1
Q
analyze a situation and decide, at some level, whether or not the situation is a threat to their wellbeing
A. Primary Appraisal
B. Secondary Appraisal
C. Activities in Life
A
A. Primary Appraisal
2
Q
evaluate what can be done to prevent harm and choose a coping strategy to handle the situation
A. Primary Appraisal
B. Secondary Appraisal
C. Activities in Life
A
B. Secondary Appraisal
3
Q
include bathing, dressing, and using toilet
A. Primary Appraisal
B. Secondary Appraisal
C. Activities in Life
A
C. Activities in Life
4
Q
include activities that are more intellectually demanding such as financial management
A. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
B. Volunteerism
C. Religious Coping
A
A. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
5
Q
performing unpaid work for altruistic reasons
A. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
B. Volunteerism
C. Religious Coping
A
B. Volunteerism
6
Q
the tendency to turn to religious beliefs and institutions in times of stress and troubles
A. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
B. Volunteerism
C. Religious Coping
A
C. Religious Coping
7
Q
In late life, which group has a higher proportion of individuals who are married worldwide?
A. Women
B. Men
C. Both equally
D. Neither men nor women
A
B. Men
8
Q
Women usually marry men who are:
A. Younger than themselves
B. The same age
C. Older than themselves
D. Significantly younger
A
C. Older than themselves
9
Q
Compared to women, men are more likely to:
A. Remarry after divorce or widowhood
B. Remain single after divorce
C. Avoid long-term relationships
D. Experience higher marital discord
A
A. Remarry after divorce or widowhood
10
Q
Married couples who remain together in late adulthood are more likely than middle-aged couples to report:
A. More conflict and dissatisfaction
B. Lower self-esteem
C. Higher satisfaction and fewer adjustment problems
D. Increased emotional instability
A
C. Higher satisfaction and fewer adjustment problems
11
Q
Married people with greater discord in their marriages tend to experience:
A. Higher levels of happiness
B. Anxiety and depression
C. Greater reflective judgment
D. Increased longevity
A
B. Anxiety and depression
12
Q
Less discordant marriages are associated with:
A. Lower marital satisfaction
B. Higher self-esteem and higher marital satisfaction
C. Greater adjustment problems
D. Increased mortality
A
B. Higher self-esteem and higher marital satisfaction
13
Q
Couples who strongly believe in marriage, share decision making, and share household chores are more likely to report:
A. High conflict and low happiness
B. Low self-esteem
C. Low levels of conflict and high levels of happiness
D. Greater anxiety
A
C. Low levels of conflict and high levels of happiness
14
Q
Marriage partners, especially wives, who successfully regulate negative emotions and communicate effectively are more likely to report:
A. Higher marital satisfaction
B. Increased adjustment problems
C. Lower self-esteem
D. Higher mortality risk
A
A. Higher marital satisfaction
15
Q
Women tend to outlive their husbands and are:
A. More likely than men to remarry
B. Equally likely as men to remarry
C. Less likely than men to marry again
D. Required to remarry
A
C. Less likely than men to marry again
16
Q
Widowhood has been repeatedly associated with:
A. Decreased mortality
B. No change in mortality
C. Increased mortality
D. Increased marital satisfaction
A
C. Increased mortality
17
Q
The sharpest decline in survival following the death of a spouse occurs:
A. After five years
B. In the first six months
C. After one year
D. After ten years
A
B. In the first six months
18
Q
The increased mortality associated with widowhood is more pronounced in:
A. Urban areas
B. Suburban areas
C. Coastal regions
D. Rural areas
A
D. Rural areas
19
Q
Who appears to be affected more strongly by the loss of a spouse?
A. Women
B. Men
C. Both equally
D. Neither
A
B. Men
20
Q
The Widowhood (Mortality) Effect refers to:
A. Improved mental health after a spouse’s death
B. Reduced risk of death following widowhood
C. Increased risk of death for a surviving spouse in the months following their partner’s death
D. Higher remarriage rates among widowed individuals
A
C. Increased risk of death for a surviving spouse in the months following their partner’s death
21
Q
Wisdom is defined as:
A. Accumulated academic knowledge only
B. Emotional independence from others
C. Exceptional breadth and depth of knowledge about life conditions and human affects, along with reflective judgment about applying that knowledge
D. The ability to avoid conflict in marriage
A
C. Exceptional breadth and depth of knowledge about life conditions and human affects, along with reflective judgment about applying that knowledge
22
Q
Compared to middle-aged couples, couples in late adulthood who remain together are more likely to report:
A. More adjustment problems
B. Fewer adjustment problems
C. Greater marital discord
D. Lower happiness
A
B. Fewer adjustment problems
23
Q
Higher marital discord is associated with:
A. Higher self-esteem
B. Increased happiness
C. Anxiety and depression
D. Greater wisdom
A
C. Anxiety and depression
24
Q
Sharing household chores and decision making in marriage is linked to:
A. Increased conflict
B. Lower happiness
C. Higher mortality
D. Low conflict and high happiness
A
D. Low conflict and high happiness
25
Women generally outlive their husbands and:
A. Remarry more frequently than men
B. Are less likely than men to remarry
C. Experience no change in marital status
D. Are more affected by spousal loss than men
B. Are less likely than men to remarry
26
Wisdom involves reflective judgment about:
A. Avoiding marriage
B. Increasing wealth
C. The application of knowledge
D. Household division of labor
C. The application of knowledge
27
the difficulties, obstacles, or struggles that individuals typically encounter as they navigate the developmental tasks and stages of life
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
A. Developmental Challenges
28
these involve an incorrect number or structure of chromosomes.
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
29
Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
30
Turner Syndrome
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
31
Klinefelter Syndrome
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
32
inherited illnesses where one or both parents carry a gene for a specific disease.
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
C. Single Gene Disorders
33
Sickle Cell Anemia
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
C. Single Gene Disorders
34
Cystic Fibrosis
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
C. Single Gene Disorders
35
Tay-Sachs Disease
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
C. Single Gene Disorders
36
issues with the development of the brain and spinal cord
A. Developmental Challenges
B. Chromosomal Abnormalities
C. Single Gene Disorders
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
D. Central Nervous System Malformations
37
caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to flattened facial features, heart defects, and intellectual impairment
A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Klinefelter Syndrome
A. Down Syndrome
38
occurs when a female is born with a missing or partially missing X chromosome
A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Klinefelter Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
39
occurs in males with an extra X chromosome
A. Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Klinefelter Syndrome
C. Klinefelter Syndrome
40
can lead to Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD), characterized by small head size, abnormal facial features, heart defects, and intellectual disability
A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Psychoactive Drugs
D. Rubella
A. Alcohol
41
linked to low birth weight, weakened immune system, poor respiration, and neurological impairment, premature birth, and stillbirth
A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Psychoactive Drugs
D. Rubella
B. Smoking
42
associated with low birth weight and neurological impairment. Babies born with heroin addiction may experience withdrawal (cocaine, methamphetamine, heroin)
A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Psychoactive Drugs
D. Rubella
C. Psychoactive Drugs
43
can cause birth defects; deafness
A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Psychoactive Drugs
D. Rubella
D. Rubella
44
German Measles
A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Psychoactive Drugs
D. Rubella
D. Rubella
45
can lead to neurological problems, hearing loss, and intellectual delay
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Herpes Viruses
A. Cytomegalovirus
46
an infection that can affect the developing fetus
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Herpes Viruses
B. Toxoplasmosis
47
congenital transmission can lead to long-term neurological problems
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Herpes Viruses
C. Herpes Viruses
48
Gonorrhea and Chlamydia can cause ophthalmia neonatorum (leading to blindness if untreated)
A. Sexually Transmitted Infections
B. Zika Virus
C. Diabetes
A. Sexually Transmitted Infections
49
can cause microcephaly and other severe brain defects
A. Sexually Transmitted Infections
B. Zika Virus
C. Diabetes
B. Zika Virus
50
increases the risk of congenital anomalies, stillbirth, and macrosomia (large baby)
A. Sexually Transmitted Infections
B. Zika Virus
C. Diabetes
C. Diabetes
51
a key factor in causing neural tube defects (spina bifida)
A. Folic Acid Deficiency
B. Iron Deficiency (Anemia)
A. Folic Acid Deficiency
52
can lead to tiredness, weakness, and other symptoms in the mother
A. Folic Acid Deficiency
B. Iron Deficiency (Anemia)
B. Iron Deficiency (Anemia)
53
the placenta separates from the uterus prematurely
A. Placental Abruption
B. Placenta Previa
C. Placenta Accreta
D. Placental Insufficiency
A. Placental Abruption
54
the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix
A. Placental Abruption
B. Placenta Previa
C. Placenta Accreta
D. Placental Insufficiency
B. Placenta Previa
55
the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall
A. Placental Abruption
B. Placenta Previa
C. Placenta Accreta
D. Placental Insufficiency
C. Placenta Accreta
56
the placenta is damaged or improperly formed, leading to inadequate nutrient and oxygen delivery
A. Placental Abruption
B. Placenta Previa
C. Placenta Accreta
D. Placental Insufficiency
D. Placental Insufficiency
57
too much amniotic fluid
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
A. Polyhydramnios
58
can lead to premature membrane rupture and preterm labor
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
A. Polyhydramnios
59
can cause pressure on the fetus and damage to lungs
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
B. Oligohydramnios
60
Too little amniotic fluid
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
B. Oligohydramnios
61
the fetus grows too slowly, often due to issues with the placenta or maternal health
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
62
babies born before 37 weeks are at higher risk for various health problems due to underdeveloped organs
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Intrauterine Growth Restriction
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
D. Prematurity and Low Birth Weight
63
an immune reaction from the mother’s body against the baby’s blood type
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
B. Gestational Diabetes
C. Preeclampsia
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
64
high blood sugar levels in the mother during pregnancy, which can lead to a large baby and complications during delivery
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
B. Gestational Diabetes
C. Preeclampsia
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
B. Gestational Diabetes
65
high blood pressure in the mother during pregnancy, potentially impacting blood flow to the placenta and fetal growth
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
B. Gestational Diabetes
C. Preeclampsia
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
C. Preeclampsia
66
issues with the umbilical cord’s attachment or position (umbilical cord prolapse)
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
B. Gestational Diabetes
C. Preeclampsia
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
67
loss of pregnancy, often due to genetic abnormalities, placental problems, or infections
A. Rh Factor Incompatibility
B. Gestational Diabetes
C. Preeclampsia
D. Umbilical Cord Abnormalities
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
E. Miscarriage and Stillbirth
68
conditions like obesity, high blood pressure, and certain autoimmune diseases can impact pregnancy outcomes
A. Chronic Maternal Illnesses
B. Maternal Age
C. Lack of Access to Quality Prenatal Care
A. Chronic Maternal Illnesses
69
pregnancies in very young or older mothers (over 35) tend to have higher risks
A. Chronic Maternal Illnesses
B. Maternal Age
C. Lack of Access to Quality Prenatal Care
B. Maternal Age
70
early and consistent prenatal care is crucial for identifying and managing potential challenges
A. Chronic Maternal Illnesses
B. Maternal Age
C. Lack of Access to Quality Prenatal Care
C. Lack of Access to Quality Prenatal Care
71
Which of the following is considered a gross motor delay at 2–3 months?
A. Not grasping objects
B. Not lifting head
C. Not cooing
D. Not transferring objects between hands
B. Not lifting head
72
Failure to roll over by which age may indicate a gross motor delay?
A. 4 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
C. 6 months
73
Not sitting independently by which age is considered a developmental concern?
A. 12 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 18 months
B. 9 months
74
A child who is not crawling by which age may have a gross motor delay?
A. 10 months
B. 9 months
C. 15 months
D. 12 months
D. 12 months
75
Not walking independently by which age is considered delayed?
A. 18 months
B. 15 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
A. 18 months
76
Dragging one side of the body while crawling or walking is categorized under:
A. Fine motor delay
B. Receptive language delay
C. Gross motor delay
D. Expressive language delay
C. Gross motor delay
77
Stiff or floppy limbs, or unusual muscle tone, are signs of:
A. Speech delay
B. Gross motor delay
C. Receptive language delay
D. Fine motor delay
B. Gross motor delay
78
Not grasping objects by which age indicates a fine motor delay?
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 9 months
D. 7 months
B. 4 months
79
A child not transferring objects between hands by which age may have a fine motor delay?
A. 7 months
B. 5 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
A. 7 months
80
Not developing a pincer grasp by 9–12 months falls under:
A. Expressive language delay
B. Receptive language delay
C. Fine motor delay
D. Gross motor delay
C. Fine motor delay
81
Difficulty with self-feeding, holding crayons, or stacking blocks by 18–24 months suggests:
A. Gross motor delay
B. Fine motor delay
C. Receptive language delay
D. Expressive language delay
B. Fine motor delay
82
Not responding to loud noises by 2 months is classified as:
A. Expressive language delay
B. Gross motor delay
C. Fine motor delay
D. Receptive language delay
D. Receptive language delay
83
Not turning to sounds or voices by 6–9 months indicates difficulty in:
A. Fine motor development
B. Receptive language
C. Expressive language
D. Gross motor development
B. Receptive language
84
Not understanding simple commands such as “no” or “come here” by 12–18 months reflects:
A. Expressive language delay
B. Receptive language delay
C. Fine motor delay
D. Gross motor delay
B. Receptive language delay
85
Difficulty pointing to body parts or familiar objects when asked is related to:
A. Expressive language
B. Fine motor skills
C. Receptive language
D. Gross motor skills
C. Receptive language
86
Not cooing or babbling by 4–6 months is considered:
A. Gross motor delay
B. Receptive language delay
C. Fine motor delay
D. Expressive language delay
D. Expressive language delay
87
Not using gestures such as waving or pointing by 12 months indicates:
A. Expressive language delay
B. Receptive language delay
C. Fine motor delay
D. Gross motor delay
A. Expressive language delay
88
Not saying single words such as “mama” or “dada” by 12–15 months is classified as:
A. Receptive language delay
B. Fine motor delay
C. Expressive language delay
D. Gross motor delay
C. Expressive language delay
89
Failure to use two-word phrases by 24 months suggests:
A. Gross motor delay
B. Expressive language delay
C. Receptive language delay
D. Fine motor delay
B. Expressive language delay
90
A child who only imitates speech rather than using it spontaneously shows signs of:
A. Fine motor delay
B. Gross motor delay
C. Expressive language delay
D. Receptive language delay
C. Expressive language delay
91
Which behavior may indicate an early cognitive delay in infancy?
A. Smiling at people by 3 months
B. Lack of attention to faces or surroundings
C. Showing affection to caregivers
D. Engaging in parallel play
B. Lack of attention to faces or surroundings
92
Not seeking out hidden objects between 8–12 months suggests difficulty with:
A. Self-soothing
B. Separation anxiety
C. Object permanence
D. Parallel play
C. Object permanence
93
By 18–24 months, failure to engage in simple pretend play may signal:
A. Sensory processing challenges
B. Cognitive delays
C. Feeding difficulties
D. Typical development
B. Cognitive delays
94
Difficulty following simple instructions during infancy or toddlerhood is categorized under:
A. Cognitive delays
B. Feeding challenges
C. Social delays only
D. Sleeping challenges
A. Cognitive delays
95
Not exploring objects in the environment is considered an early sign of:
A. Sleep regression
B. Cognitive delay
C. Parallel play development
D. Separation anxiety
B. Cognitive delay
96
Failure to smile at people by 3 months may indicate:
A. Sensory processing challenges
B. Feeding difficulties
C. Social and emotional delays
D. Typical toddler behavior
C. Social and emotional delays
97
Not making eye contact is most closely associated with:
A. Cognitive delays
B. Social and emotional delays
C. Feeding problems
D. Sleep difficulties
B. Social and emotional delays
98
Showing no affection for caregivers is categorized as a potential:
A. Sensory processing challenge
B. Cognitive delay
C. Social and emotional delay
D. Feeding issue
C. Social and emotional delay
99
Not responding to their name by 9 months is considered a sign of:
A. Social and emotional delays
B. Feeding challenges
C. Object permanence
D. Sleep resistance
A. Social and emotional delays
100
No back-and-forth sharing of sounds, smiles, or facial expressions reflects difficulty in:
A. Cognitive exploration
B. Social engagement
C. Feeding coordination
D. Sleep regulation
B. Social engagement
101
Lack of interest in interactive games such as peek-a-boo may indicate:
A. Sensory under-reactivity
B. Social and emotional delays
C. Feeding aversion
D. Typical behavior
B. Social and emotional delays
102
Extreme fussiness or inconsolable crying is categorized under:
A. Feeding challenges
B. Cognitive delay
C. Social and emotional delays
D. Object permanence
C. Social and emotional delays
103
Absence of separation anxiety after 6 months or extreme, prolonged separation anxiety may suggest:
A. Sleep regression
B. Social and emotional delays
C. Cognitive development
D. Feeding challenges
B. Social and emotional delays
104
Difficulty with self-soothing falls under:
A. Feeding challenges
B. Social and emotional delays
C. Sensory processing only
D. Cognitive delay
B. Social and emotional delays
105
By toddlerhood, not showing interest in other children or engaging in parallel play suggests:
A. Cognitive advancement
B. Social and emotional delays
C. Sleep disturbances
D. Feeding problems
B. Social and emotional delays
106
Over- or under-reactivity to textures, sounds, or lights is classified as:
A. Social delay
B. Cognitive delay
C. Sensory processing challenge
D. Feeding difficulty
C. Sensory processing challenge
107
Seeming unresponsive to pain or loud noises may indicate:
A. Sensory processing challenges
B. Feeding issues
C. Sleep regression
D. Parallel play delay
A. Sensory processing challenges
108
Difficulty with transitions is considered a:
A. Cognitive milestone
B. Sensory processing challenge
C. Feeding concern
D. Typical toddler trait
B. Sensory processing challenge
109
A constant need for movement or avoidance of movement is categorized as:
A. Feeding challenge
B. Sensory processing challenge
C. Sleep disturbance
D. Social delay
B. Sensory processing challenge
110
Picky eating related to textures or smells is considered:
A. A sensory processing challenge
B. A sleep issue
C. A cognitive delay
D. A separation concern
A. A sensory processing challenge
111
Persistent difficulty sucking or swallowing is categorized as:
A. Social delay
B. Feeding challenge
C. Sensory challenge
D. Cognitive delay
B. Feeding challenge
112
Poor weight gain (failure to thrive) falls under:
A. Feeding challenges
B. Cognitive delays
C. Social delays
D. Sleep issues
A. Feeding challenges
113
Significant difficulty falling or staying asleep unrelated to typical sleep regressions is considered:
A. Cognitive delay
B. Feeding issue
C. Sleeping challenge
D. Sensory processing issue
C. Sleeping challenge
114
Extreme resistance to napping or bedtime is categorized as:
A. Feeding difficulty
B. Social delay
C. Sleeping challenge
D. Cognitive delay
C. Sleeping challenge
115
Loss of previously acquired skills is considered a:
A. Sensory issue only
B. General sign of developmental concern
C. Feeding challenge
D. Typical milestone
B. General sign of developmental concern
116
Lack of response to stimuli is classified as a:
A. General sign of developmental concern
B. Sleep challenge
C. Feeding issue
D. Object permanence milestone
A. General sign of developmental concern
117
Repetitive behaviors are categorized under:
A. Feeding challenges
B. Sensory issues only
C. General signs of developmental concern
D. Sleep disturbances
C. General signs of developmental concern
118
Extreme inflexibility or difficulty with change is considered a:
A. General developmental concern
B. Feeding problem
C. Sleep regression
D. Typical toddler behavior
A. General developmental concern
119
difficulty understanding spoken language, following instructions, or comprehending stories. They might appear to not hear or understand what’s being said
A. Receptive Language
B. Expressive Language
C. Articulation/Phonological Disorders
D. Fluency Disorders (Stuttering)
A. Receptive Language
120
Limited vocabulary for their age, difficulty forming sentences, struggling to articulate thoughts, using immature grammar, or having trouble telling a coherent story
A. Receptive Language
B. Expressive Language
C. Articulation/Phonological Disorders
D. Fluency Disorders (Stuttering)
B. Expressive Language
121
difficulty producing certain sounds correctly (“w” for “r,” “th” for “s”), making their speech hard to understand
A. Receptive Language
B. Expressive Language
C. Articulation/Phonological Disorders
D. Fluency Disorders (Stuttering)
C. Articulation/Phonological Disorders
122
repetition of sounds, syllables, or words; prolongations of sounds; or blocks in speech
A. Receptive Language
B. Expressive Language
C. Articulation/Phonological Disorders
D. Fluency Disorders (Stuttering)
D. Fluency Disorders (Stuttering)
123
Struggling to make friends or interact with peers
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
124
Limited eye contact or responsiveness to others
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
125
Difficulty sharing, taking turns, or understanding social cues
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
126
Frequent and intense temper tantrums that are disproportionate to the situation
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
127
Difficulty managing frustration, anger, and sadness
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
128
Excessive shyness, withdrawal, or anxiety in social situations
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
129
Lack of empathy or understanding of others’ feelings
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
130
Difficulty reorganizing letters,
numbers, shapes, or colors
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
C. Pre-Academic Skills
131
Struggling with early counting or one-to-one correspondence
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
C. Pre-Academic Skills
132
Challenges with sorting sequence, or pattering
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
C. Pre-Academic Skills
133
Short attention span, easily distracted, or difficulty focusing on tasks
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
D. Attention and Memory
134
Trouble remembering routines, instructions, or recently learned information
A. Difficult with Social Interaction
B. Emotional Regulation Issues
C. Pre-Academic Skills
D. Attention and Memory
D. Attention and Memory
135
Struggling to figure out how to do simple tasks or puzzles
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
A. Problem-Solving
136
Difficulty adapting to new situations
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
A. Problem-Solving
137
Clumsiness, poor balance, difficulty with activities like running, jumping, hopping, or throwing/catching
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
138
Poor hand-eye coordination
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
139
Difficulty with pre-writing skills (holding a crayon/pencil correctly, drawing basic shapes)
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
140
Struggling with cutting with scissors, zipping zippers, buttoning clothes, or manipulating small objects
A. Problem-Solving
B. Gross Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
C. Fine Motor Skills Challenge
141
frequent hitting, biting, kicking, or destructive behavior
A. Aggression
B. Defiance and Non-Compliance
C. Impulsivity
D. Hyperactivity
A. Aggression
142
consistently refusing to follow rules or instructions, frequent power struggles
A. Aggression
B. Defiance and Non-Compliance
C. Impulsivity
D. Hyperactivity
B. Defiance and Non-Compliance
143
acting without thinking, difficulty waiting their turn, interrupting others constantly
A. Aggression
B. Defiance and Non-Compliance
C. Impulsivity
D. Hyperactivity
C. Impulsivity
144
excessive restlessness, difficulty sitting still, constantly “on the go”
A. Aggression
B. Defiance and Non-Compliance
C. Impulsivity
D. Hyperactivity
D. Hyperactivity
145
over-reacting to sounds, textures (e.g., certain clothes or foods), lights, or smells
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Hyposensitivity
C. Difficulty with Regulation
A. Hypersensitivity
146
under-reacting to pain, seeking intense sensory input (e.g., crashing into things, constant spinning)
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Hyposensitivity
C. Difficulty with Regulation
B. Hyposensitivity
147
becoming overwhelmed or shutting down in sensory-rich environments
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Hyposensitivity
C. Difficulty with Regulation
C. Difficulty with Regulation
148
difficulty with reading, including decoding words, reading fluency, and comprehension
A. Dyslexia
B. Dysgraphia
C. Dyscalculia
A. Dyslexia
149
difficulty with writing, including handwriting, spelling, and organizing written thoughts
A. Dyslexia
B. Dysgraphia
C. Dyscalculia
B. Dysgraphia
150
difficulty with math concepts, calculations, and problem-solving
A. Dyslexia
B. Dysgraphia
C. Dyscalculia
C. Dyscalculia
151
challenges with sustained attention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity, which can significantly impact classroom learning and task completion
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B. Executive Functioning Difficulties
C. Motivation and Engagement Issues
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
152
problems with planning, organizing, task initiation, working memory, and self-regulation. These skills are crucial for academic success and independent functioning
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B. Executive Functioning Difficulties
C. Motivation and Engagement Issues
B. Executive Functioning Difficulties
153
children may struggle with a lack of interest in school, fear of failure, or a perceived inability to keep up with peers, leading to avoidance or disengagement
A. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B. Executive Functioning Difficulties
C. Motivation and Engagement Issues
C. Motivation and Engagement Issues
154
children may struggle with the desire to fit in, leading to difficulties resisting negative peer influences or making choices that go against their values
A. Peer Pressure and Conformity
B. Bullying
C. Social Skill Deficits
D. Anxiety Disorders
A. Peer Pressure and Conformity
155
Have profound and lasting negative impacts on a child’s emotional well-being, self-esteem, and social development.
A. Peer Pressure and Conformity
B. Bullying
C. Social Skill Deficits
D. Anxiety Disorders
B. Bullying
156
some children may struggle to read social cues, initiate conversations, resolve conflicts, or understand the nuances of friendship, leading to social isolation or difficulties maintaining relationships
A. Peer Pressure and Conformity
B. Bullying
C. Social Skill Deficits
D. Anxiety Disorders
C. Social Skill Deficits
157
as children become more aware of the world around them, they may develop specific anxieties that interfere with daily life and school attendance
A. Peer Pressure and Conformity
B. Bullying
C. Social Skill Deficits
D. Anxiety Disorders
D. Anxiety Disorders
158
less common than in adolescence; persistent sadness, loss of interest in activities, changes in sleep or appetite, irritability, and feelings of worthlessness
A. Depression
B. Low Self-Esteem
C. Emotional Regulation
A. Depression
159
comparisons with peers, academic struggles, or social difficulties can contribute to a negative self-image and a sense of inferiority (Erikson’s “Industry vs. Inferiority” stage)
A. Depression
B. Low Self-Esteem
C. Emotional Regulation
B. Low Self-Esteem
160
while improving, some children may still struggle with managing strong emotions, leading to frequent outbursts, irritability, or withdrawal
A. Depression
B. Low Self-Esteem
C. Emotional Regulation
C. Emotional Regulation
161
persistent patterns of uncooperative, defiant, and hostile behavior toward authority figures
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Risk-Taking Behaviors
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
162
more severe patterns of aggressive, destructive, deceitful, or rule-violating behaviors that disregard the rights of others (often diagnosed in adolescence, but early signs can appear)
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Risk-Taking Behaviors
B. Conduct Disorder
163
as independence grows, some children may engage in more risky behaviors, sometimes due to peer influence or a desire for novelty
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Risk-Taking Behaviors
C. Risk-Taking Behaviors
164
can lead to physical health problems (diabetes, cardiovascular issues) and psychological distress (low self-esteem, bullying)
A. Obesity
B. Body Image Concerns
C. Chronic Health Conditions
D. Motor Skill Difficulties
A. Obesity
165
as puberty approaches, children become more aware of their changing bodies and may develop insecurities or disordered eating patterns
A. Obesity
B. Body Image Concerns
C. Chronic Health Conditions
D. Motor Skill Difficulties
B. Body Image Concerns
166
managing conditions like asthma, allergies, diabetes, or other chronic illnesses can impact school attendance, participation in activities, and social integration
A. Obesity
B. Body Image Concerns
C. Chronic Health Conditions
D. Motor Skill Difficulties
C. Chronic Health Conditions
167
some children may still struggle with coordination (e.g., Developmental Coordination Disorder) or fine motor tasks required for writing and crafts
A. Obesity
B. Body Image Concerns
C. Chronic Health Conditions
D. Motor Skill Difficulties
D. Motor Skill Difficulties
168
parental separation, ongoing conflict, or unstable home environments can lead to emotional distress, behavioral problems, and academic difficulties
A. Family Conflict/Divorce
B. Poverty and Socioeconomic Disadvantage
C. Trauma and Adverse Childhood Experiences
D. Excessive Screen Time/Technology Use
A. Family Conflict/Divorce
169
lack of resources, stress within the family, and limited access to enriching experiences can negatively affect development
A. Family Conflict/Divorce
B. Poverty and Socioeconomic Disadvantage
C. Trauma and Adverse Childhood Experiences
D. Excessive Screen Time/Technology Use
B. Poverty and Socioeconomic Disadvantage
170
experiences like abuse, neglect, or exposure to violence can have profound and lasting impacts on a child’s mental health, behavior, and ability to learn
A. Family Conflict/Divorce
B. Poverty and Socioeconomic Disadvantage
C. Trauma and Adverse Childhood Experiences
D. Excessive Screen Time/Technology Use
C. Trauma and Adverse Childhood Experiences
171
can contribute to issues with attention, sleep, social skills, and physical activity if not managed appropriately
A. Family Conflict/Divorce
B. Poverty and Socioeconomic Disadvantage
C. Trauma and Adverse Childhood Experiences
D. Excessive Screen Time/Technology Use
D. Excessive Screen Time/Technology Use
172
In Erik Erikson’s stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion, adolescents intensely explore which of the following?
A. Motor coordination and reflexes
B. Values, beliefs, sexual identity, career aspirations, and social roles
C. Childhood attachments and object permanence
D. Language acquisition and phonemic awareness
B. Values, beliefs, sexual identity, career aspirations, and social roles
173
Intense exploration of identity during adolescence can lead to:
A. A stable and fixed sense of self with no doubts
B. Complete emotional detachment from peers
C. Confusion, experimentation, and uncertainty about where one fits in
D. Immediate clarity about long-term goals
C. Confusion, experimentation, and uncertainty about where one fits in
174
A central struggle in adolescence involves balancing:
A. Academic success and extracurricular activities
B. Independence from parents and continued need for support and connection
C. Friendships and romantic relationships
D. Physical growth and emotional stability
B. Independence from parents and continued need for support and connection
175
Increased peer importance during adolescence primarily affects:
A. Financial decision-making
B. Dietary requirements
C. Identity development
D. Genetic predispositions
C. Identity development
176
Peer pressure during adolescence may result in:
A. Greater emotional detachment
B. Improved executive functioning
C. Guaranteed academic success
D. Conforming to unhealthy norms or engaging in risky behaviors
D. Conforming to unhealthy norms or engaging in risky behaviors
177
Puberty is characterized by:
A. Gradual and perfectly synchronized physical development
B. Rapid and often asynchronous physical changes
C. A halt in growth and development
D. Immediate emotional maturity
B. Rapid and often asynchronous physical changes
178
Rapid physical changes during puberty may lead to:
A. Self-consciousness and concerns about normalcy
B. Permanent social withdrawal
C. Complete self-acceptance
D. Elimination of peer comparison
A. Self-consciousness and concerns about normalcy
179
Adolescents are highly susceptible to societal beauty standards, often fueled by:
A. Family traditions
B. Religious institutions
C. Social media
D. Academic curricula
C. Social media
180
Negative body image in adolescence may contribute to the development of:
A. Attention-deficit disorders
B. Personality disorders
C. Speech impairments
D. Eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa
D. Eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa
181
Developing significantly earlier or later than peers can affect:
A. Eye color and height permanently
B. Social acceptance and self-perception
C. Intelligence quotient
D. Language fluency
B. Social acceptance and self-perception
182
The ability to think abstractly, critically, and hypothetically during adolescence may also lead to:
A. Decreased curiosity
B. Overthinking, idealism, and challenging authority
C. Elimination of emotional responses
D. Reduced imagination
B. Overthinking, idealism, and challenging authority
183
The “imaginary audience” refers to:
A. Believing one is destined for greatness
B. Feeling constantly scrutinized by others
C. Performing regularly in front of peers
D. Imagining fictional companions
B. Feeling constantly scrutinized by others
184
The “personal fable” involves the belief that one is:
A. Constantly judged by others
B. Socially invisible
C. Unique and invincible
D. Academically superior
C. Unique and invincible
185
Belief in personal invincibility may increase:
A. Risk-taking behaviors
B. Academic discipline
C. Sleep quality
D. Family bonding
A. Risk-taking behaviors
186
The prefrontal cortex is responsible for:
A. Reflex actions only
B. Digestive processes
C. Visual acuity
D. Executive functions like planning and impulse control
D. Executive functions like planning and impulse control
187
Because the prefrontal cortex is still maturing during adolescence, individuals may demonstrate:
A. Perfect judgment in all situations
B. Impulsivity and poor decision-making
C. Complete emotional suppression
D. Fully developed long-term planning
B. Impulsivity and poor decision-making
188
Increased academic demands and standardized testing can result in:
A. Guaranteed career clarity
B. Reduced cognitive growth
C. Stress, anxiety, and burnout
D. Improved sleep patterns
C. Stress, anxiety, and burnout
189
Challenges in peer relationships during adolescence include:
A. Permanent isolation from all social groups
B. Automatic social acceptance
C. Lack of emotional intensity
D. Managing conflicts and dealing with social exclusion
D. Managing conflicts and dealing with social exclusion
190
The emergence of romantic interests in adolescence introduces:
A. No change in emotional experiences
B. Emotional intensity and potential for heartbreak or jealousy
C. Immediate relationship stability
D. Elimination of peer influence
B. Emotional intensity and potential for heartbreak or jealousy
191
Increased arguments with parents during adolescence often occur because adolescents:
A. Lose the ability to communicate
B. No longer value family relationships
C. Test boundaries and assert autonomy
D. Forget family rules
C. Test boundaries and assert autonomy
192
Bullying and cyberbullying can negatively affect:
A. Only physical health
B. Self-esteem, mental health, and academic performance
C. Genetic development
D. Puberty timing
B. Self-esteem, mental health, and academic performance
193
The pervasive nature of social media can intensify the effects of:
A. Language acquisition
B. Growth spurts
C. Bullying
D. Reflex development
C. Bullying
194
Fear of missing out (FOMO) is associated with:
A. Reduced academic expectations
B. Social media pressures
C. Physical maturation timing
D. Executive functioning development
B. Social media pressures
195
Constant exposure to curated “perfect” lives online may impact adolescents’:
A. Blood type
B. Genetic traits
C. Height
D. Mental health and self-esteem
D. Mental health and self-esteem
196
Social media pressures can also disrupt adolescents’:
A. Sleep patterns
B. Eye color
C. Bone density
D. Reflex responses
A. Sleep patterns
197
As adolescent egocentrism diminishes, it may still manifest in which two ways?
A. Imaginary audience and personal fable
B. Abstract thinking and impulse control
C. Peer acceptance and academic achievement
D. Puberty and growth spurts
A. Imaginary audience and personal fable
198
Early or late maturation compared to peers can be a source of:
A. Guaranteed popularity
B. Emotional neutrality
C. Distress
D. Improved athletic skill
C. Distress
199
Academic pressure during adolescence is often related to preparation for:
A. Early retirement
B. College or careers
C. Childhood milestones
D. Retirement planning
B. College or careers
200
Romantic relationships during adolescence may involve the potential for:
A. Exploitation
B. Financial independence
C. Political influence
D. Professional advancement
A. Exploitation
201
Adolescents’ tendency to challenge authority is linked to their development of:
A. Reflexive thinking
B. Abstract and critical thinking abilities
C. Physical coordination
D. Emotional detachment
B. Abstract and critical thinking abilities
202
Which of the following best describes depression?
A. Excessive fear of specific objects or situations
B. Persistent sadness, loss of interest, irritability, changes in sleep/appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal thoughts
C. Experimentation with substances due to curiosity
D. Engaging in vandalism or petty crime
B. Persistent sadness, loss of interest, irritability, changes in sleep/appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal thoughts
203
Anxiety disorders may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Generalized anxiety
B. Social anxiety
C. Panic disorder
D. Bipolar disorder
D. Bipolar disorder
204
Eating disorders commonly emerging during adolescence include:
A. Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder
B. Panic disorder, depression, and generalized anxiety
C. Social anxiety, substance abuse, and self-harm
D. Reckless driving, unsafe sexual practices, and delinquency
A. Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder
205
Eating disorders in adolescence are often driven by:
A. Academic competition
B. Peer distraction
C. Body image concerns and control issues
D. Political polarization
C. Body image concerns and control issues
206
Self-harm refers to:
A. Law-breaking behaviors such as vandalism
B. Self-injurious behaviors like cutting or burning as a coping mechanism for intense emotional pain
C. Unsafe sexual practices
D. Reckless driving due to inexperience
B. Self-injurious behaviors like cutting or burning as a coping mechanism for intense emotional pain
207
Substance abuse in adolescence is commonly driven by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Peer pressure
B. Curiosity
C. Desire for sensation-seeking
D. Genetic mutation
D. Genetic mutation
208
Suicidal ideation and attempts during adolescence are often linked to:
A. Untreated mental health conditions, bullying, trauma, and feelings of hopelessness
B. Career satisfaction and academic success
C. Improved family relationships
D. Political stability
A. Untreated mental health conditions, bullying, trauma, and feelings of hopelessness
209
Unsafe sexual practices can lead to:
A. Panic disorder and phobias
B. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and unintended pregnancies
C. Academic achievement
D. Reduced peer pressure
B. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and unintended pregnancies
210
Reckless driving among adolescents is often due to:
A. Extensive driving experience
B. Careful planning
C. Inexperience, impulsivity, and peer distractions
D. Career pressure
C. Inexperience, impulsivity, and peer distractions
211
Delinquency and law breaking among adolescents may include:
A. College applications
B. Petty crime, vandalism, or other rule-breaking behaviors
C. Anxiety about climate change
D. Eating disorders
B. Petty crime, vandalism, or other rule-breaking behaviors
212
Academic and future pressure may stem from:
A. Recreational activities
B. Driving lessons
C. College applications, career choices, and the pressure to succeed
D. Sensation-seeking behavior
C. College applications, career choices, and the pressure to succeed
213
Family stressors may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Parental conflict
B. Divorce
C. Economic hardship
D. Peer curiosity
D. Peer curiosity
214
Trauma can involve:
A. College entrance exams
B. Abuse, accidents, or violence
C. Sensation-seeking activities
D. Career planning
B. Abuse, accidents, or violence
215
Societal issues that may weigh heavily on adolescents include:
A. Climate change anxiety, political polarization, and global crises
B. Eating patterns and appetite changes only
C. Driving skills development
D. Petty classroom disagreements
A. Climate change anxiety, political polarization, and global crises
216
Which mental health challenge involves feelings of worthlessness and changes in sleep or appetite?
A. Substance abuse
B. Depression
C. Delinquency
D. Unsafe sexual practices
B. Depression
217
Generalized anxiety, social anxiety, panic disorder, and specific phobias fall under:
A. Eating disorders
B. Risky behaviors
C. Anxiety disorders
D. Family stressors
C. Anxiety disorders
218
Experimentation with alcohol, nicotine, marijuana, and other drugs during adolescence is categorized as:
A. Self-harm
B. Trauma
C. Substance abuse
D. Reckless driving
C. Substance abuse
219
Which of the following is considered a risky behavior?
A. Binge eating disorder
B. Unsafe sexual practices
C. Depression
D. Trauma exposure
B. Unsafe sexual practices
220
Which external stressor relates directly to parental conflict and divorce?
A. Trauma
B. Academic pressure
C. Family stressors
D. Societal issues
C. Family stressors
221
Experiencing or witnessing abuse, accidents, or violence can have profound and lasting impacts on:
A. Driving skills only
B. Adolescent development and mental health
C. College admission chances
D. Peer popularity
B. Adolescent development and mental health
222
Which best describes identity refinement in young adulthood?
A. Abandoning adolescent beliefs entirely
B. Exploring multiple identities without commitment
C. Solidifying one’s sense of self in the context of real-world choices
D. Relying primarily on parental expectations
C. Solidifying one’s sense of self in the context of real-world choices
223
Identity formation in young adulthood may involve:
A. Permanent certainty about all life decisions
B. Periods of uncertainty or existential questioning
C. Immediate clarity in career and relationships
D. Avoidance of real-world responsibilities
B. Periods of uncertainty or existential questioning
224
Career identity includes:
A. Selecting hobbies unrelated to income
B. Avoiding professional commitments
C. Prioritizing personal relationships over employment
D. Choosing a career path and establishing oneself professionally
D. Choosing a career path and establishing oneself professionally
225
A major source of stress in career identity development is:
A. Guaranteed job placement
B. Economic uncertainties and evolving industries
C. Lack of educational opportunities
D. Early retirement planning
B. Economic uncertainties and evolving industries
226
Finding work that is both personally fulfilling and financially stable is part of:
A. Relationship identity
B. Budgeting and saving
C. Career identity
D. Debt management
C. Career identity
227
Relationship identity involves:
A. Avoiding serious commitments
B. Remaining socially independent at all times
C. Defining oneself exclusively outside relationships
D. Moving from casual dating to more serious commitments
D. Moving from casual dating to more serious commitments
228
Managing loan debt and credit loan debt is a challenge under:
A. Financial independence and management
B. Identity refinement
C. Parenthood
D. Relationship challenges
A. Financial independence and management
229
Learning to budget, pay bills, and manage expenses is associated with:
A. Career exploration
B. Budgeting and saving
C. Existential questioning
D. Emotional maturity
B. Budgeting and saving
230
Saving for significant life goals such as a down payment on a house or retirement is part of:
A. Debt management
B. Relationship identity
C. Budgeting and saving
D. Unemployment
C. Budgeting and saving
231
Unemployment or underemployment may lead to:
A. Increased emotional maturity
B. Financial strain and stress
C. Immediate financial independence
D. Reduced cost of living
B. Financial strain and stress
232
High housing costs primarily affect:
A. Relationship communication
B. Identity solidification
C. Achievement of financial independence
D. Career exploration
C. Achievement of financial independence
233
Forming lasting bonds requires:
A. Emotional maturity, communication skills, and compromise
B. Complete financial independence before dating
C. Elimination of individuality
D. Avoidance of conflict
A. Emotional maturity, communication skills, and compromise
234
Moving beyond casual relationships toward marriage or cohabitation falls under:
A. Budgeting and saving
B. Forming lasting bonds
C. Debt management
D. Cost of living
B. Forming lasting bonds
235
Maintaining individuality within a relationship is part of:
A. Career identity
B. Relationship challenges
C. Parenthood
D. Unemployment
B. Relationship challenges
236
Jealousy and trust issues are examples of:
A. Identity refinement
B. Financial strain
C. Relationship challenges
D. Existential questioning
C. Relationship challenges
237
Becoming a parent may result in:
A. Reduced responsibility
B. Fewer financial obligations
C. Increased leisure time
D. A complete reordering of priorities and lifestyle
D. A complete reordering of priorities and lifestyle
238
Parenthood often introduces:
A. Sleep deprivation and financial strain
B. Guaranteed financial stability
C. Reduced emotional demands
D. Elimination of identity changes
A. Sleep deprivation and financial strain
239
Parenthood can lead to:
A. Career stagnation only
B. Identity shifts
C. Decreased responsibility
D. Immediate financial independence
B. Identity shifts
240
Societal pressure to couple up is associated with:
A. Career identity
B. Singlehood or loneliness
C. Debt management
D. Budgeting and saving
B. Singlehood or loneliness
241
Feelings of loneliness in young adulthood may be connected to:
A. Financial mismanagement
B. Career uncertainty
C. Singlehood without long-term relationships
D. Identity solidification
C. Singlehood without long-term relationships
242
Establishing oneself professionally is directly related to:
A. Relationship identity
B. Career identity
C. Parenthood
D. Cost of living
B. Career identity
243
Managing expenses and paying bills can be difficult due to:
A. Excessive leisure time
B. Immediate financial literacy
C. Lack of prior experience or guidance
D. Overconfidence in budgeting
C. Lack of prior experience or guidance
244
Blending lives within a partnership is considered part of:
A. Identity refinement
B. Relationship challenges
C. Unemployment
D. Cost of living
B. Relationship challenges
245
Economic uncertainties most directly impact:
A. Career identity development
B. Singlehood experiences
C. Sleep patterns
D. Parenting styles
A. Career identity development
246
The transition from casual dating to serious commitment reflects development in:
A. Debt management
B. Budgeting skills
C. Relationship identity
D. Unemployment management
C. Relationship identity
247
Which situation best reflects entry-level struggles?
A. Taking on leadership responsibilities in a senior executive role
B. Starting at the bottom of a career ladder with lower pay and long hours
C. Retiring early due to financial independence
D. Working part-time to avoid responsibility
B. Starting at the bottom of a career ladder with lower pay and long hours
248
Career exploration and changes are often described as:
A. Rare and discouraged among young adults
B. A sign of professional failure
C. Common and sometimes unsettling as individuals explore their interests and skills
D. Only necessary for those without formal education
C. Common and sometimes unsettling as individuals explore their interests and skills
249
Work-life balance challenges may lead to:
A. Immediate financial success
B. Burnout due to juggling career and personal life
C. Automatic job promotions
D. Reduced responsibilities at work
B. Burnout due to juggling career and personal life
250
Job security concerns may arise from:
A. Guaranteed lifetime employment
B. Increased vacation time
C. Economic downturns and automation
D. Early retirement programs
C. Economic downturns and automation
251
Which of the following is listed as a common anxiety disorder?
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Generalized anxiety
D. Dissociative identity disorder
C. Generalized anxiety
252
Depression may result from:
A. Having too many hobbies
B. The weight of new responsibilities and financial struggles
C. Excessive vacation time
D. Overconfidence in career decisions
B. The weight of new responsibilities and financial struggles
253
Substance abuse may continue or escalate as a:
A. Celebration of independence
B. Required part of adulthood
C. Coping mechanism for stress or undiagnosed mental health conditions
D. Way to improve workplace performance
C. Coping mechanism for stress or undiagnosed mental health conditions
254
Stress management during independent adult life involves:
A. Avoiding all responsibility
B. Learning effective coping mechanisms
C. Ignoring financial obligations
D. Reducing social interactions permanently
B. Learning effective coping mechanisms
255
A “Quarter-Life Crisis” often includes feelings of:
A. Complete certainty about life decisions
B. Being lost, trapped, or behind peers
C. Guaranteed career success
D. Total emotional detachment
B. Being lost, trapped, or behind peers
256
The “Quarter-Life Crisis” typically occurs during:
A. Early teenage years
B. Mid-20s to early 30s
C. Late 40s
D. Retirement age
B. Mid-20s to early 30s
257
Leaving home for the first time may involve:
A. Only financial advantages
B. Emotional and practical challenges
C. Immediate independence without difficulty
D. No change in daily responsibilities
B. Emotional and practical challenges
258
Redefining relationships with parents involves shifting to:
A. A stricter parent-child dynamic
B. Complete separation with no contact
C. An adult-to-adult relationship
D. Financial dependency
C. An adult-to-adult relationship
259
“Boomerang Kids” refers to young adults who:
A. Travel frequently for work
B. Start businesses from home
C. Return to live with their parents due to challenges
D. Volunteer in community programs
C. Return to live with their parents due to challenges
260
Maintaining friendships can be difficult because:
A. Technology eliminates communication
B. People move for college or jobs
C. Friendships are no longer important in adulthood
D. Social media prevents reconnection
B. People move for college or jobs
261
Forming new connections often requires effort because:
A. Academic environments no longer structure social interaction
B. Friendships are assigned by employers
C. Cities prohibit social gatherings
D. Technology replaces face-to-face interaction entirely
A. Academic environments no longer structure social interaction
262
Loneliness and isolation may occur even though young adults are:
A. Completely disconnected from technology
B. Financially secure
C. Highly connected through technology
D. Living exclusively in rural areas
C. Highly connected through technology
263
Practical life skills include:
A. Writing novels and composing music
B. Cooking, cleaning, and managing appointments
C. Supervising corporate mergers
D. Teaching graduate-level courses
B. Cooking, cleaning, and managing appointments
264
Emotional maturity involves developing:
A. Greater emotional intelligence and resilience
B. Dependence on others for decisions
C. Avoidance of conflict at all costs
D. Total emotional suppression
A. Greater emotional intelligence and resilience
265
Civic engagement includes:
A. Avoiding political discussions
B. Participating in voting and community involvement
C. Refusing to follow local regulations
D. Focusing only on personal finances
B. Participating in voting and community involvement
266
Economic volatility may contribute to:
A. A completely stable job market
B. Increased predictability in employment
C. A less stable job market than previous generations
D. Guaranteed long-term employment contracts
C. A less stable job market than previous generations
267
menopause is not a single event; it is a process
A. Menopausal Transition
B. Perimenopause
C. Menopause
A. Menopausal Transition
268
time before menopause when ovarian function begins to decline, leading to irregular periods and other symptoms
A. Menopausal Transition
B. Perimenopause
C. Menopause
B. Perimenopause
269
final menstrual period, marking the end of a woman's reproductive years which also includes hormonal changes can lead to hot flashes, sleep disturbances, mood swings, and other symptoms
A. Menopausal Transition
B. Perimenopause
C. Menopause
C. Menopause
270
years following menopause
A. Postmenopause
B. Andropause
C. Declining Physical Stamina
A. Postmenopause
271
while less dramatic than menopause, men may experience a decline in testosterone levels, leading to changes in energy, mood, and sexual function
A. Postmenopause
B. Andropause
C. Declining Physical Stamina
B. Andropause
272
noticeable decreases in energy levels, strength, and endurance, which can impact participation in physical activities
A. Postmenopause
B. Andropause
C. Declining Physical Stamina
C. Declining Physical Stamina
273
Which situation best describes career plateauing or stagnation in middle adulthood?
A. Frequently changing industries to explore new interests
B. Feeling stuck in a job with limited advancement and a sense of having reached one’s peak
C. Taking early retirement due to financial security
D. Accepting a temporary job during an economic downturn
B. Feeling stuck in a job with limited advancement and a sense of having reached one’s peak
274
Job loss or redundancy in middle adulthood can be particularly devastating primarily because:
A. Most individuals lack work experience
B. It usually happens without warning in early adulthood
C. Middle adults often have established financial commitments
D. It automatically leads to permanent unemployment
C. Middle adults often have established financial commitments
275
Which of the following best characterizes a mid-career transition?
A. Refusing promotions to reduce stress
B. Continuing in the same job despite dissatisfaction
C. Reducing work hours without changing roles
D. Undertaking a significant career change, including shifts in industry
D. Undertaking a significant career change, including shifts in industry
276
Burnout in middle adulthood is most closely associated with:
A. Sudden unemployment
B. Prolonged stress from demanding jobs
C. A lack of formal education
D. Increased leisure time
B. Prolonged stress from demanding jobs
277
Adapting to technological changes may be especially challenging for individuals who:
A. Frequently change jobs
B. Recently graduated from college
C. Have been in the same field for a long time
D. Work in creative industries
C. Have been in the same field for a long time
278
The term “Sandwich Generation” refers to middle adults who:
A. Work multiple part-time jobs
B. Simultaneously care for aging parents and support their children
C. Experience financial independence from family
D. Live in multigenerational households by choice
B. Simultaneously care for aging parents and support their children
279
A major consequence of “Sandwich Generation” pressure may include:
A. Increased leisure opportunities
B. Reduced family interaction
C. Elimination of financial responsibilities
D. Significant stress, financial strain, and time constraints
D. Significant stress, financial strain, and time constraints
280
Empty Nest Syndrome may occur when:
A. Couples adopt children later in life
B. Parents relocate for employment
C. Children leave home for college or independent living
D. Grandparents move into the household
C. Children leave home for college or independent living
281
Emotional responses to children leaving home may include:
A. Only excitement and relief
B. Sadness, loneliness, or a loss of purpose
C. Complete detachment from children
D. Immediate retirement from work
B. Sadness, loneliness, or a loss of purpose
282
Marital or partner relationship re-evaluation during middle adulthood often happens when:
A. Financial stability is achieved
B. Health problems emerge
C. Children are grown or less dependent
D. Couples relocate to a new city
C. Children are grown or less dependent
283
“Gray divorce” refers to:
A. Divorce caused by financial disagreements
B. Divorce that occurs during middle adulthood
C. Divorce following retirement
D. Divorce after a short-term marriage
B. Divorce that occurs during middle adulthood
284
Caregiving for aging parents may involve:
A. Planning vacations for extended family
B. Managing their health, finances, and living arrangements
C. Providing occasional transportation only
D. Encouraging independent relocation abroad
B. Managing their health, finances, and living arrangements
285
Taking on increasing caregiving responsibilities for elderly parents can be:
A. Emotionally and physically taxing
B. Financially rewarding
C. Socially isolating but physically easy
D. A temporary inconvenience without long-term effects
A. Emotionally and physically taxing
286
Changes in friendships during middle adulthood may occur because:
A. All friendships naturally dissolve
B. Legal obligations end social connections
C. Priorities shift, friends move away, or new interests emerge
D. Middle adults avoid forming new relationships
C. Priorities shift, friends move away, or new interests emerge
287
Visible signs of aging may include:
A. Increased height and muscle mass
B. Fewer health concerns
C. Greater physical endurance
D. Wrinkles, gray hair, weight gain, and changes in metabolism
D. Wrinkles, gray hair, weight gain, and changes in metabolism
288
Noticing visible signs of aging may lead to:
A. Career advancement
B. Body image concerns and a sense of declining youthfulness
C. Increased peer approval
D. Automatic lifestyle improvements
B. Body image concerns and a sense of declining youthfulness
289
Middle adulthood is associated with an increased likelihood of developing chronic conditions such as:
A. Asthma only
B. Short-term infections
C. High blood pressure, diabetes, heart disease, arthritis, or cancer
D. Seasonal allergies exclusively
C. High blood pressure, diabetes, heart disease, arthritis, or cancer
290
During middle adulthood, regular health screenings become more critical because:
A. Physical growth is still ongoing
B. Individuals are more likely to change careers
C. Travel becomes more frequent
D. The risk of chronic health conditions increases
D. The risk of chronic health conditions increases
291
The climacteric refers to:
A. A sudden illness during middle adulthood
B. The entire period of hormonal and biological changes as a woman's reproductive system ages and ceases to function
C. A specific chronic disease
D. A psychological response to empty nesting
B. The entire period of hormonal and biological changes as a woman's reproductive system ages and ceases to function
292
Which situation best illustrates burnout?
A. Exploring a new career path for personal fulfillment
B. Managing aging parents’ finances
C. Emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion from prolonged job stress
D. Feeling lonely after children leave home
C. Emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion from prolonged job stress
293
Which of the following is both a family and time-related challenge in middle adulthood?
A. Career plateauing
B. Adapting to technological changes
C. “Sandwich Generation” pressure
D. Visible signs of aging
C. “Sandwich Generation” pressure
294
Which challenge specifically involves keeping up with new skills?
A. Burnout
B. Adapting to technological changes
C. Empty Nest Syndrome
D. Gray divorce
B. Adapting to technological changes
295
A sense of searching for new meaning in work is most closely associated with:
A. Job loss
B. Career plateauing
C. Climacteric
D. Caregiving for aging parents
B. Career plateauing
296
Which of the following may occur when couples grow apart after re-evaluating their relationship?
A. Adoption of new hobbies
B. Mid-career transition
C. Potential divorce
D. Increased caregiving responsibilities
C. Potential divorce
297
Which statement best describes a midlife crisis (or midlife transition)?
A. A sudden and unavoidable psychological breakdown during middle adulthood
B. A dramatic event that always leads to major life changes
C. A significant period of self-reflection and re-evaluation of life, goals, and accomplishments
D. A decline in cognitive abilities that disrupts daily functioning
C. A significant period of self-reflection and re-evaluation of life, goals, and accomplishments
298
During a midlife transition, individuals are most likely to:
A. Question past choices and contemplate future directions
B. Experience permanent memory loss
C. Lose interest in personal goals entirely
D. Avoid thinking about their future
A. Question past choices and contemplate future directions
299
Sense of time urgency is characterized by:
A. Indifference toward future plans
B. An increased awareness of finite time
C. A decrease in motivation to achieve goals
D. A belief that there is unlimited time to accomplish tasks
B. An increased awareness of finite time
300
An increased desire to pursue neglected passions is most closely associated with:
A. Stress and burnout
B. Generativity
C. Coping with unfulfilled dreams
D. Sense of time urgency
D. Sense of time urgency
301
Experiencing the death of parents, older relatives, or friends may lead to:
A. Greater financial independence
B. Increased awareness of one’s own mortality
C. Immediate cognitive decline
D. Decreased emotional sensitivity
B. Increased awareness of one’s own mortality
302
Dealing with loss and grief during midlife can be described as:
A. A minor inconvenience with little emotional impact
B. A challenge that eliminates personal goals
C. A profound challenge that heightens awareness of mortality
D. A predictable decline in crystallized intelligence
C. A profound challenge that heightens awareness of mortality
303
Juggling multiple roles such as parent, spouse, employee, and caregiver can result in:
A. Enhanced fluid intelligence
B. Chronic stress, anxiety, and depression
C. Complete emotional detachment
D. Increased leisure time
B. Chronic stress, anxiety, and depression
304
Stress and burnout are most directly linked to:
A. A strong sense of generativity
B. Questioning past achievements
C. Managing multiple demanding responsibilities
D. Improved short-term memory
C. Managing multiple demanding responsibilities
305
Generativity involves:
A. Avoiding involvement in community matters
B. A desire to withdraw from social responsibilities
C. Focusing only on personal accomplishments
D. Contributing to the next generation or mentoring others
D. Contributing to the next generation or mentoring others
306
A lack of generativity may lead to feelings of:
A. Stagnation or unfulfillment
B. Heightened excitement
C. Increased processing speed
D. Emotional indifference
A. Stagnation or unfulfillment
307
Coping with life’s unfulfilled dreams includes:
A. Ignoring current realities
B. Denying past aspirations
C. Finding satisfaction in present circumstances
D. Reversing all past decisions
C. Finding satisfaction in present circumstances
308
Coming to terms with dreams that may not have materialized primarily involves:
A. Increased fluid intelligence
B. Acceptance and adjustment
C. Total abandonment of goals
D. Withdrawal from family roles
B. Acceptance and adjustment
309
Fluid intelligence refers to:
A. Accumulated knowledge and vocabulary
B. Emotional regulation skills
C. Problem-solving ability and processing speed
D. Long-term memory retention
C. Problem-solving ability and processing speed
310
During midlife, fluid intelligence may:
A. Remain permanently fixed
B. Show a slight decline
C. Increase significantly
D. Disappear entirely
B. Show a slight decline
311
Crystallized intelligence is best described as:
A. The ability to solve new problems quickly
B. Accumulated knowledge, vocabulary, and experience
C. Short-term memory recall
D. Emotional resilience
B. Accumulated knowledge, vocabulary, and experience
312
In midlife, crystallized intelligence often:
A. Declines rapidly
B. Remains unstable
C. Grows or remains stable
D. Becomes irrelevant
C. Grows or remains stable
313
Minor changes in short-term memory during midlife are typically:
A. Indicative of serious cognitive decline
B. A normal occurrence and a potential source of worry
C. A sign of immediate neurological disease
D. Completely unrelated to aging
B. A normal occurrence and a potential source of worry
314
Memory concerns in midlife most commonly involve:
A. Long-term autobiographical memory loss
B. Complete inability to learn new information
C. Minor changes in short-term memory or recall
D. Loss of vocabulary
C. Minor changes in short-term memory or recall
315
Which pairing is correctly matched?
A. Fluid intelligence — accumulated vocabulary
B. Crystallized intelligence — processing speed
C. Generativity — mentoring others
D. Stress and burnout — increased leisure
C. Generativity — mentoring others
316
Increased awareness of finite time often motivates individuals to:
A. Delay all major decisions
B. Achieve remaining goals
C. Reduce personal ambitions
D. Withdraw from social roles
B. Achieve remaining goals
317
Feelings of stagnation are most closely associated with:
A. Excessive crystallized intelligence
B. Lack of generativity
C. Minor memory changes
D. Midlife transition reflection
B. Lack of generativity
318
Which situation best illustrates stress and burnout?
A. Mentoring a younger colleague
B. Learning new vocabulary words
C. Balancing work responsibilities with caregiving and parenting duties
D. Reflecting on past achievements
C. Balancing work responsibilities with caregiving and parenting duties
319
A midlife transition commonly involves:
A. Ignoring one’s accomplishments
B. Reevaluating life goals and achievements
C. Experiencing unavoidable depression
D. Permanent personality changes
B. Reevaluating life goals and achievements
320
Which cognitive ability is more likely to remain stable or increase during midlife?
A. Processing speed
B. Short-term recall
C. Fluid intelligence
D. Crystallized intelligence
D. Crystallized intelligence
[BLEPP] - DevPsych pt. 2
flashcards
Decks in class (3)
# Cards
