VMC below 700ft without track guidance
A
- 5km vis
- 500ft vertical
- 600m lateral
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows the pilot to see and avoid
- within 10nm of an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from IFR aircraft
8
Q
Cruising levels
A
West = even
East = odd
VFR +500ft
9
Q
INTER and TEMPO holding times
A
INTER = 30min
TEMPO = 60min
10
Q
What is an accurate QNH?
A
QNH provided by:
- ATC
- ATIS
- AWIS
Used to conduct an altimeter check
11
Q
What is an actual QNH?
A
Actual QNH is gained from:
- ATC
- ATIS
- AWIS
Can be used to reduce the IAP minima by 100ft if approved
Note: METAR QNH does not meet the requirement
12
Q
On an IAP, when must you receive the QNH?
Valid sources?
A
Must be received by IAF.
Valid sources are ATC, ATIS, AWIS, TAF QNH, area QNH
13
Q
Radio comms become inoperative VFR Class G or E
A
- squawk 7600
- remain OCTA
- continue broadcasting position and intentions
- as soon as practicable, descend below 5000ft and continue flight under VFR
14
Q
Radio comms become inoperative IFR or VFR Class A, C, D
A
- squawk 7600
- continue broadcasting position and intentions
A) if certain of remaining VMC: remain VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
B) if IMC/uncertain of remaining VMC;
- maintain last assigned altitude/LSALT if higher for 3 mins
- after 3 mins, proceed IAW last ATC route clearance acknowledged
- commence descent IAW above
- conduct most suitable IAP
15
Q
Separation from populous areas
A
1000ft within 300m
16
Q
How often must you fix yourself VFR?
A
30 mins
17
Q
How long is an actual QNH valid after receiving it?
A
15 mins
18
Q
Emergency transponder codes
A
7500 = interference
7600 = loss of comms
7700 = emergency
19
Q
“Handing over”
A
Taking over
I have control
20
Q
During a standard climb, what is the altitude to time ratio used?
A
2000ft = +1 min
21
Q
What does DIAFARE stand for?
A
Divert point
Information
Altitude, airspace
Fuel
AVRM (ACMEE)
RT
Execute
22
Q
What does FCLEARM stand for?
A
Fuel
Compasses
Log
Engines
Alt, airspeed, airspace
Radios
Mission Equipment
23
Q
What does CEFR stand for?
A
Compasses
Engines
Fuel
Radios
24
Q
What does HASEL stand for?
A
Height
Area/auth
Secure
Engines
Lookout
25
What does TATS stand for?
Track
Altitude
Time
Speed
26
What does TTF stand for?
Turn
Time
Fuel
27
What does TOPO stand for?
Track
Obstacles
Points of interest
Other admin
28
Lost procedure
Lost - announce
Climb - direct a climb to see features better
Time - stop the clock
Orbit
Area
ID
29
AAABC
ATIS
AIDS
Airways
Brief
Checks
30
You’re 20 seconds early at a base speed of 90kts
Decrease speed to 70kts for 90 secs
31
VTOSS
Best climb angle
32
Vy
Best rate of climb
33
Minimum localiser interception distance?
4nm
34
Max localiser interception angle
90 deg
Recommended 45 deg
35
When must you be established on track departing from an aerodrome?
Within 5nm
36
What area does a TAF cover
Within 5nm of the aerodrome
37
When can ATC authorise a visual approach under VFR?
Within 30nm of the aerodrome
38
When can ATC authorise a visual approach under IFR?
Within 30nm of the aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, appropriate step of an IAP or MDA of the procedure flown and established;
1) clear of cloud
2) in sight of ground or water
3) vis of 5km (800m helicopter) or aerodrome in sight
Maintain 1, 2, 3 at not below 500ft above the CTA lower limit
39
Navigation requirements VFR
- maintain visual reference with the ground or water
- positively fix the aircraft every 30min
- notify ATC or track divergence greater than 1nm
40
VFR on top of more than SCT cloud
- maintain VMC during entire climb, cruise, descent
- meet visual position fixing requirements
- forecasts indicate planned area of descent below cloud layer will be permissible VMC
- at area of descent, conditions are VMC there onwards to the destination
41
When is an aircraft considered in vicinity of an aerodrome?
Within 10nm at an altitude that could result in a conflict
42
Separation minima for CTAF departure
Preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind end of the runway or commenced a turn
43
Departure reporting requirements non-surveillance
MEL CEN, GTLT 12, departed Goulburn 25, tracking 030 to intercept the W724, climbing 5000, estimating Nowra 47
44
Departure reporting requirements surveillance
MEL CEN, GTLT 12, 2nm west of Goulburn, passing 3600, climbing 5000, estimating Nowra 47
45
IFR taxi report
MEL CEN, GTLT 12 military seahawk helicopter, POB 3, IFR, Wagga for Nowra, RWY 06
46
Alternate aerodrome planning considerations
- weather
- radio navaids and GPS requirements
- nominated flight rules
- RWY lighting
47
Military VFR alternate requirements
Not required for Army/Navy rotary under day VFR
48
What buffer periods apply to FM and BCMG weather forecasts
30 min operational requirement
49
When an aerodrome is receiving a TAF3 service, what requirements can you waive?
During the first 3hrs of validity:
- 30 min operational requirement for FM/BCMG
- alternate/holding fuel required by PROB30/40 reductions in vis or sev turb
50
VFR alternate minima (FIHA)
8km vis
Cloud base SCT or more 1500ft
51
Alternate requirements for RWY lighting
ADF: PAL don’t need alternate if fitted with dual VHF
See FIHA for specifics if not dual VHF
52
Do ADF require to hold alternates due RWY lighting if using NVG?
No
53
IFR navaid tolerances
ILS/VOR/GNSS = half scale deflection
NDB = 5 deg
DME arc = 2nm
54
What obstacle clearance does an MSA provide?
1000ft
55
IFR altimeter limits
Within 60ft
60-75ft (only one) can fly to first point of landing and reassess
>75ft = U/S
56
VFR altimeter limits
Within 100ft
57
Circling areas for aircraft categories
Research
58
When can an aircraft change performance categories?
Must increase categories when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat
ADF - if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category
59
When must you report a loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity?
- En route - loss for more than 5 min
- Terminal - any loss of integrity
- ATC requests the provision of GNSS derived info - RAIM/GNSS integrity is not available
- ATC grants a clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS derived info - RAIM/GNSS integrity is not available
- The GNSS receiver is in DR mode, or experiences a loss of nav function for greater than 1 min
60
During an IAP using forecasted area QNH, what must you do?
Increase minima by 50ft
61
IAP speeds CAT H
Initial and intermediate = 70-120kts
Finals = 60-90kts
Max speed visual manoeuvring = none
Max speed missed approach = 90kts
62
IAP speeds CAT A
Initial and intermediate = 90-150kts
Finals = 70-100kts
Max speed visual manoeuvring = 100kts
Max speed missed approach = 110kts
63
64
IFR take off minima MOS
Cloud base not lower than the greater of Vy or Vmin IFR can be achieved
Visibility of 800m, or 500m if;
- RWY and take off area has both illuminated edge lighting and centre lighting at intervals not exceeding 60m, supported by secondary power with a switchover capability of less than 1 sec
65
IFR OCTA departure and cannot contact ATS for a taxi report
Can still take off provided contact is established ASAP after take off, and a SARTIME for departure that is a max of 30min after commencing taxi has been established with ATS
66
DH for instrument flight
200ft on departures and approaches
999 on one side en route
67
Rate 1 turn calculation
(IAS/10) + 7
68
IF line up checks
HDG
Alt A
TAC radios
SID activation
69
Top of descent calc
9000ft
120kts GD
IAF 4500ft
4500/600fpm = 7.5mins
7.5 x 2nm/min = 15nm
70
When do you match BARALT/RADALT over water?
By day - established over water at chosen altitude
By night - prior to descent over water, or levelled at 1000ft prior to continuing descent
71
Rates of descent for IMC letdown?
1000fpm to 1000ft
Then 500fpm or less
72
Navigation requirements for an IFR flight
- An approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route
- Use of a radio navigation system that allows for possible tracking errors of +/-9 degrees from the last positive fix, the aircraft comes within the rated coverage of the aid and can be used to fix position
- Positive fixes must not exceed 2 hours
- Visual reference to the ground or water by day provided weather conditions permit VMC flight and fixing IAW the above can be maintained
73
How long can you lose RAIM before it is considered unreliable?
5 mins
Aircraft must use another means of navigation until RAIM can be re-established, however, the ATS unit should be advised of the restoration before returning to the use of GNSS
74
IFR alternate minima
Cloud - more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500ft for the approach where only one aid is required. Where two aids are required, more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500ft for the approach procedure with the second lowest MDA/DA
Vis - less than vis required + 2km
For aerodromes without an IAP: LSALT of final route segment + 500ft and vis 8km
75
IF alternates, NAVAIDS
A) The destination is served by a radio navaid for which IAP procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio nav systems, each of which are capable of using the system
OR
B) The destination is served by 2 radio navaids for which independent and separate IAP procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio nav systems capable of using these aids
76
Speeds for aircraft performance categories
A - up to 90kts
B - 90-120kts
C - 120-140kts
D - 140-165kts
E - 165-210kts
H - helicopters
77
Obstacle clearance for aircraft categories
A & B - 300ft
C & D - 400ft
E - 500ft
78
How much clearance do RTCC (radar terrain clearance charts) provide from obstacles?
1000ft within 3nm
79
During visual circling, when can you descend below the MDA?
A) maintains the aircraft within the circling area
B) maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
C) maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either
D) by night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
E) in daylight only, while complying with a,b,c maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway
80
When can you descend below the straight in MDA?
- visual reference can be maintained
- all elements of the met minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category
- the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing
81
How far offset can an NPA be to a RWY centreline?
CAT A & B - up to 30 degrees
CAT C & D - up to 15 degrees
82
What does ‘visual reference’ refer to?
The runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility into less than that specified for the procedure
83
When must you execute a missed approach?
A) during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
B) during an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
C) visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or
D) landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling;
E) visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
84
What minimum obstacle clearance is provided on a missed approach procedure?
100ft
85
What is the minimum MAP climb gradient required?
2.5%
CAT H approaches - 4.2%
86
What must you do if executing a MAP from within the circling area?
Track for the MAPT and follow the MAP
87
MAP requirements for GNSS approaches
- If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix,
- Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GNSS equipment, it may be used for missed approach guidance.
- Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach
88
Visibility amendment required for a partial runway lighting failure?
Multiply by a factor of 1.5
Only in conditions less than VMC
89
When can you commence an IAP without entering the hold?
- In controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
- In any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
1) the reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied; or
2) the DME arc entry requirements are satisfied; or
3) the en route track to the procedure’s commencement fix or facility is within 30° either side of the first track of the procedure.
- For procedures using GNSS:
1) in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint; or
2) in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
Note: “direct to” clearances may be requested to the intermediate fix (IF) provided that the resultant track change at the IF does not exceed 45 degrees
90
Limitations in holding patterns?
Outbound timing commencement
- outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later
- time/distance outbound. The outbound leg must be no longer than;
1) up to and including FL140 - 1min or the time or distance limit specified on the chart
- turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25 degrees or rate one, whichever requires less bank
91
NPID options
- circling departure
- RWY splay
- missed approach
- visual departure
92
NDB errors
Mountain effect - reflection of mountains
Interference - other NDBs nearby on similar frequency
Night effect - interference from sky waves
Thunderstorm interference - cumulonimbus clouds generate a lot of radio energy that can cause the ADF to fluctuate towards it
Quadrantal error - reflections off the aircraft before reaching the receiver based on the angle
Coastal effects - coastal refraction; the different conductivities of land and water cause the signal to bend
93
What area does RNP2 nav consider?
5nm surrounding the departure point, destination, and left/right of the nominal track.
However, you must remain within 2nm of the nominal track.
94
IF standard take off minima SI(NA)?
1. Clear of cloud until achieving the greater of Vy, Vmin IFR
2. RVR
A. 550m with runway edge lighting at intervals no greater than 60m and either centreline lighting or markings
B. 800m
95
96
‘Appropriate period of time’ - sector 2 entry
Flown outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a max of 1min 30sec, or if earlier;
The appropriate DME distance
97
What is the standard holding pattern direction?
Right turns
98
How much hPa can area QNH be from actual QNH?
+/- 5hPa
99
100
What counts as a positive fix IFR?
- passage of aircraft over an NDB, VOR, TACAN, marker beacon or DME site
- intersection iof 2 or more position lines which intersect at angles not less than 45 degrees; obtained from a combination of NDBs, VORs, TACANs, localisers within their rated coverages
- for only NDBs, must be within 30nm
101
How far from an aerodrome can you use its QNH?
100nm
102
SI(NA) Normal, Limited and Poor Conditions
Normal: 1000ft cloud base and 3km vis
Limited: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, 800m vis, speed sufficient to see and avoid. Weather must allow visual recovery at the approach minima for a published IAP.
Poor: less than limited conditions
103
Descent point over water IMC letdown?
A
104
Minimum height at the end of runway for NPID?
50ft
105
RA1
Can flight plan through the RA, and expect a clearance
106
RA2
Must not plan to fly through, unless on a route specified in ERSA or under agreement from the controlling authority.
Clearance is not assured.
107
RA3
Do not plan to fly through and clearance will not be available
108
Can you fly through a danger area?
Approval for flight within a danger area OCTA is not required.
It is the pilots responsibility to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions.
A
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