Part 1 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

Birth to 1 month

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

A. Uses of Reflexes

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Infants exercise their informed reflexes and gain some control over them. They do not coordinate information from their senses

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

A. Uses of Reflexes

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Infants repeat pleasurable behaviors that first occur by chance (such as thumbsucking)

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

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Activities focus of the infant’s body rather than the effects of the behavior on the environment

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

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Begin to coordinate sensory information and grasp objects

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

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1 to 4 months

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

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Infants become more interested in the environment; they repeat actions that bring interesting results and prolong interesting experiences

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

C. Secondary Circular Reactions

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Actions are intentional but not initially goal directed

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

C. Secondary Circular Reactions

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4 to 8 months

A. Uses of Reflexes
B. Primary Circular Reactions
C. Secondary Circular Reactions

C. Secondary Circular Reactions

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8 to 12 months

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

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Behavior is more deliberate and purposeful as infants coordinate previously learned schemes and use previously learned behaviors to attain their goals

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

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They can anticipate events

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

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Toddlers show curiosity and experimentation; they purposely vary their actions to see results

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

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They try new activities and use trial and error in solving problems

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

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12 to 18 months

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

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Because toddlers can mentally represent events, they can think about events and anticipate their consequences without always resorting to action

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

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They can use symbols, such as gestures and words, and can pretend

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

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18 to 24 months

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

C. Mental Combination

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imitation that uses body parts such as hands or feet that babies can see

A. Visible imitation
B. Invisible Imitation
C. Deferred Imitation
D. Object Permanence
E. A-not-B Error

A. Visible imitation

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imitation that involves parts of the body that babies cannot see

A. Visible imitation
B. Invisible Imitation
C. Deferred Imitation
D. Object Permanence
E. A-not-B Error

B. Invisible Imitation

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the reproduction of an observed behavior after passage of time

A. Visible imitation
B. Invisible Imitation
C. Deferred Imitation
D. Object Permanence
E. A-not-B Error

C. Deferred Imitation

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the realization that something continues to exist when out of sight

A. Visible imitation
B. Invisible Imitation
C. Deferred Imitation
D. Object Permanence
E. A-not-B Error

D. Object Permanence

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infants will continue to look for an object in the place where they first found it after seeing it hidden, even if they were later shown the object being moved to a new location

A. Visible imitation
B. Invisible Imitation
C. Deferred Imitation
D. Object Permanence
E. A-not-B Error

E. A-not-B Error

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the ability to understand the nature of pictures yellow circles with radiating spires representing sun

A. Pictorial Competence
B. Scale Error
C. Dual Representation

A. Pictorial Competence

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a momentary misinterpretation of the relative sizes of objects A. Pictorial Competence B. Scale Error C. Dual Representation

B. Scale Error

children under age 3 have difficulty grasping spatial relationships because of the need to keep more than one mental representation in mind at the same time A. Pictorial Competence B. Scale Error C. Dual Representation

C. Dual Representation

type of learning in which familiarity with a stimulus reduces, slows, or stops a response A. Habituation B. Familiarity C. Dishabituation

A. Habituation

repeatedly presenting a stimuli breeds loss of interest A. Habituation B. Familiarity C. Dishabituation

B. Familiarity

increase in responsiveness after presentation of a new stimulus which the reaction towards a known stimulus is enhanced A. Habituation B. Familiarity C. Dishabituation

C. Dishabituation

tendency of infants to spend more time looking at one sight than another A. Visual Preference B. Novelty Preference C. Visual Recognition Memory

A. Visual Preference

infants prefer new sights to familiar ones A. Visual Preference B. Novelty Preference C. Visual Recognition Memory

B. Novelty Preference

ability to distinguish a familiar visual stimulus from an unfamiliar one when shown both at the same time A. Visual Preference B. Novelty Preference C. Visual Recognition Memory

C. Visual Recognition Memory

ability to use information gained by one sense to guide another A. Cross-Modal Transfer B. Joint Attention C. Categorization D. Causality E. Violation-of-Expectations

A. Cross-Modal Transfer

a shared attentional focus, typically initiated with eye gaze or pointing which develops between 10 to 12 months A. Cross-Modal Transfer B. Joint Attention C. Categorization D. Causality E. Violation-of-Expectations

B. Joint Attention

ability to organize things into categories A. Cross-Modal Transfer B. Joint Attention C. Categorization D. Causality E. Violation-of-Expectations

C. Categorization

the principle that one event (squeezing) causes another event (quacking) A. Cross-Modal Transfer B. Joint Attention C. Categorization D. Causality E. Violation-of-Expectations

D. Causality

begins with a familiarization phase in which infants see an event happen normally, after the infant becomes bored and has habituated to this procedure, the event is changed in a way that conflicts with or violates normal expectations A. Cross-Modal Transfer B. Joint Attention C. Categorization D. Causality E. Violation-of-Expectations

E. Violation-of-Expectations

What best describes Guided Participation? A. Independent exploration without adult involvement B. Mutual interaction with adults that structure children’s activities and bridge understanding gaps C. Peer collaboration without adult guidance D. Imitation of adult speech patterns

B. Mutual interaction with adults that structure children’s activities and bridge understanding gaps

Prelinguistic Speech includes which of the following? A. Meaningful single-word expressions B. Two-word sentences C. Utterance of sounds that are not words D. Full sentence formation

C. Utterance of sounds that are not words

Which of the following is NOT part of early vocalization? A. Crying B. Cooing C. Babbling D. Syntax

D. Syntax

Babbling typically occurs between: A. 2 to 4 months B. 6 to 10 months C. 12 to 18 months D. 18 to 24 months

B. 6 to 10 months

Babbling is characterized by: A. Random vowel sounds only B. Meaningful word combinations C. Repeating consonant-vowel strings D. Two-word expressions

C. Repeating consonant-vowel strings

Infants deliberately imitate sounds without understanding them at about: A. 2 to 3 months B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 9 to 10 months

D. 9 to 10 months

Which crying pattern consists of a rhythmic pattern of cry followed by a briefer silence? A. Angry cry B. Pain cry C. Basic hunger cry D. Frustration cry

C. Basic hunger cry

Which cry involves excess air forced through the vocal cords? A. Frustration cry B. Angry cry C. Pain cry D. Basic hunger cry

B. Angry cry

A sudden long, initial loud cry followed by breath holding describes: A. Pain cry B. Basic hunger cry C. Frustration cry D. Angry cry

A. Pain cry

A higher pitch and more monotonic vocalization during stressful procedures is characteristic of: A. Pain cry B. Angry cry C. Frustration cry D. Basic hunger cry

C. Frustration cry

Phonemes are: A. Complete sentences B. The smallest unit of sounds in speech C. Two-word combinations D. Emotional expressions

B. The smallest unit of sounds in speech

Gestures usually appear: A. After children have 50 words B. After children form sentences C. Before children have a vocabulary of 25 words D. At the same time as telegraphic speech

C. Before children have a vocabulary of 25 words

Gestures tend to drop out when: A. Children reach 12 months B. Children learn and can say the word for the idea C. Children begin babbling D. Children develop self-awareness

B. Children learn and can say the word for the idea

A Holophrase is: A. Two-word speech B. A single word conveying a complete thought C. A meaningless vocal sound D. A cry pattern

B. A single word conveying a complete thought

Toddlers typically put two words together between: A. 6 and 10 months B. 9 and 10 months C. 12 and 15 months D. 18 and 24 months

D. 18 and 24 months

Telegraphic Speech refers to: A. Long complex sentences B. Repetition of sounds C. Use of only a few essential words D. Emotional crying

C. Use of only a few essential words

Syntax refers to: A. Emotional expression B. Rules of forming a sentence in a language C. Imitation of sounds D. Repetition of consonant-vowel strings

B. Rules of forming a sentence in a language

Using the word “doggy” only for one’s own pet is an example of: A. Overextension B. Holophrase C. Underextension D. Telegraphic speech

C. Underextension

Calling a gray-haired man on television “Gampa!” is an example of: A. Underextension B. Overextension C. Syntax D. Phoneme use

B. Overextension

A Reflexive Smile: A. Occurs in response to parents B. Appears during the second month C. Depends on self-awareness D. Does not occur in response to external stimuli

D. Does not occur in response to external stimuli

Social smiling typically begins in the: A. First month B. Second month C. Sixth month D. Ninth month

B. Second month

Clowning includes: A. Crying for attention B. Babbling repeatedly C. Silly nonverbal behaviors and odd actions D. Two-word sentences

C. Silly nonverbal behaviors and odd actions

Anticipatory Smiling occurs when infants: A. Smile only at adults B. Smile at an object and then gaze at an adult while continuing to smile C. Smile during sleep D. Smile after crying

B. Smile at an object and then gaze at an adult while continuing to smile

Self-Conscious Emotions depend on: A. Vocal imitation B. Syntax development C. Self-awareness D. Babbling

C. Self-awareness

Self-Awareness is the realization that: A. Words have meaning B. One’s existence is separate from others C. Crying communicates hunger D. Sentences require syntax

B. One’s existence is separate from others

Self-Evaluative Emotions depend on: A. Only biological rhythms B. Self-awareness and knowledge of socially accepted standards C. Babbling ability D. Cry patterns

B. Self-awareness and knowledge of socially accepted standards

Temperament is described as: A. Rapidly changing B. Situational only C. Relatively consistent and enduring D. Dependent only on parenting

C. Relatively consistent and enduring

Temperament is best defined as: A. Temporary mood changes B. Learned emotional reactions C. Characteristic disposition or style of reacting D. Reflexive smiling

C. Characteristic disposition or style of reacting

Goodness of Fit refers to: A. Matching words to gestures B. Appropriateness of environmental demands to a child’s temperament C. Correct sentence formation D. Emotional inhibition

B. Appropriateness of environmental demands to a child’s temperament

Behavioral Inhibition describes: A. Emotional intensity B. Hunger patterns C. Boldness or cautiousness toward unfamiliar situations D. Sentence formation ability

C. Boldness or cautiousness toward unfamiliar situations

An Easy Child typically has: A. Irritable temperament B. Irregular biological rhythms C. Hesitation toward new experiences D. Regular biological rhythms and readiness for new experiences

D. Regular biological rhythms and readiness for new experiences

A Difficult Child is characterized by: A. Mild temperament B. Intense emotional responses and irregular biological rhythms C. Consistent happiness D. Quick acceptance of new experiences

B. Intense emotional responses and irregular biological rhythms

A Slow-to-Warm-Up Child is: A. Irritable and intense B. Happy and adaptable C. Mild but hesitant about new experiences D. Emotionally extreme

C. Mild but hesitant about new experiences

At what age do children begin to lose their babyish roundness and take on a slender, athletic appearance? A. 4 years old B. 5 years old C. 3 years old D. 6 years old

C. 3 years old

A child who cannot turn or stop suddenly or quickly is most likely: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 7 years old

A. 3 years old

The ability to jump a distance of 24–33 inches is typical of: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

B. 4 years old

At what age can children ascend a stairway unaided, alternating feet? A. 4 years old B. 5 years old C. 6 years old D. 3 years old

D. 3 years old

Handedness becomes evident at: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

A. 3 years old

Peak density of synapses in the prefrontal cortex occurs at: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

B. 4 years old

A child who can descend a long stairway alternating feet if supported is likely: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

B. 4 years old

The ability to start, turn, and stop effectively in games is typical of: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 7 years old

C. 5 years old

A 6-year-old child’s brain is approximately what percentage of its peak volume? A. 80% B. 85% C. 95% D. 90%

D. 90%

Permanent teeth begin to appear at: A. 5 years old B. 6 years old C. 7 years old D. 4 years old

B. 6 years old

An expressive vocabulary of 2,600 words and understanding more than 20,000 words is characteristic of: A. 5 years old B. 6 years old C. 4 years old D. 7 years old

B. 6 years old

Children begin to understand that mental states can drive emotions at: A. 6 years old B. 5 years old C. 7 years old D. 4 years old

C. 7 years old

The ability to use 900 to 1000 words is typical at: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

A. 3 years old

The understanding that the number of items in a set remains the same regardless of arrangement refers to: A. Intuitive Thought B. Symbolic Function C. Identities D. Cardinality Principle

D. Cardinality Principle

The ability to use mental representations such as words, numbers, or images is known as: A. Empathy B. Symbolic Function C. Theory of Mind D. Intuitive Thought

B. Symbolic Function

Children who imitate an action after some time has passed are demonstrating: A. Pretend Play B. Intuitive Thought C. Deferred Imitation D. Identities

C. Deferred Imitation

Fantasy play involving imaginary people and situations is also called: A. Intuitive Thought B. Empathy C. Theory of Mind D. Pretend Play

D. Pretend Play

Preoperational Thought occurs between which ages? A. 3 to 6 years B. 2 to 7 years C. 4 to 7 years D. 2 to 6 years

B. 2 to 7 years

During Preoperational Thought, children: A. Use logic effectively B. Cannot use symbolic thought C. Cannot yet use logic effectively D. Understand cardinality fully

C. Cannot yet use logic effectively

The understanding that people and things remain basically the same even if they change in outward appearance refers to: A. Empathy B. Identities C. Theory of Mind D. Symbolic Function

B. Identities

A child who can recognize facial expressions and emotions through vocal cues and body postures is most likely: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

B. 4 years old

The understanding of the public aspects of emotions, such as what causes others to be sad or happy, typically develops at: A. 4 years old B. 5 years old C. 6 years old D. 7 years old

B. 5 years old

The condition involving absence or deficiency of growth hormone produced by the pituitary gland is called: A. Theory of Mind B. Preoperational Deficit C. Growth Hormone Deficiency D. Symbolic Dysfunction

C. Growth Hormone Deficiency

A child who begins to use plurals, possessives, and past tense is typically: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

A. 3 years old

The ability to categorize objects to identify similarities and differences is characteristic of: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 7 years old

B. 4 years old

Running hard and enjoying races with peers is typical of: A. 4 years old B. 3 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

C. 5 years old

The ability to pick up tiny objects between thumb and forefinger (though still clumsy) emerges at: A. 3 years old B. 4 years old C. 5 years old D. 6 years old

A. 3 years old

Understanding that mental activity influences emotions is closely related to: A. Empathy B. Symbolic Function C. Theory of Mind D. Intuitive Thought

C. Theory of Mind

Children who begin to use primitive reasoning and ask many questions are demonstrating: A. Identities B. Intuitive Thought C. Cardinality Principle D. Deferred Imitation

B. Intuitive Thought

Knowing the relative sizes of numbers 1 through 10 and counting to 20 or more is typical of: A. 4 years old B. 5 years old C. 6 years old D. 3 years old

B. 5 years old

Children focus on one aspect of situation and neglect others A. Centration B. Irreversibility C. Conservation D. Transductive Reasoning

A. Centration

Children fail to understand that some operations or actions can be reversed, restoring the original situations A. Centration B. Irreversibility C. Conservation D. Transductive Reasoning

B. Irreversibility

two objects that are equal remain so if their appearance is altered, as long as nothing is added or taken away A. Centration B. Irreversibility C. Conservation D. Transductive Reasoning

C. Conservation

Tendency to mentally link particular phenomena, whether or not there is logically a causal relationship A. Centration B. Irreversibility C. Conservation D. Transductive Reasoning

D. Transductive Reasoning

Children assume everyone else thinks, perceives and feels as they do A. Egocentrism B. Animism C. Magical Thinking

A. Egocentrism

Children attribute life to objects not alive A. Egocentrism B. Animism C. Magical Thinking

B. Animism

Is a way to explain events that do not seem to have obvious realistic explanation A. Egocentrism B. Animism C. Magical Thinking

C. Magical Thinking

Which of the following best defines Theory of Mind? A. The ability to store sensory input for short periods B. The awareness of the broad range of human mental states and understanding that others have distinctive beliefs, desires, and intentions C. The conscious control of thoughts and emotions to accomplish goals D. The process of preparing information for long-term storage

B. The awareness of the broad range of human mental states and understanding that others have distinctive beliefs, desires, and intentions

Theory of Mind includes knowledge about: A. Genetic inheritance patterns B. Motor skill development C. Thinking and mental states D. Sensory processing speed

C. Thinking and mental states

Which ability is directly associated with Theory of Mind? A. Distinguishing between fantasy and reality B. Retaining information for future use C. Filing information into memory folders D. Encoding visual stimuli

A. Distinguishing between fantasy and reality

Understanding false beliefs and deception is part of: A. Executive Function B. Theory of Mind C. Sensory Memory D. Storage

B. Theory of Mind

The process by which information is prepared for long-term storage and later retrieval is called: A. Storage B. Retrieval C. Encoding D. Executive processing

C. Encoding

Retention of information in memory for future use refers to: A. Storage B. Encoding C. Retrieval D. Script formation

A. Storage

Accessing or recalling information from memory storage is known as: A. Storage B. Retrieval C. Encoding D. Executive control

B. Retrieval

Which type of storage is the initial, brief, temporary storage of sensory information? A. Working Memory B. Long-Term Memory C. Central Executive D. Sensory Memory

D. Sensory Memory

Working Memory is best described as: A. A storehouse of virtually unlimited capacity B. The short-term storehouse for information a person is actively working on C. A system that only processes visual information D. Memory that produces scripts of familiar routines

B. The short-term storehouse for information a person is actively working on

Executive Function involves: A. Automatic recall of long-term memories B. Conscious control of thoughts, emotions, and actions to accomplish goals or solve problems C. Initial sensory input processing D. Maintaining verbal information only

B. Conscious control of thoughts, emotions, and actions to accomplish goals or solve problems

Executive Function emerges around: A. Birth B. Age 2 C. The end of an infant’s first year D. Ages 3 to 4

C. The end of an infant’s first year

Long-Term Memory is characterized by: A. Brief retention of sensory input B. Limited capacity storage C. Active manipulation of information D. Virtually unlimited capacity holding information for long periods

D. Virtually unlimited capacity holding information for long periods

The element of Working Memory that controls the processing of information is the: A. Phonological Loop B. Central Executive C. Script D. Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

B. Central Executive

The Phonological Loop primarily aids in processing: A. Visual information B. Emotional responses C. Verbal information D. Sensory impressions

C. Verbal information

The Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad is responsible for: A. Maintaining and manipulating visual information B. Storing unlimited memories C. Processing verbal repetition D. Controlling executive decisions

A. Maintaining and manipulating visual information

Genetic Memory produces: A. Specific time-linked memories B. Scripts of familiar routines to guide behavior C. Visual imagery storage D. False belief understanding

B. Scripts of familiar routines to guide behavior

Genetic Memory begins at approximately: A. Birth B. The end of the first year C. Age 2 D. Ages 3 to 4

C. Age 2

A script is best defined as: A. A detailed autobiographical record B. A general remembered outline of a familiar, repeated event used to guide behavior C. A temporary sensory impression D. A verbal rehearsal process

B. A general remembered outline of a familiar, repeated event used to guide behavior

Episodic Memory refers to: A. Memory for sensory input B. Long-term memory of specific experiences linked to time and place C. Short-term working memory D. Genetic routine memory

B. Long-term memory of specific experiences linked to time and place

Autobiographical Memory is: A. A type of sensory memory B. A function of the phonological loop C. A type of episodic memory involving distinctive experiences that form a person’s life history D. A script of repeated routines

C. A type of episodic memory involving distinctive experiences that form a person’s life history

Autobiographical Memory typically emerges between: A. Birth and 1 year B. Age 2 only C. Ages 5 and 6 D. Ages 3 and 4

D. Ages 3 and 4

The Social Interaction Model is based on the sociocultural theory of: A. Jean Piaget B. Erik Erikson C. Lev Vygotsky D. Sigmund Freud

C. Lev Vygotsky

The Social Interaction Model proposes that children construct autobiographical memories through: A. Independent rehearsal B. Conversation with adults about shared events C. Genetic inheritance D. Sensory repetition

B. Conversation with adults about shared events

Distinguishing between appearance and reality is associated with: A. Storage B. Theory of Mind C. Sensory Memory D. Phonological processing

B. Theory of Mind

Working Memory differs from Long-Term Memory because Working Memory: A. Has virtually unlimited capacity B. Stores information permanently C. Holds information a person is actively trying to understand or think about D. Is only used in infancy

C. Holds information a person is actively trying to understand or think about

Which component of Working Memory maintains and manipulates visual information? A. Central Executive B. Executive Function C. Phonological Loop D. Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

D. Visuo-Spatial Sketchpad

Which concept involves understanding that others have their own distinctive beliefs and desires? A. Script B. Retrieval C. Theory of Mind D. Encoding

C. Theory of Mind

Development of Executive Function: A. Remains static after infancy B. Emerges at age 3 C. Develops in spurts with age D. Is fully developed at birth

C. Develops in spurts with age

the difference between what a child can do alone and what the child can do with help A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) B. Scaffolding C. Fast Mapping D. Grammar E. Syntax

A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)

temporary support to help a child master a task A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) B. Scaffolding C. Fast Mapping D. Grammar E. Syntax

B. Scaffolding

process by which a child absorbs the meaning of a new word after hearing it once or twice in conversation A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) B. Scaffolding C. Fast Mapping D. Grammar E. Syntax

C. Fast Mapping

the deep underlying structure of a language that enables us to produce and understand utterance A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) B. Scaffolding C. Fast Mapping D. Grammar E. Syntax

D. Grammar

involves the rules for putting together sentences in a particular language A. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) B. Scaffolding C. Fast Mapping D. Grammar E. Syntax

E. Syntax

the practical knowledge of how to use language to communicate, knowing how to ask for things, how to tell a story or joke, how to begin and continue a conversation, and how to adjust comments to the listener’s perspective A. Pragmatics B. Social Speech C. Private Speech D. Oral Language Skills E. Specific Phonological Skills

A. Pragmatics

speech intended to be understood by a listener A. Pragmatics B. Social Speech C. Private Speech D. Oral Language Skills E. Specific Phonological Skills

B. Social Speech

talking aloud to self with no intent to communicate with others A. Pragmatics B. Social Speech C. Private Speech D. Oral Language Skills E. Specific Phonological Skills

C. Private Speech

vocabulary, syntax, narrative structure, and the understanding that language is used to communicate A. Pragmatics B. Social Speech C. Private Speech D. Oral Language Skills E. Specific Phonological Skills

D. Oral Language Skills

linking letters with sounds A. Pragmatics B. Social Speech C. Private Speech D. Oral Language Skills E. Specific Phonological Skills

E. Specific Phonological Skills

What is the primary function of emotional self-regulation? A. To increase academic performance B. To help children guide their behavior and adjust their responses to meet societal expectations C. To encourage independence from parents D. To eliminate all negative emotions

B. To help children guide their behavior and adjust their responses to meet societal expectations

Emotional self-regulation helps children: A. Avoid interacting with others B. Memorize social rules C. Guide their behavior and adjust responses to meet societal expectations D. Develop physical coordination

C. Guide their behavior and adjust responses to meet societal expectations

Social emotions involve: A. Physical growth milestones B. Language acquisition skills C. A comparison of one’s self or one’s actions to social standards D. Reflexive responses to stimuli

C. A comparison of one’s self or one’s actions to social standards

Social emotions typically develop: A. At birth B. During adolescence C. By the end of the 3rd year D. In late adulthood

C. By the end of the 3rd year

The development of social emotions depends on children: A. Learning to read independently B. Gaining self-awareness and accepting their parents’ standards of behavior C. Competing with peers D. Mastering motor skills

B. Gaining self-awareness and accepting their parents’ standards of behavior

By the end of the 3rd year, children usually: A. Fully understand all societal laws B. Lose dependence on caregivers C. Develop social emotions D. Stop comparing themselves to others

C. Develop social emotions

Social emotions require the child to: A. Compare their actions to social standards B. Focus only on personal desires C. Ignore parental guidance D. Avoid self-reflection

A. Compare their actions to social standards

Emotional self-regulation is most closely related to a child’s ability to: A. Build physical strength B. Adjust responses to meet societal expectations C. Speak multiple languages D. Achieve independence from social norms

B. Adjust responses to meet societal expectations

Which must children gain before social emotions typically develop? A. Peer approval B. Formal education C. Self-awareness D. Financial responsibility

C. Self-awareness

Acceptance of whose standards contributes to the development of social emotions? A. Teachers B. Parents C. Government officials D. Friends

B. Parents

Social emotions are most directly associated with: A. Comparing oneself or one’s actions to social standards B. Reacting without thinking C. Developing athletic skills D. Memorizing family traditions

A. Comparing oneself or one’s actions to social standards

Emotional self-regulation supports children in: A. Avoiding societal rules B. Meeting societal expectations C. Eliminating comparisons with others D. Rejecting parental influence

B. Meeting societal expectations

The typical timeframe for the development of social emotions is: A. Immediately after birth B. During infancy C. By the end of the third year D. During middle childhood

C. By the end of the third year

For social emotions to emerge, children must: A. Gain self-awareness B. Travel independently C. Begin schooling D. Develop advanced reasoning

A. Gain self-awareness

Emotional self-regulation primarily involves: A. Suppressing all emotions B. Guiding behavior and adjusting responses C. Competing with peers D. Following instincts without reflection

B. Guiding behavior and adjusting responses

vitally important to development and has significant current and long-term functions A. Play B. Reticent Play C. Gender Segregation D. Games

A. Play

a combination of Parten’s unoccupied and onlooker categories A. Play B. Reticent Play C. Gender Segregation D. Games

B. Reticent Play

tendency to select playmates of one’s own gender A. Play B. Reticent Play C. Gender Segregation D. Games

C. Gender Segregation

activities that children engage in or pleasure and that have rules A. Play B. Reticent Play C. Gender Segregation D. Games

D. Games

begins during infancy and playing involving repetitive large muscular movements A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

A. Functional Play

Locomotor play A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

A. Functional Play

play involving use of objects or materials to make something A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

B. Constructive Play

Object play A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

B. Constructive Play

involves imaginary objects, actions, or roles A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

C. Dramatic Play

Pretend play A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

C. Dramatic Play

A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

organized games with known procedures and penalties A. Functional Play B. Constructive Play C. Dramatic Play D. Formal Games With Rules

D. Formal Games With Rules

does not seem to be playing but watches anything of momentary interest A. Unoccupied Behavior B. Onlooker Behavior C. Solitaire Independent Play

A. Unoccupied Behavior

spends most of the time watching other children play. The onlooker may talk to them but does not enter into the play A. Unoccupied Behavior B. Onlooker Behavior C. Solitaire Independent Play

B. Onlooker Behavior

child plays alone A. Unoccupied Behavior B. Onlooker Behavior C. Solitaire Independent Play

C. Solitaire Independent Play

plays beside the other children independently A. Parallel Play B. Associative Play C. Cooperative or Organized Supplementary Play

A. Parallel Play

children talk, borrow, and lend toys, follow each other around and play similarly A. Parallel Play B. Associative Play C. Cooperative or Organized Supplementary Play

B. Associative Play

child plays in a group organized for some goal A. Parallel Play B. Associative Play C. Cooperative or Organized Supplementary Play

C. Cooperative or Organized Supplementary Play

methods of modeling character of teaching self-control and acceptable behavior A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

A. Discipline

tangible (treats, more playtime) or intangible (a smile, a word of praise, or a special privilege) A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

B. External Reinforcement

a sense of pleasure or accomplishment A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

C. Internal Reinforcement

It should be administered calmly, in private, and aimed at eliciting compliance, not guilt A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

D. Punishment

Most effective when accompanied by a short, simple explanation A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

D. Punishment

use of physical force with the intention of causing pain but not injury so as to correct or control behavior A. Discipline B. External Reinforcement C. Internal Reinforcement D. Punishment E. Corporal Punishment

E. Corporal Punishment

designed to encourage desirable behavior or discourage undesirable behavior by setting limits, demonstrating logical consequences of an action, explaining, discussing, negotiating, and getting ideas from the child about what is fair A. Inductive Techniques B. Power Assertion C. Withdrawal of Love

A. Inductive Techniques

disciplinary strategy designed to discourage undesirable behavior through physical or verbal enforcement of parental control, which includes demands, threats, withdrawal of privileges, spanking, and other types of punishment A. Inductive Techniques B. Power Assertion C. Withdrawal of Love

B. Power Assertion

disciplinary strategy that involves ignoring, isolating, or showing dislike for a child A. Inductive Techniques B. Power Assertion C. Withdrawal of Love

C. Withdrawal of Love

emphasizes a child’s individuality but also stresses limits A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

A. Authoritative Parenting

Tend to be the most self-reliant, self-controlled, self-assertive, exploratory, and content A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

A. Authoritative Parenting

↑ Control ↑ Warmth A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

A. Authoritative Parenting

emphasizes control and unquestioning obedience A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

B. Authoritarian Parenting

Children tend to be more discontented, withdrawn, and distrustful A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

B. Authoritarian Parenting

↑ Control ↓ Warmth A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

B. Authoritarian Parenting

emphasizes self-expression and self-regulation A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

C. Permissive Parenting

Tend to be immature, the least self-controlled and the least exploratory A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

C. Permissive Parenting

↓ Control ↑ Warmth A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

C. Permissive Parenting

parents sometimes focus on their needs rather than on those of the child because of stress or depression A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

↓ Control ↓ Warmth A. Authoritative Parenting B. Authoritarian Parenting C. Permissive Parenting D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

D. Neglectful (Uninvolved)

the games children play at recess tend to be informal. Most of recess involves socializing with peers A. Recess B. Rough-and-Tumble Play C. Organized Sports

A. Recess

vigorous play involving wrestling, hitting, and chasing, often accompanied by laughing and screaming A. Recess B. Rough-and-Tumble Play C. Organized Sports

B. Rough-and-Tumble Play

a slow but steady decline from participating team sports on a regular basis of 6- to 12-year-old children mainly due to household income A. Recess B. Rough-and-Tumble Play C. Organized Sports

C. Organized Sports

Who identified three parenting styles and described the typical behavior patterns of children raised in each style? A. Eleanor Maccoby B. John Martin C. Diana Baumrind D. Jean Piaget

C. Diana Baumrind

Who added the fourth parenting style in 1983? A. Diana Baumrind B. Eleanor Maccoby and John Martin C. Jean Piaget D. Lev Vygotsky

B. Eleanor Maccoby and John Martin

The fourth parenting style was added in which year? A. 1975 B. 1990 C. 1963 D. 1983

D. 1983

Cognitive advances in middle and late childhood involve changes primarily in: A. Emotional expression and temperament B. Social relationships with peers C. The brain’s structure and functioning D. Physical growth patterns

C. The brain’s structure and functioning

Cognitive advances are characterized by: A. Slower but more accurate thinking B. Faster, more efficient information processing C. Reduced ability to concentrate D. Increased reliance on abstract reasoning

B. Faster, more efficient information processing

During middle and late childhood, children show an increased ability to: A. Focus only on imaginary events B. Ignore distracting information C. Avoid logical reasoning D. Depend entirely on adults for problem-solving

B. Ignore distracting information

The Concrete Operational Stage is marked by the development of: A. Abstract and hypothetical thinking B. Illogical and egocentric reasoning C. Logical but not abstract thinking D. Symbolic thinking without logic

C. Logical but not abstract thinking

In the Concrete Operational Stage, children can use mental operations to: A. Solve abstract philosophical problems B. Solve concrete problems C. Predict imaginary future events D. Understand purely theoretical concepts

B. Solve concrete problems

Children in the Concrete Operational Stage can think logically because they: A. Focus on only one aspect of a situation B. Ignore all details of a problem C. Use imagination instead of logic D. Take multiple aspects of a situation into account

D. Take multiple aspects of a situation into account

A limitation of thinking in the Concrete Operational Stage is that it is restricted to: A. Hypothetical situations B. Abstract reasoning C. Real situations in the here and now D. Symbolic representations only

C. Real situations in the here and now

Which of the following best describes thinking during the Concrete Operational Stage? A. Logical and abstract B. Logical but limited to concrete situations C. Illogical and intuitive D. Abstract and hypothetical

B. Logical but limited to concrete situations

Faster and more efficient information processing in middle and late childhood is associated with: A. Cognitive advances B. Emotional regression C. Reduced brain development D. Decreased attention span

A. Cognitive advances

The ability to ignore distracting information during middle and late childhood reflects improvements in: A. Sensory perception only B. Parenting style influence C. Brain structure and functioning D. Physical coordination

C. Brain structure and functioning

Who are the two researchers that collaborated to add a fourth parenting style? A. Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky B. Eleanor Maccoby and John Martin C. Diana Baumrind and John Martin D. Eleanor Maccoby and Diana Baumrind

B. Eleanor Maccoby and John Martin

Diana Baumrind’s work focused on identifying: A. Stages of cognitive development B. Brain growth patterns C. Parenting styles and associated child behavior patterns D. Theories of moral reasoning

C. Parenting styles and associated child behavior patterns

In middle and late childhood, increased efficiency in thinking is primarily linked to changes in: A. Diet and nutrition B. The brain’s structure and functioning C. Peer relationships D. School curriculum

B. The brain’s structure and functioning

Children in the Concrete Operational Stage are limited in their thinking because they cannot: A. Use logic at all B. Solve real-world problems C. Think abstractly D. Consider multiple aspects of a situation

C. Think abstractly

The developmental tasks described for middle and late childhood include advances in: A. Moral reasoning only B. Cognitive functioning C. Physical strength exclusively D. Language regression

B. Cognitive functioning

children are more easily able to navigate a physical environment with which they have experience, and training can help improve spatial skills as well A. Spatial Thinking B. Causality C. Transitive Inferences D. Class Inclusion

A. Spatial Thinking

ability to make judgements about cause and effect, as children learn more about the world, their growing knowledge informs the quality of their reasoning A. Spatial Thinking B. Causality C. Transitive Inferences D. Class Inclusion

B. Causality

understanding the relationship between two objects by knowing the relationship of each to a third object A. Spatial Thinking B. Causality C. Transitive Inferences D. Class Inclusion

C. Transitive Inferences

If a

C. Transitive Inferences

225

the ability to see the relationship between a whole and its parts, and to understand the categories within a whole A. Spatial Thinking B. Causality C. Transitive Inferences D. Class Inclusion

D. Class Inclusion

226

arranging objects in a series according to one or more dimensions A. Seriation B. Inductive Reasoning C. Conservation D. Number and Mathematics

A. Seriation

227

moves from particular observation about members of a class to general conclusion about that class A. Seriation B. Inductive Reasoning C. Conservation D. Number and Mathematics

B. Inductive Reasoning

228

understand the principles of identity, reversibility, and can now decenter A. Seriation B. Inductive Reasoning C. Conservation D. Number and Mathematics

C. Conservation

229

advantage in their number-line estimation, computational estimation, numerosity estimation, and measurement estimation A. Seriation B. Inductive Reasoning C. Conservation D. Number and Mathematics

D. Number and Mathematics

230

the organs necessary for reproduction A. Primary Sex Characteristics B. Secondary Sex Characteristics

A. Primary Sex Characteristics

231

physiological signs of sexual maturation that do not directly involve the sex organs A. Primary Sex Characteristics B. Secondary Sex Characteristics

B. Secondary Sex Characteristics

232

Adolescence is best described as: A. A strictly biological stage marked only by puberty B. A developmental transition involving physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes C. A legally defined age category beginning at 18 D. A period limited only to physical growth

B. A developmental transition involving physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes

233

The typical age range for adolescence is: A. 6 to 12 B. 10 to 18 C. 11 to 19 or 20 D. 13 to 21

C. 11 to 19 or 20

234

Adolescence is considered a social construction because it: A. Is determined solely by biological changes B. Is not clearly defined as a physical or biological category C. Occurs only in industrial societies D. Begins exactly at age 13

B. Is not clearly defined as a physical or biological category

235

The secular trend refers to: A. A short-term delay in puberty B. The elimination of secondary sexual characteristics C. A long-term shift toward earlier onset of puberty D. A decrease in reproductive capability

C. A long-term shift toward earlier onset of puberty

236

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic in girls mentioned in the material? A. Deepening of the voice B. Growth of facial hair C. Enlargement of testes D. Breast development

D. Breast development

237

Which change in boys is associated with the secular trend? A. Earlier growth of testes and penis B. Decreased facial hair growth C. Delayed puberty D. Reduced muscle development

A. Earlier growth of testes and penis

238

Puberty leads to sexual maturity, which means: A. Emotional independence B. Fertility and the ability to reproduce C. Legal adulthood D. Social independence

B. Fertility and the ability to reproduce

239

The hormone first released in elevated levels at the beginning of puberty is: A. Testosterone B. Estrogen C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

240

Increased GnRH triggers a rise in: A. Estrogen and testosterone B. LH and FSH C. DHEA and estrogen D. Androstenedione and DHEA

B. LH and FSH

241

In boys, LH initiates the release of: A. Estrogen and progesterone B. FSH and DHEA C. Testosterone and androstenedione D. GnRH and FSH

C. Testosterone and androstenedione

242

In girls, increased levels of FSH lead to: A. Growth of facial hair B. Increased testosterone production C. Onset of menstruation D. Enlargement of testes

C. Onset of menstruation

243

The two basic stages of puberty are: A. Adrenarche and Gonadarche B. GnRH and LH C. Menarche and Spermarche D. Estrogen and Testosterone

A. Adrenarche and Gonadarche

244

Adrenarche typically occurs between the ages of: A. 9 and 11 B. 6 and 8 C. 10 and 14 D. 12 and 16

B. 6 and 8

245

During adrenarche, the adrenal glands secrete increasing levels of: A. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

246

DHEA influences which of the following? A. Development of ovaries B. Growth of pubic and underarm hair C. Release of GnRH D. Onset of menstruation directly

B. Growth of pubic and underarm hair

247

Which is NOT influenced by DHEA? A. Oilier skin B. Body odor C. Faster body growth D. Growth of female genitals

D. Growth of female genitals

248

Gonadarche is marked by: A. The release of GnRH B. The development of cognitive changes C. Maturing of the sex organs D. The end of adolescence

C. Maturing of the sex organs

249

Gonadarche triggers: A. A second burst of DHEA production B. A decline in androgen production C. The end of secondary sexual development D. Immediate fertility

A. A second burst of DHEA production

250

In girls, gonadarche involves increased input of: A. Testosterone B. Estrogen C. DHEA D. LH only

B. Estrogen

251

Increased estrogen in girls stimulates growth of: A. Male genitals B. Muscle mass only C. Female genitals and breasts D. Facial hair exclusively

C. Female genitals and breasts

252

In boys, the testes increase production of: A. Estrogen B. Androgens, especially testosterone C. FSH only D. Progesterone

B. Androgens, especially testosterone

253

In boys, increased testosterone contributes to: A. Development of breasts B. Decreased muscle mass C. Growth of male genitals and muscle mass D. Onset of menstruation

C. Growth of male genitals and muscle mass

254

The adolescent growth spurt is characterized by rapid increases in: A. Emotional maturity only B. Height, weight, muscle, and bone growth C. Social independence D. Cognitive reasoning only

B. Height, weight, muscle, and bone growth

255

The adolescent growth spurt in girls typically occurs between: A. 6½ and 10½ B. 10½ and 16 C. 9½ and 14½ D. 11 and 19

C. 9½ and 14½

256

The adolescent growth spurt in boys typically occurs between: A. 9½ and 14½ B. 10½ and 16 C. 6 and 8 D. 11 and 20

B. 10½ and 16

257

The adolescent growth spurt typically lasts about: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 3 years D. 2 years

D. 2 years

258

boy’s first ejaculation which occurs at an average age of 13 A. Spermarche B. Nocturnal Emission C. Menarche D. Menstruation

A. Spermarche

259

an involuntary ejaculation of semen (a.k.a wet dream) A. Spermarche B. Nocturnal Emission C. Menarche D. Menstruation

B. Nocturnal Emission

260

girl’s first menstruation which vary from the age 10 to 16 1⁄2 A. Spermarche B. Nocturnal Emission C. Menarche D. Menstruation

C. Menarche

261

a monthly shedding of tissue from the lining of the womb A. Spermarche B. Nocturnal Emission C. Menarche D. Menstruation

D. Menstruation

262

highest level of cognitive development and characterized by the ability to think abstractly A. Formal Operational Stage B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Deductive Reasoning

A. Formal Operational Stage

263

a methodical, scientific approach to problem solving, and it characterizes formal operational thinking which involves the ability to develop, consider, and test hypotheses A. Formal Operational Stage B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Deductive Reasoning

B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning

264

moves from a general premise about a class to a conclusion about a particular member or member of the class A. Formal Operational Stage B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Deductive Reasoning

C. Deductive Reasoning

265

Assume everyone else is thinking about the same thing they are thinking about themselves A. Imaginary Audience B. Personal Fable C. Self-Consciousness

A. Imaginary Audience

266

A belief by adolescents that they are special, their experience is unique, and they are not subject to the rules that govern the rest of the world A. Imaginary Audience B. Personal Fable C. Self-Consciousness

B. Personal Fable

267

Adolescents can think about thinking—their own and other people’s A. Imaginary Audience B. Personal Fable C. Self-Consciousness

C. Self-Consciousness

268

individuals encode experiences into two types of memory traces: verbatim and gist A. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model B. Verbatim Analytical C. Gist-Situational

A. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model

268

represent the details of an event A. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model B. Verbatim Analytical C. Gist-Situational

B. Verbatim Analytical

269

represent the general meaning or theme A. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model B. Verbatim Analytical C. Gist-Situational

C. Gist-Situational

270

offers opportunities to learn information, master new skills, and sharpen old skills A. School B. Intrinsic Motivation C. Future-Oriented Cognitions D. Service Learning E. Spillover

A. School

271

the student’s desire to learn for the sake of learning A. School B. Intrinsic Motivation C. Future-Oriented Cognitions D. Service Learning E. Spillover

B. Intrinsic Motivation

272

hopes and dreams about future job which related to greater achievement as well as participation in extracurricular activities A. School B. Intrinsic Motivation C. Future-Oriented Cognitions D. Service Learning E. Spillover

C. Future-Oriented Cognitions

273

form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to community A. School B. Intrinsic Motivation C. Future-Oriented Cognitions D. Service Learning E. Spillover

D. Service Learning

274

experiences in different context influence each other A. School B. Intrinsic Motivation C. Future-Oriented Cognitions D. Service Learning E. Spillover

E. Spillover

275

Emerging Adulthood is best described as: A. A period when individuals have fully assumed adult roles B. A transitional period between adolescence and adulthood commonly found in industrial countries C. A stage limited to biological maturity only D. A time when adolescents completely reject dependence

B. A transitional period between adolescence and adulthood commonly found in industrial countries

276

Emerging Adulthood is characterized by young people who: A. Have settled into permanent adult roles B. Are legally considered minors C. Are no longer adolescents but have not yet settled into adult roles D. Have completed all developmental tasks

C. Are no longer adolescents but have not yet settled into adult roles

277

Emotion-Focused Coping primarily involves: A. Confronting and changing the stressful situation directly B. Ignoring both emotions and problems C. Managing the emotions associated with experiencing a particular event D. Seeking professional therapy immediately

C. Managing the emotions associated with experiencing a particular event

278

Refusing to think about an issue is an example of: A. Problem-Focused Coping B. Reflective Thinking C. Postformal Thought D. Emotion-Focused Coping

D. Emotion-Focused Coping

279

Reframing an event in a positive light is most closely associated with: A. Problem-Focused Coping B. Emotion-Focused Coping C. Relativistic Thinking D. Reflective Thinking

B. Emotion-Focused Coping

280

Problem-Focused Coping involves: A. Avoiding the stressful event B. Managing emotions without addressing the issue C. Addressing an issue head-on and developing action-oriented solutions D. Relying solely on intuition

C. Addressing an issue head-on and developing action-oriented solutions

281

Which of the following best illustrates Problem-Focused Coping? A. Developing action-oriented ways of managing a bad situation B. Ignoring unpleasant thoughts C. Reframing a negative experience emotionally D. Denying the existence of a problem

A. Developing action-oriented ways of managing a bad situation

282

Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) produces symptoms for up to: A. 3 days before menstruation B. 1 week before menstruation C. 2 weeks before the menstrual period D. 1 month before menstruation

C. 2 weeks before the menstrual period

283

PMS includes which type of symptoms? A. Only physical discomfort B. Only emotional tension C. Cognitive impairment exclusively D. Physical discomfort and emotional tension

D. Physical discomfort and emotional tension

284

Which of the following is a physical symptom of PMS? A. Anxiety B. Mood swings C. Swelling and tenderness of the breasts D. Irritability

C. Swelling and tenderness of the breasts

285

Which of the following is an emotional symptom of PMS? A. Abdominal bloating B. Tearfulness C. Constipation D. Weight gain

B. Tearfulness

286

Difficulty concentrating or remembering is listed as a: A. Symptom of PMS B. Sign of emerging adulthood C. Feature of reflective thinking D. Type of coping strategy

A. Symptom of PMS

287

A recommended treatment for PMS includes: A. High-salt diet B. Irregular sleep patterns C. Aerobic exercise D. Eliminating carbohydrates

C. Aerobic exercise

288

A diet high in complex carbohydrates and low in salt is recommended for: A. Dysmenorrhea only B. Postformal thought C. PMS management D. Emotion-focused coping

C. PMS management

289

Dysmenorrhea refers to: A. Emotional tension before menstruation B. Painful menstruation caused by uterine contractions C. Hormonal imbalance unrelated to menstruation D. Mood swings during adolescence

B. Painful menstruation caused by uterine contractions

290

Dysmenorrhea cramps are caused by contractions of the uterus set in motion by: A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Serotonin D. Prostaglandin

D. Prostaglandin

291

Reflective Thinking was first defined by: A. K. Warner Schaie B. Sigmund Freud C. John Dewey D. Jean Piaget

C. John Dewey

292

Reflective Thinking involves: A. Passive acceptance of beliefs B. Active, persistent, and careful consideration of information or beliefs C. Emotional avoidance of complex issues D. Exclusive reliance on intuition

B. Active, persistent, and careful consideration of information or beliefs

293

Reflective Thinking becomes more prominent in: A. Childhood B. Adolescence C. Infancy D. Adulthood

D. Adulthood

294

Postformal Thought tends to emerge in: A. Early adulthood B. Childhood C. Late adolescence only D. Middle childhood

A. Early adulthood

295

Postformal Thought relies on: A. Logic alone B. Objective data only C. Subjective experience and intuition as well as logic D. Emotional denial

C. Subjective experience and intuition as well as logic

296

Postformal Thought allows room for: A. Certainty and absolute truth only B. Ambiguity and contradiction C. Rigid black-and-white thinking D. Complete consistency

B. Ambiguity and contradiction

297

The relativistic aspect of Postformal Thought acknowledges that: A. There is only one correct viewpoint B. Issues must be solved with logic alone C. The world is strictly black and white D. There may be more than one valid way of viewing an issue

D. There may be more than one valid way of viewing an issue

298

The idea that the world is made up of “shades of gray” reflects: A. Emotion-focused coping B. Dysmenorrhea C. Relativistic thinking D. Acquisition of information

C. Relativistic thinking

299

K. Warner Schaie’s model focuses on: A. Emotional development only B. Biological maturation exclusively C. Cognitive decline in late adulthood D. Developing uses of cognition within a social context

D. Developing uses of cognition within a social context

300

In Schaie’s model, “What do I need to know?” refers to: A. Practical integration of knowledge and skills B. Search for meaning and purpose C. Acquisition of information and skills D. Emotion-focused coping

C. Acquisition of information and skills

301

“How to use what I know?” corresponds to: A. Acquisition of information B. Practical integration of knowledge and skills C. Relativistic thinking D. Emotional regulation

B. Practical integration of knowledge and skills

302

“Why should I know?” reflects: A. Search for meaning and purpose B. Problem-focused coping C. Physical symptom awareness D. Reflexive reaction

A. Search for meaning and purpose

303

Which of the following best distinguishes Emotion-Focused Coping from Problem-Focused Coping? A. One manages emotions, while the other addresses the issue directly B. Both avoid the problem entirely C. Both rely on logic alone D. One applies only to PMS

A. One manages emotions, while the other addresses the issue directly

304

Which concept emphasizes continuous evaluation of information in light of evidence and implications? A. Postformal Thought B. Reflective Thinking C. Dysmenorrhea D. Emerging Adulthood

B. Reflective Thinking

305

Children and adolescents acquire information and skills mainly for their own sake or as preparation for participation in society A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

A. Acquisitive Stage

306

Childhood and Adolescence A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

A. Acquisitive Stage

307

Young adults no longer acquire knowledge merely for its own sake; they use what they know to pursue goals, such as career and family A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

B. Achieving Stage

308

Late Teens or Early Twenties to Early Thirties A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

B. Achieving Stage

309

Middle-aged people use their minds to solve practical problems associated with responsibilities to others, such as family members or employees A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

C. Responsible Stage

310

Late Thirties to Early Sixties A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

C. Responsible Stage

311

People in the executive stage are responsible for societal systems (governmental or business organizations) or social movements A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

D. Executive Stage

312

Thirties or Forties through Middle Age A. Acquisitive Stage B. Achieving Stage C. Responsible Stage D. Executive Stage

D. Executive Stage

313

People who enter retirement reorganize their lives and intellectual energies around meaningful pursuits that take the place of paid work A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

A. Reorganizational Stage

314

End of Middle Age, beginning of Late Adulthood A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

A. Reorganizational Stage

315

Older adults may be experiencing biological and cognitive changes and tend to be more selective about what tasks they expend effort on where they focus on the purpose of what they do and concentrate on tasks that have the most meaning for them A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

B. Reintegrative Stage

316

Late Adulthood A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

B. Reintegrative Stage

317

Advanced Old Stage A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

C. Legacy-Creating Stage

318

People may create instructions for the disposition of prized possessions, make funeral arrangements, provide oral histories, or write their life stories as a legacy for their loved ones A. Reorganizational Stage B. Reintegrative Stage C. Legacy-Creating Stage

C. Legacy-Creating Stage

319

analytical abilities A. Analytic/Componential Knowledge B. Creative/Experiential Elements C. Practical/Contextual Knowledge

A. Analytic/Componential Knowledge

320

how insightful or creative a person is A. Analytic/Componential Knowledge B. Creative/Experiential Elements C. Practical/Contextual Knowledge

B. Creative/Experiential Elements

321

the practical aspect of intelligence A. Analytic/Componential Knowledge B. Creative/Experiential Elements C. Practical/Contextual Knowledge

C. Practical/Contextual Knowledge

322

Information that is not formally taught but is necessary to get ahead A. Tacit Knowledge B. Self-Management C. Management of Tasks D. Management of Others

A. Tacit Knowledge

323

knowing how to motivate oneself and organize time and energy A. Tacit Knowledge B. Self-Management C. Management of Tasks D. Management of Others

B. Self-Management

324

knowing how to write a term paper or grant proposal A. Tacit Knowledge B. Self-Management C. Management of Tasks D. Management of Others

C. Management of Tasks

325

knowing when and how to reward or criticize subordinates A. Tacit Knowledge B. Self-Management C. Management of Tasks D. Management of Others

D. Management of Others

326

coined by Peter Salovey and John Mayer in which the abilities to perceive, use, understand, and manage, or regulate emotions, our own and those of others and so as to achieve goals A. Emotional Intelligence B. Postconventional Morality C. Commitment with Relativism

A. Emotional Intelligence

327

Kohlberg believed that people became capable of fully principled moral reasoning, and that they made moral decisions on the basis of universal principles of justice in which the acquisition of this style of thinking was primarily a function of experience A. Emotional Intelligence B. Postconventional Morality C. Commitment with Relativism

B. Postconventional Morality

328

students decide for themselves, ideally, what they want to believe A. Emotional Intelligence B. Postconventional Morality C. Commitment with Relativism

C. Commitment with Relativism

329

the degree of thought and independent judgment it requires and a person’s flexibility in coping with cognitive demands A. Substantive Complexity B. Spillover Hypothesis C. Fictive Kin D. Triangular Theory of Love

A. Substantive Complexity

330

cognitive gains from work carry over to nonworking hours A. Substantive Complexity B. Spillover Hypothesis C. Fictive Kin D. Triangular Theory of Love

B. Spillover Hypothesis

331

friends who are considered and behave like family members A. Substantive Complexity B. Spillover Hypothesis C. Fictive Kin D. Triangular Theory of Love

C. Fictive Kin

332

Patterns of love hinge on the balance among three elements A. Substantive Complexity B. Spillover Hypothesis C. Fictive Kin D. Triangular Theory of Love

D. Triangular Theory of Love

333

Proposed by Robert J. Sternberg A. Substantive Complexity B. Spillover Hypothesis C. Fictive Kin D. Triangular Theory of Love

D. Triangular Theory of Love

334

involves self-disclosure, which leads to connection, warmth, and trust A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

A. Intimacy

335

Emotional A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

A. Intimacy

336

based on inner drives that translate physiological arousal into sexual desire A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

B. Passion

337

Physical/Motivational A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

B. Passion

338

Cognitive A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

C. Commitment

339

the decision to love and to stay with the beloved A. Intimacy B. Passion C. Commitment

C. Commitment

340

No intimacy, passion, commitment; casual interactions A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

A. Nonlove

341

Closeness, understanding, emotional support, affection, boundedness, and warmth A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

B. Liking

342

Intimacy A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

B. Liking

343

"Love at first sight", a strong physical attraction and sexual arousal A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

C. Infatuation

344

Passion A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

C. Infatuation

345

Commitment only; found in long-term relationships, or arranged marriage A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

D. Empty Love

346

Commitment A. Nonlove B. Liking C. Infatuation D. Empty Love

D. Empty Love

347

Long-term, committed friendship, often occurring in marriages in which physical attraction has died down but in which the patterns feel close to each other and have made the decision to stay together A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

A. Companionate Love

348

Intimacy + Commitment A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

A. Companionate Love

349

Whirlwind courtship in which a couple make a commitment without allowing themselves the time to develop intimacy, and this kind of love usually does not last A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

B. Fatuous Love

350

Passion + Commitment A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

B. Fatuous Love

351

Drawn to each other physically and bonded, and they are not, however, committed to each other A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

C. Romantic Love

352

Passion + Intimacy A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

C. Romantic Love

353

Passion + Commitment + Intimacy A. Companionate Love B. Fatuous Love C. Romantic Love D. Consummate Love

D. Consummate Love

354

sex differences in mate preferences and mating behavior are based on the different amounts of time and effort men and women must invest in child rearing A. Parental Investment Theory B. Social Role Theory C. Assortative Mating (Homogamy)

A. Parental Investment Theory

355

sex differences in mate preferences and mating behavior are adaptation to gender roles A. Parental Investment Theory B. Social Role Theory C. Assortative Mating (Homogamy)

B. Social Role Theory

356

tendency to mate with someone who has traits similar to one’s own A. Parental Investment Theory B. Social Role Theory C. Assortative Mating (Homogamy)

C. Assortative Mating (Homogamy)

357

begin exploring their interests, aptitudes, and values, and start to develop a sense of what they might want to do in the future A. Crystallization B. Specialization C. Implementation

A. Crystallization

358

narrowing down their options, gaining more information about different career paths, and refining their career aspirations A. Crystallization B. Specialization C. Implementation

B. Specialization

359

involves putting their chosen career path into action and beginning their professional journey A. Crystallization B. Specialization C. Implementation

C. Implementation

360

Friends with benefits relationships are best described as: A. Long-term committed partnerships without physical intimacy B. Marriages without legal recognition C. Relationships or friendships blended with physical intimacy but little commitment D. Casual friendships without physical intimacy

C. Relationships or friendships blended with physical intimacy but little commitment

361

Among young adults ages 18 to 34, which trend has occurred? A. A sharp increase in marriage rates B. A sharp decrease in the proportion who have not yet married C. No significant change in marital patterns D. A sharp increase in the proportion who have not yet married

D. A sharp increase in the proportion who have not yet married

362

Compared to heterosexual couples, gay and lesbian couples are more likely to: A. Avoid negotiating household chores B. Negotiate household chores on a more egalitarian basis C. Rely on traditional gender roles for chores D. Experience greater household conflict over chores

B. Negotiate household chores on a more egalitarian basis

363

In terms of conflict resolution, gay and lesbian couples tend to: A. Resolve conflicts in a more positive atmosphere than heterosexual couples B. Avoid discussing conflicts entirely C. Experience more hostile conflicts than heterosexual couples D. Resolve conflicts less effectively than heterosexual couples

A. Resolve conflicts in a more positive atmosphere than heterosexual couples

364

Gay and lesbian relationships tend to be less stable than heterosexual relationships, possibly due to: A. Higher rates of infidelity B. Financial instability C. Lack of institutional supports D. Differences in emotional expression

C. Lack of institutional supports

365

Which group is more likely to divorce? A. Gay couples compared to lesbian couples B. Lesbian couples compared to gay couples C. Heterosexual couples compared to lesbian couples D. Married heterosexual couples compared to all same-sex couples

B. Lesbian couples compared to gay couples

366

Cohabitation refers to: A. A legally recognized marriage without a ceremony B. An unmarried couple involved in a sexual relationship who live together C. Dating without physical intimacy D. Living together for financial convenience only

B. An unmarried couple involved in a sexual relationship who live together

367

The prevalence of cohabitation: A. Is identical across all countries B. Is declining globally C. Varies widely across countries D. Exists only in industrialized countries

C. Varies widely across countries

368

Younger adults across various countries are showing: A. Decreased acceptance of marital alternatives B. Greater acceptance for cohabitation and other marital alternatives C. Increased preference for arranged marriages D. Less tolerance for nonmarital lifestyles

B. Greater acceptance for cohabitation and other marital alternatives

369

In industrialized countries, the age at which people marry has: A. Declined significantly B. Remained constant C. Risen D. Fluctuated without a clear trend

C. Risen

370

Extramarital activity is more prevalent among: A. Older adults and wives B. Younger adults and husbands C. Wives more than husbands D. Married women only

B. Younger adults and husbands

371

Individuals most likely to engage in infidelity tend to be: A. High in agreeableness and conscientiousness B. Low in neuroticism and high in agreeableness C. High in neuroticism and high in conscientiousness D. High in neuroticism and low in agreeableness and conscientiousness

D. High in neuroticism and low in agreeableness and conscientiousness

372

Technology has influenced extramarital affairs by: A. Decreasing opportunities for infidelity B. Increasing the use of the internet to initiate affairs C. Eliminating secrecy in relationships D. Reducing communication between partners

B. Increasing the use of the internet to initiate affairs

373

In general, married people tend to be: A. Less happy than unmarried people B. Equally happy as unmarried people C. Happier than unmarried people D. Unaffected in happiness by marital status

C. Happier than unmarried people

374

For most couples, sex: A. Has little impact on relationship quality B. Impacts relationship quality C. Only affects financial stability D. Is unrelated to emotional intimacy

B. Impacts relationship quality

375

Regarding emotional expressiveness, women tend to: A. Place less importance on it than men B. Value it equally as men C. Avoid it in relationships D. Place more importance on it than men

D. Place more importance on it than men

376

Individuals who marry and stay married, especially women, tend to: A. Become financially worse off than those who divorce B. Experience no financial difference compared to those who do not marry C. Become better off financially than those who do not marry or who divorce D. Experience financial instability regardless of marital status

C. Become better off financially than those who do not marry or who divorce

377

Which factor is suggested as a possible reason for lower stability in gay and lesbian relationships compared to heterosexual relationships? A. Greater emphasis on emotional expression B. Differences in age at marriage C. Increased technology use D. Lack of institutional supports

D. Lack of institutional supports

378

Compared to wives, husbands are: A. Less likely to engage in extramarital activity B. More likely to engage in extramarital activity C. Equally likely to engage in extramarital activity D. Unaffected by age in extramarital activity

B. More likely to engage in extramarital activity

379

Acceptance of cohabitation among younger adults across countries can best be described as: A. Decreasing steadily B. Limited to Western nations C. Increasing D. Nonexistent

C. Increasing

380

The term Midlife first appeared in the dictionary in what year? A. 1865 B. 1895 C. 1905 D. 1925

B. 1895

381

Middle adulthood generally refers to which age range? A. 30 to 50 years B. 35 to 60 years C. 40 to 65 years D. 45 to 70 years

C. 40 to 65 years

382

The definition of middle adulthood as ages 40 to 65 is described as: A. Biologically fixed B. Universally agreed upon C. Culturally determined D. Arbitrary

D. Arbitrary

383

Horn and Cattell are associated with the concepts of: A. Emotional and Social Intelligence B. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence C. Practical and Analytical Intelligence D. Verbal and Performance Intelligence

B. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

384

Fluid intelligence refers to the ability to: A. Recall vocabulary words B. Use past experiences to solve problems C. Solve novel problems with little or no previous knowledge D. Respond to social dilemmas

C. Solve novel problems with little

385

Fluid intelligence has been found to peak during: A. Adolescence B. Middle adulthood C. Young adulthood D. Late adulthood

C. Young adulthood

386

From age 20 to 60, the average person will have lost approximately: A. Half a standard deviation in fluid intelligence B. More than one standard deviation in fluid intelligence C. Two standard deviations in crystallized intelligence D. No measurable decline in fluid intelligence

B. More than one standard deviation in fluid intelligence

387

Crystallized intelligence refers to the ability to: A. Solve abstract reasoning problems B. Adapt to unfamiliar situations quickly C. Process new information rapidly D. Remember and use information acquired over a lifetime

D. Remember and use information acquired over a lifetime

388

Crystallized intelligence largely depends on: A. Reflex speed and reaction time B. Genetic inheritance alone C. Education and cultural experience D. Physical strength

C. Education and cultural experience

389

Crystallized intelligence is measured by tests of: A. Reflex coordination and speed B. Vocabulary, general information, and responses to social situations C. Spatial manipulation D. Sensory acuity

B. Vocabulary, general information, and responses to social situations

390

Specialized knowledge or expertise is considered a form of: A. Fluid intelligence B. Emotional intelligence C. Social intelligence D. Crystallized intelligence

D. Crystallized intelligence

391

Specialized knowledge is related to the process of: A. Assimilation B. Encapsulation C. Accommodation D. Compensation

B. Encapsulation

392

Phased retirement involves: A. Immediately stopping all work activities B. Switching careers abruptly C. Reducing work hours or days gradually before full retirement D. Continuing full-time employment past retirement age

C. Reducing work hours or days gradually before full retirement

393

Bridge employment refers to: A. Working unpaid volunteer jobs B. Gradually reducing hours in the same company C. Taking extended vacation before retirement D. Switching to another company or a new line of work

D. Switching to another company or a new line of work

394

Literacy is defined as the ability to: A. Read novels for entertainment B. Use printed and written information to function in society and achieve goals C. Write academic essays D. Memorize written material

B. Use printed and written information to function in society and achieve goals

395

Which of the following is the first emotional stage of retirement? A. Honeymoon Phase B. Stability Phase C. Pre-Retirement D. Reorientation

C. Pre-Retirement

396

The Honeymoon Phase of retirement is characterized by: A. Planning retirement finances B. Establishing a retirement routine C. Questioning what to do next D. Experiencing freedom

D. Experiencing freedom

397

The Disenchantment Phase is marked by: A. A feeling of freedom B. Planning activities C. Wondering what to do next D. Complete stability

C. Wondering what to do next

398

The Reorientation stage of retirement involves: A. Establishing a retirement routine B. Developing a new identity C. Reducing work hours D. Initial retirement planning

B. Developing a new identity

399

The Stability Phase of retirement is characterized by: A. Planning for retirement B. A retirement routine C. Feelings of confusion D. Switching careers

B. A retirement routine

400

Religion is best defined as an organized set of: A. Personal reflections only B. Moral codes without rituals C. Beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols connecting to a sacred or transcendent other D. Social customs unrelated to spirituality

C. Beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols connecting to a sacred or transcendent other

401

Religiousness refers to the: A. Personal search for meaning B. Degree of affiliation with an organized religion and participation in its practices C. Rejection of structured beliefs D. Emotional stages of faith

B. Degree of affiliation with an organized religion and participation in its practices

402

Spirituality involves: A. Strict adherence to religious doctrine B. Participation in formal rituals only C. Experiencing something beyond oneself in a transcendent manner D. Memorizing sacred texts

C. Experiencing something beyond oneself in a transcendent manner

403

Which of the following is one of the four main needs for making sense in life? A. Need for Wealth B. Need for Popularity C. Need for Authority D. Need for Purpose

D. Need for Purpose

404

Which of the following is included among the four main needs for making sense in life? A. Need for Values B. Need for Fame C. Need for Control over Others D. Need for Adventure

A. Need for Values

405

The need for a sense of efficacy refers to the need to: A. Feel competent and capable B. Control others C. Gain recognition D. Avoid responsibility

A. Feel competent and capable

406

The need for self-worth involves: A. Financial security B. Social dominance C. Feeling valued as a person D. Avoiding failure

C. Feeling valued as a person

407

Selective Optimization with Compensation refers to: A. Eliminating all weakened abilities B. Ignoring areas of decline C. Enhancing overall cognitive functioning by using stronger abilities to compensate for weaker ones D. Focusing only on new skills

C. Enhancing overall cognitive functioning by using stronger abilities to compensate for weaker ones

408

In Selective Optimization with Compensation, selecting refers to: A. Using alternative methods to achieve goals B. Choosing fewer and more meaningful activities or goals C. Increasing the number of goals D. Avoiding difficult tasks

B. Choosing fewer and more meaningful activities or goals

409

In Selective Optimization with Compensation, optimizing refers to: A. Reducing expectations B. Changing life goals entirely C. Using available resources to achieve goals D. Delegating all tasks to others

C. Using available resources to achieve goals

410

In Selective Optimization with Compensation, compensating refers to: A. Abandoning goals B. Using resources in alternative ways to achieve goals C. Selecting easier tasks D. Increasing workload

B. Using resources in alternative ways to achieve goals

411

good physical health, retention of cognitive abilities, and continuing engagement in social and productive activities A. Successful Aging B, Primary Aging C. Secondary Aging

A. Successful Aging

412

gradual, inevitable process of bodily deterioration throughout the life span, a nature process governed by biology A. Successful Aging B, Primary Aging C. Secondary Aging

B, Primary Aging

413

aging processes that result from disease and bodily abuse and disuse and often preventable, the result of nurture, the environmental insults that accrue over the course of a lifetime A. Successful Aging B, Primary Aging C. Secondary Aging

C. Secondary Aging

414

measure of a person’s ability to function effectively in his or her physical and social environment in comparison with others of the same chronological age A. Functional Age B. Gerontology C. Geriatrics D. Coping E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

A. Functional Age

415

study of the aged and the process of aging A. Functional Age B. Gerontology C. Geriatrics D. Coping E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

B. Gerontology

416

branch of medicine concerned with processes of aging and medical conditions associated with old age A. Functional Age B. Gerontology C. Geriatrics D. Coping E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

C. Geriatrics

417

adaptive thinking or behavior at reducing or relieving stress that arises from harmful, threatening, or challenging conditions A. Functional Age B. Gerontology C. Geriatrics D. Coping E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

D. Coping

418

in which people choose appropriate coping strategies to deal with situations that tax their normal resources A. Functional Age B. Gerontology C. Geriatrics D. Coping E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

E. Cognitive-Appraisal Model

Part 1 Flashcards

(419 cards)