Part 3 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

Which statement best describes chronic health conditions in late adulthood?

A. Acute illnesses become more common but are easily resolved

B. Chronic diseases decrease but become more severe

C. There is an increased prevalence of chronic diseases, and managing multiple conditions and medications becomes significant

D. Only one chronic disease typically affects older adults at a time

C. There is an increased prevalence of chronic diseases, and managing multiple conditions and medications becomes significant

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Which of the following is included among the chronic diseases more prevalent in late adulthood?

A. Asthma
B. Arthritis
C. Influenza
D. Migraine

B. Arthritis

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Presbyopia refers to:

A. Gradual hearing loss

B. Loss of peripheral vision

C. Difficulty focusing on distant objects

D. Difficulty focusing on near objects

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Presbycusis is best described as:

A. Sudden total hearing loss

B. Gradual hearing loss

C. Ringing in the ears only

D. Inability to understand speech despite normal hearing

B. Gradual hearing loss

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Sensory impairments in late adulthood can impact:

A. Only communication

B. Only mobility

C. Communication, mobility, and social engagement

D. Memory and executive function exclusively

C. Communication, mobility, and social engagement

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Mobility issues in late adulthood may result from:

A. Increased bone density

B. Improved joint flexibility

C. Enhanced muscle strength

D. Decreased muscle strength and balance problems

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Reduced mobility in late adulthood increases the risk of:

A. Falls
B. Improved coordination
C. Increased appetite
D. Enhanced endurance

A. Falls

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Cognitive decline in late adulthood may involve challenges with:

A. Reflex speed only

B. Memory, processing speed, attention, and executive functions

C. Language development

D. Basic motor reflexes exclusively

B. Memory, processing speed, attention, and executive functions

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Which statement accurately reflects cognitive decline in late adulthood?

A. All older adults experience significant cognitive decline

B. Cognitive decline only affects attention

C. Significant cognitive decline is universal

D. Not all older adults experience significant cognitive decline

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Frailty is characterized by:

A. Increased energy and rapid walking speed

B. Weight gain and high physical activity

C. Unintentional weight loss, weakness, slow walking speed, and low physical activity

D. Strong resistance to stressors

C. Unintentional weight loss, weakness, slow walking speed, and low physical activity

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Frailty increases vulnerability to:

A. Minor inconveniences only
B. Stressors
C. Social gatherings
D. Nutritional supplements

B. Stressors

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Sleep disturbances in late adulthood commonly include:

A. Excessively long, restorative sleep

B. No changes in sleep patterns

C. Increased need for daytime sleep only

D. Difficulty falling or staying asleep and less restorative sleep

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Grief and loss in late adulthood may involve the loss of:

A. Only professional colleagues

B. Only distant relatives

C. Spouses, siblings, friends, and pets

D. Material possessions exclusively

C. Spouses, siblings, friends, and pets

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Repeated bereavement may lead to:

A. Improved resilience only

B. Prolonged grief, loneliness, and depression

C. Increased physical strength

D. Reduced emotional sensitivity

B. Prolonged grief, loneliness, and depression

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Depression and anxiety in some older adults may result from:

A. Exclusive biological aging processes

B. The cumulative effect of physical decline, loss, social isolation, and role changes

C. Increased leisure time alone

D. Decreased responsibilities only

B. The cumulative effect of physical decline, loss, social isolation, and role changes

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Loneliness and social isolation in late adulthood can result from:

A. Expanded social networks

B. Increased community involvement

C. Retirement, loss of loved ones, and reduced mobility

D. Improved transportation access

C. Retirement, loss of loved ones, and reduced mobility

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Loneliness in late adulthood has:

A. No significant consequences
B. Only emotional implications
C. Serious health implications
D. Benefits for independence

C. Serious health implications

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Retirement can contribute to:

A. Increased daily structure

B. Loss of professional identity and daily structure

C. Automatic development of new hobbies

D. Decreased need for purpose

B. Loss of professional identity and daily structure

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Maintaining a sense of purpose after retirement involves:

A. Avoiding new activities

B. Withdrawing from social engagement

C. Ignoring changes in identity

D. Finding new roles, hobbies, and ways to contribute

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Fear of dependence in late adulthood may stem from:

A. Increased physical strength

B. The prospect of losing independence and needing assistance with daily tasks

C. Expanded career opportunities

D. Reduced healthcare access only

B. The prospect of losing independence and needing assistance with daily tasks

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Moving into assisted living may be associated with:

A. Relief only

B. Increased autonomy

C. Anxiety and fear related to loss of independence

D. Improved physical endurance

C. Anxiety and fear related to loss of independence

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Coming to terms with mortality may involve:

A. Denial of aging

B. Reflection on life’s meaning and anxiety about death and dying

C. Ignoring thoughts about the future

D. Exclusive focus on physical health

B. Reflection on life’s meaning and anxiety about death and dying

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Ageism refers to:

A. Biological aging processes

B. Increased wisdom in older adults

C. Legal retirement policies

D. Discrimination or negative stereotypes based on age

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Ageism can negatively impact:

A. Self-esteem, job opportunities, and access to resources

B. Physical strength only

C. Dietary habits exclusively

D. Sleep duration

A. Self-esteem, job opportunities, and access to resources

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Managing multiple medications becomes significant primarily because of: A. Increased travel demands B. Social expectations C. The higher prevalence of chronic diseases D. Reduced healthcare access

C. The higher prevalence of chronic diseases

Which situation best illustrates a change in family dynamics during late adulthood? A. Older adults returning to full-time employment B. Adult children taking on caregiving roles C. Teenagers becoming financially independent D. Grandparents enrolling in college

B. Adult children taking on caregiving roles

Caregiver strain in late adulthood may involve which combination of difficulties? A. Social and recreational strain only B. Emotional strain only C. Emotional, physical, and financial strain D. Physical strain only

C. Emotional, physical, and financial strain

Maintaining social connections in late adulthood involves: A. Avoiding new relationships B. Relying solely on family members C. Withdrawing from social activities D. Actively maintaining friendships and building new ones

D. Actively maintaining friendships and building new ones

Intergenerational gaps may result from differences in: A. Height and weight B. Values, technology, and life experiences C. Geographic location only D. Dietary habits exclusively

B. Values, technology, and life experiences

Living on a fixed income may be challenging primarily because of: A. Increased vacation expenses B. New educational pursuits C. Rising costs of living, healthcare expenses, and inflation D. Reduced leisure time

C. Rising costs of living, healthcare expenses, and inflation

Which financial concern involves older adults being targeted for deception? A. Retirement planning B. Fixed income limitations C. Healthcare costs D. Scams and financial exploitation

D. Scams and financial exploitation

Retirement planning may be disrupted by: A. Improved health outcomes B. Unexpected health issues or market downturns C. Increased social activities D. Expanded family size

B. Unexpected health issues or market downturns

Escalating healthcare costs can result in: A. Increased leisure opportunities B. Depleted savings and financial stress C. Automatic insurance coverage D. Guaranteed long-term stability

B. Depleted savings and financial stress

Maintaining home safety may require older adults to: A. Ignore physical limitations B. Relocate immediately to another country C. Adapt the home to declining physical abilities D. Eliminate all social contact

C. Adapt the home to declining physical abilities

Loss of the ability to drive may lead to: A. Greater independence B. Isolation and dependence on others C. Increased travel D. Improved physical health

B. Isolation and dependence on others

A major living arrangement decision in late adulthood involves whether to: A. Begin a new career B. Travel abroad permanently C. Stay in one’s home or move to assisted living or a nursing home D. Purchase luxury property

C. Stay in one’s home or move to assisted living or a nursing home

Navigating healthcare systems can be overwhelming due to: A. Simplicity of medical appointments B. Reduced insurance options C. Straightforward procedures D. Complexity of healthcare systems, insurance, and appointments

D. Complexity of healthcare systems, insurance, and appointments

The process of reflecting on accomplishments, failures, and relationships is known as: A. Career evaluation B. Life review C. Financial forecasting D. Skill reassessment

B. Life review

The goal of life review is to achieve: A. Increased wealth B. Social popularity C. A sense of integrity and acceptance D. Professional advancement

C. A sense of integrity and acceptance

Leaving a legacy may involve: A. Avoiding community participation B. Withdrawing from family C. Ignoring personal achievements D. Sharing wisdom or contributing to family and community

D. Sharing wisdom or contributing to family and community

Finding new purpose after retirement may include: A. Avoiding hobbies B. Identifying new activities or volunteering opportunities C. Limiting social engagement D. Reducing community involvement

B. Identifying new activities or volunteering opportunities

Which category includes maintaining social connections and intergenerational gaps? A. Financial and Economic Challenges B. Environmental and Living Arrangement Challenges C. Social and Relational Challenges D. Legacy and Meaning-Making

C. Social and Relational Challenges

Fixed income is commonly associated with: A. Pensions and social security B. Bonuses and commissions C. Business investments D. Tuition reimbursement

A. Pensions and social security

Transportation challenges in late adulthood are often related to: A. Career advancement B. Vision, cognitive, or physical impairments C. Increased athletic participation D. Expanded social networks

B. Vision, cognitive, or physical impairments

The desire to leave something behind through family, community involvement, or material contributions reflects: A. Financial planning B. Caregiver strain C. Leaving a legacy D. Intergenerational gaps

C. Leaving a legacy

Developmental milestones are best described as: A. Random life events B. Specific, observable behaviors or physical skills most children can do by a certain age C. Unpredictable personality traits D. Exclusive to adulthood

B. Specific, observable behaviors or physical skills most children can do by a certain age

Developmental milestones serve primarily as: A. Financial guidelines B. Retirement markers C. Benchmarks for typical development D. Indicators of career success

C. Benchmarks for typical development

Developmental milestones are usually categorized into domains such as: A. Financial, occupational, and environmental B. Motor skills, language, cognitive abilities, and social-emotional development C. Physical strength and athletic ability only D. Social status and income

B. Motor skills, language, cognitive abilities, and social-emotional development

Which of the following is an example of a social-emotional developmental domain? A. Motor coordination B. Language vocabulary C. Emotional interactions with others D. Inflation management

C. Emotional interactions with others

Environmental and living arrangement challenges include: A. Caregiver strain B. Intergenerational gaps C. Retirement planning D. Decisions about living arrangements

D. Decisions about living arrangements

Lifts head, turns head to side, brings hands to mouth, grasps reflexively, kicks legs and moves arms A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

A. 0-3 months

Stares at hands and fingers, tracks movement with eyes, recognizes familiar faces A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

A. 0-3 months

Cries to communicate needs, becomes calm when spoken to, makes cooing sounds A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

A. 0-3 months

Smiles responsively, briefly calms self, looks at faces, enjoys looking at human faces A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

A. 0-3 months

Holds head steady, rolls from tummy to back (and eventually back to tummy), pushes up on forearms/hands, reaches for objects A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

B. 4-6 months

Recognizes familiar faces and sounds, brings objects to mouth for exploration, notices music A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

B. 4-6 months

Babbles, laughs, responds to sounds by making sounds, imitates some facial expressions A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

B. 4-6 months

Smiles on their own to get attention, likes to play with people, responds to other people's emotions, becomes more expressive A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

B. 4-6 months

Sits without support, crawls (or scoots/army crawls), uses pincer grasp (thumb and forefinger), transfers objects between hands A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

C. 7-9 months

Develops object permanence, responds to own name, enjoys interactive games like peek-a-boo A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

C. 7-9 months

Understands “no,” babbles in more complex ways, responds to other people’s emotions A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

C. 7-9 months

May be shy or clingy with strangers, shows several facial expressions, reacts when caregivers leave A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

C. 7-9 months

Pulls to stand, cruises along furniture, may take first independent steps, drinks from a cup (with help), waves bye-bye A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

D. 10-12 months

Explores objects, understands simple instructions, shows interest in picture books, imitates actions A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

D. 10-12 months

Says “mama” and “dada” (specifically for parents), uses gestures, may say 1-2 other words A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

D. 10-12 months

Shows fear in some situations, repeats sounds/actions for attention, feeds self with hands, plays interactive games A. 0-3 months B. 4-6 months C. 7-9 months D. 10-12 months

D. 10-12 months

Walks independently, runs, jumps in place, kicks a ball, walks up/down stairs with assistance, scribbles with crayons, stacks a few blocks A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

A. 1-2 years

Understands and responds to words, identifies similar/different objects, imitates adult actions, can point out familiar objects in books A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

A. 1-2 years

Knows about 10-50 words, uses two-word phrases, points to objects when named, begins to ask simple questions A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

A. 1-2 years

Shows increasing independence, may have temper tantrums, shows affection, copies other children, explores independently but with parents nearby A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

A. 1-2 years

Runs forward, jumps with both feet, kicks a ball forward, climbs on and off furniture, uses hands to twist/unscrew objects, takes off loose clothing A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

B. 2-3 years

Follows two-step instructions, sorts by shape and color, plays make-believe, begins to understand concepts like “mine” and “yours” A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

B. 2-3 years

Uses 3-5 word sentences, understands most of what is said, asks “what,” “where,” and “who” questions, enjoys listening to stories A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

B. 2-3 years

Engages in parallel play, shows empathy, expresses emotions more clearly, shows increasing frustration tolerance A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

B. 2-3 years

Rides a tricycle/scooter, goes down a slide unassisted, balances on one foot for a few seconds, draws a circle, holds a crayon with thumb and fingers A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

C. 3-4 years

Understands “same” and “different,” knows some colors and numbers, remembers parts of stories, uses imagination in play A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

C. 3-4 years

Speaks in full sentences, asks many “why” questions, can tell you their name and age, uses plurals and past tense A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

C. 3-4 years

Initiates play with others, shares toys (with prompting), understands basic rules, shows a wider range of emotions A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

C. 3-4 years

Hops on one foot, throws and catches a ball, skips, climbs well, can dress and undress themselves, uses scissors A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

D. 4-5 years

Counts to 10 or more, knows basic shapes, understands time concepts, can tell a simple story with a beginning, middle, and end A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

D. 4-5 years

Can express ideas clearly, uses future tense, tells more detailed stories, understands and follows multi-step directions A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

D. 4-5 years

Engages in cooperative play, negotiates and problem-solves with peers, shows more independence, expresses feelings in words, begins to understand right and wrong A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-4 years D. 4-5 years

D. 4-5 years

neurological condition which states the person is brain dead when all electrical activity of the brain has ceased for a specific period of time A. Brain Death B. Euthanasia C. Passive Euthanasia D. Active Euthanasia

A. Brain Death

“good death”, intended to end suffering or to allow a terminally ill person to die with dignity A. Brain Death B. Euthanasia C. Passive Euthanasia D. Active Euthanasia

B. Euthanasia

withholding or discontinuing treatment that might extend the life of a terminally ill patient; generally legal A. Brain Death B. Euthanasia C. Passive Euthanasia D. Active Euthanasia

C. Passive Euthanasia

deliberate action taken to shorten the life of a terminally ill person; mercy killing; generally illegal A. Brain Death B. Euthanasia C. Passive Euthanasia D. Active Euthanasia

D. Active Euthanasia

document specifying the type of care wanted by the maker in the event of an incapacitating or terminal illness, contains instructions for when and how to discontinue futile medical care A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

A. Advance Directives

contain specific provisions with regard to circumstances in which treatment should be discontinued A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

B. Living Will

legal instrument that appoints an individual to make decisions in the event of another person’s incapacitation A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

C. Durable Power of Attorney

Which developmental change is characteristic of children ages 6–8 years? A. Peak physical strength and health B. Development of formal operational thinking C. Refinement of gross motor skills and improved coordination for sports D. Gradual decline in vision and hearing

C. Refinement of gross motor skills and improved coordination for sports

Children ages 6–8 years begin to understand which cognitive concept? A. Conservation B. Abstract hypothesizing C. Crystallized intelligence D. Processing speed decline

A. Conservation

A child who tells jokes and riddles and understands figurative language is most likely in which age range? A. 9–12 years B. Adolescence C. Young adulthood D. 6–8 years

D. 6–8 years

Increased self-criticism and a sense of fairness are social characteristics of which group? A. Late adulthood B. 6–8 years C. Middle adulthood D. Adolescence

B. 6–8 years

Which physical development is typical of children ages 9–12 years? A. Growth spurts associated with puberty B. Gradual loss of muscle mass C. Increased strength and endurance D. Peak physical health

C. Increased strength and endurance

The ability to think about multiple aspects of a situation begins to develop most clearly during: A. 6–8 years B. 9–12 years C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood

B. 9–12 years

Being influenced by peer pressure and seeking praise are most associated with: A. 9–12 years B. Young adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. 6–8 years

A. 9–12 years

Writing longer and more detailed stories is characteristic of: A. Adolescence B. 6–8 years C. 9–12 years D. Late adulthood

C. 9–12 years

Rapid physical changes such as growth spurts and development of secondary sexual characteristics occur during: A. Middle adulthood B. Adolescence C. Young adulthood D. 9–12 years

B. Adolescence

The ability to think abstractly, hypothesize, and reason deductively develops during: A. 6–8 years B. 9–12 years C. Adolescence D. Late adulthood

C. Adolescence

Engaging in debates and developing personal views on various topics is typical of: A. Adolescence B. Middle adulthood C. 6–8 years D. Young adulthood

A. Adolescence

Forming more intimate relationships and seeking autonomy are social milestones of: A. Late adulthood B. Adolescence C. 9–12 years D. Middle adulthood

B. Adolescence

Peak physical strength and health generally occur during: A. Adolescence B. Late adulthood C. Young adulthood D. Middle adulthood

C. Young adulthood

Establishing intimacy and making commitments such as marriage and parenthood are key features of: A. 9–12 years B. Young adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. 6–8 years

B. Young adulthood

Cognitive abilities that remain stable or improve, especially in practical problem-solving, are characteristic of: A. Young adulthood B. Late adulthood C. 6–8 years D. Adolescence

A. Young adulthood

Gradual physical declines in vision, hearing, and muscle mass are typical of: A. Young adulthood B. Adolescence C. Middle adulthood D. 9–12 years

C. Middle adulthood

Generativity, including contributing to the next generation, is most associated with: A. 6–8 years B. Late adulthood C. Adolescence D. Middle adulthood

D. Middle adulthood

Increased wisdom and expertise, with possible decline in processing speed, occur during: A. Middle adulthood B. 9–12 years C. Adolescence D. Young adulthood

A. Middle adulthood

Decline in fluid intelligence but stable or improved crystallized intelligence is characteristic of: A. Young adulthood B. Late adulthood C. 6–8 years D. Middle adulthood

B. Late adulthood

Adapting to retirement and reflecting on life are typical of: A. Late adulthood B. Middle adulthood C. Adolescence D. 9–12 years

A. Late adulthood

Understanding others’ perspectives begins to solidify during: A. 6–8 years B. Late adulthood C. Young adulthood D. Adolescence

A. 6–8 years

Beginning to think more abstractly first appears during: A. Adolescence B. 6–8 years C. Middle adulthood D. 9–12 years

D. 9–12 years

Exploring identity and future goals is most characteristic of: A. Young adulthood B. Adolescence C. 6–8 years D. Middle adulthood

B. Adolescence

Balancing work, family, and community roles is most typical of: A. 9–12 years B. Adolescence C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood

C. Middle adulthood

Increased independence from parents becomes noticeable during: A. 6–8 years B. Late adulthood C. 9–12 years D. Young adulthood

C. 9–12 years

Continued refinement of motor skills during puberty is characteristic of: A. Adolescence B. 9–12 years C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood

A. Adolescence

Caring for aging parents is most associated with: A. Young adulthood B. Middle adulthood C. Adolescence D. 6–8 years

B. Middle adulthood

Improved memory and attention span are characteristic of: A. 6–8 years B. Late adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. Young adulthood

A. 6–8 years

Coping with loss and maintaining a sense of integrity are most typical of: A. Adolescence B. Young adulthood C. Late adulthood D. 9–12 years

C. Late adulthood

Forming stable friendships is especially characteristic of: A. 9–12 years B. 6–8 years C. Adolescence D. Middle adulthood

B. 6–8 years

self-inflicted death in which the person acts intentionally, directly, and consciously A. Suicide B. Death Seekers C. Death Initiators D. Death Ignorers E. Death Darers

A. Suicide

clearly intend to end their lives at the time they attempt suicide A. Suicide B. Death Seekers C. Death Initiators D. Death Ignorers E. Death Darers

B. Death Seekers

clearly intent to end their lives, but they act out of a believe that the process is already under the way and that they are simply hastening the process A. Suicide B. Death Seekers C. Death Initiators D. Death Ignorers E. Death Darers

C. Death Initiators

do not believe that their self-inflicted death will mean the end of their existence A. Suicide B. Death Seekers C. Death Initiators D. Death Ignorers E. Death Darers

D. Death Ignorers

experience mixed feelings, or ambivalence about their intent to die, even at experience mixed feelings, or ambivalence about their intent to die, even at A. Suicide B. Death Seekers C. Death Initiators D. Death Ignorers E. Death Darers

E. Death Darers

a death in which the victim plays an indirect, hidden, partial, or unconscious role A. Subintentional Death B. Suicidal Ideation C. Suicidal Plans D. Suicidal Attempts

A. Subintentional Death

thinking seriously about suicide A. Subintentional Death B. Suicidal Ideation C. Suicidal Plans D. Suicidal Attempts

B. Suicidal Ideation

formulation of a specific method for killing oneself A. Subintentional Death B. Suicidal Ideation C. Suicidal Plans D. Suicidal Attempts

C. Suicidal Plans

the person survives from attempts A. Subintentional Death B. Suicidal Ideation C. Suicidal Plans D. Suicidal Attempts

D. Suicidal Attempts

happens when a person feels extremely isolated and detached from their community, family, or social groups A. Egoistic Suicide– B. Altruistic Suicide C. Anomic Suicide D. Fatalistic Suicide

A. Egoistic Suicide–

occurs when a person is too integrated into a group, and their individual life is seen as less important than the group’s goals or honor A. Egoistic Suicide– B. Altruistic Suicide C. Anomic Suicide D. Fatalistic Suicide

B. Altruistic Suicide

happens when society’s rules, norms, or expectations suddenly break down or become unclear A. Egoistic Suicide– B. Altruistic Suicide C. Anomic Suicide D. Fatalistic Suicide

C. Anomic Suicide

a person’s life is excessively controlled, oppressive, and without any hope or freedom A. Egoistic Suicide– B. Altruistic Suicide C. Anomic Suicide D. Fatalistic Suicide

D. Fatalistic Suicide

What best defines assisted suicide? A. Suicide performed without any external involvement B. Suicide in which a physician or someone else directly performs the act C. Suicide in which a physician or someone else helps a person take his or her own life, but the person performs the actual deed D. Suicide that occurs only in a hospital setting

C. Suicide in which a physician or someone else helps a person take his or her own life, but the person performs the actual deed

Which ethical principle is used to support assisted suicide? A. Beneficence and justice B. Autonomy and self-determination C. Nonmaleficence and paternalism D. Fidelity and confidentiality

B. Autonomy and self-determination

Which ethical argument supports the right of mentally competent persons to control the timing and nature of their death? A. Protection of the disadvantaged B. Physician authority C. Sanctity of life D. Autonomy and self-determination

D. Autonomy and self-determination

Which medical argument supports assisted suicide? A. Physicians should avoid involvement in end-of-life decisions B. Doctors must preserve life at all costs C. A doctor is obligated to take all measures necessary to relieve suffering D. Safeguards cannot be enforced

C. A doctor is obligated to take all measures necessary to relieve suffering

Which legal argument supports legalizing assisted suicide? A. It would eliminate all lawsuits B. It would prevent all misdiagnoses C. It would ensure new treatments are discovered D. It would permit regulation of practices that already occur out of compassion

D. It would permit regulation of practices that already occur out of compassion

Which ethical argument opposes assisted suicide? A. Autonomy must always override other concerns B. Taking a life, even with consent, is wrong C. Physicians must relieve suffering D. Regulation improves oversight

B. Taking a life, even with consent, is wrong

Which concern reflects protection of vulnerable populations in arguments against assisted suicide? A. Financial costs of medical care B. Physician workload C. Protection of the disadvantaged D. Hospital policy changes

C. Protection of the disadvantaged

Which is a medical argument against assisted suicide? A. The possibility of misdiagnosis B. The certainty of accurate prognosis C. The elimination of suffering in all cases D. Guaranteed safeguards

A. The possibility of misdiagnosis

Which concern involves the potential future availability of new treatments? A. Ethical argument for assisted suicide B. Legal argument for assisted suicide C. Medical argument against assisted suicide D. Ethical argument supporting autonomy

C. Medical argument against assisted suicide

Which belief reflects opposition based on the physician’s professional identity? A. Physicians should determine quality of life B. Helping someone die is incompatible with a physician’s role as healer C. Physicians must prioritize family wishes D. Physicians should avoid regulation

B. Helping someone die is incompatible with a physician’s role as healer

Which legal argument opposes assisted suicide? A. Regulation of compassionate practices B. Enforcement of safeguards and potential lawsuits when families disagree C. Protection of patient autonomy D. Relief of suffering

B. Enforcement of safeguards and potential lawsuits when families disagree

During infancy, how do infants cognitively understand death? A. As inevitable and universal B. As nonfunctional and irreversible C. They fully understand its permanence D. They have no cognitive understanding of death itself

D. They have no cognitive understanding of death itself

Infants primarily react to death through: A. Philosophical questioning B. Separation and loss C. Planning rituals D. Acceptance of universality

B. Separation and loss

Which behavioral change may occur in infants experiencing loss? A. Increased academic focus B. Improved appetite C. Increased crying and sleep disturbances D. Immediate acceptance

C. Increased crying and sleep disturbances

Infants may develop what in response to someone who has died? A. A biological explanation B. A mental image of the person and sense their absence C. A complete understanding of permanence D. A refusal to acknowledge death

B. A mental image of the person and sense their absence

Children learn that death is: A. Reversible and selective B. Irreversible, universal, nonfunctional, and inevitable C. Optional and temporary D. Preventable in most cases

B. Irreversible, universal, nonfunctional, and inevitable

By age 4, children: A. Master the biological nature of death B. Have no understanding of death C. Build a partial understanding of the biological nature of death D. Reject the idea of universality

C. Build a partial understanding of the biological nature of death

By age 10, children: A. Have mastered the biological nature of death B. Continue to see death as reversible C. Lack understanding of inevitability D. Cannot grasp nonfunctionality

A. Have mastered the biological nature of death

How might children express grief? A. Through financial planning B. By acting out or refusing to acknowledge the death C. Through philosophical reflection D. By preparing legal documents

B. By acting out or refusing to acknowledge the death

Young adults facing potentially fatal illness are likely to feel: A. Indifferent B. Relieved C. Frustrated and angry D. Fully accepting

C. Frustrated and angry

Middle-aged adults often respond to thoughts of death by: A. Ignoring the future B. Making a will and planning funerals C. Refusing discussions with family D. Avoiding emotional preparation

B. Making a will and planning funerals

Older adults may: A. Focus exclusively on new ambitions B. Express fear or anxiety about the effect of their death on loved ones C. Completely avoid thinking about death D. Develop a partial biological understanding

B. Express fear or anxiety about the effect of their death on loved ones

Middle-aged adults think about: A. How to master the biological nature of death B. Separation anxiety C. How many years they may have left and how to make the most of them D. Acting out behaviors

C. How many years they may have left and how to make the most of them

Which age group may give up on achieving unfulfilled goals? A. Infants B. Young adults C. Children age 4 D. Older adults

D. Older adults

Which is a legal concern against assisted suicide involving family members? A. Regulation of compassion B. Enforcement of autonomy C. Lawsuits when family members disagree about terminating a life D. Obligation to relieve suffering

C. Lawsuits when family members disagree about terminating a life

Which feature of psychosocial theory focuses on identifying central issues from infancy through old age? A. It emphasizes unconscious drives exclusively B. It addresses growth across the lifespan C. It focuses only on childhood development D. It limits development to biological maturation

B. It addresses growth across the lifespan

Psychosocial theory assumes individuals: A. Are entirely shaped by biology B. Have no influence over their development C. Contribute to their own psychological development at each stage of life D. Develop independently of society

C. Contribute to their own psychological development at each stage of life

Psychosocial theory considers culture as: A. A minor background influence B. Irrelevant to individual growth C. A passive environmental factor D. An active contributor to individual growth

D. An active contributor to individual growth

The theory attempts to explain: A. Only cognitive development B. Human development across the lifespan C. Genetic inheritance patterns D. Neurological maturation exclusively

B. Human development across the lifespan

Patterned changes in self-concept development are reflected in: A. Reflex actions only B. Motor coordination C. Self-understanding, identity formation, social relationships, and worldview D. Dietary habits

C. Self-understanding, identity formation, social relationships, and worldview

Psychosocial theory predicts that development occurs in: A. 8 unordered phases B. 11 stages emerging in an ordered sequence C. 5 overlapping cycles D. 3 biological periods

B. 11 stages emerging in an ordered sequence

Issues of later stages: A. Never appear until the exact stage begins B. Are unrelated to earlier stages C. Can be previewed earlier, but each has its own period of ascendance D. Replace all earlier concerns

C. Can be previewed earlier, but each has its own period of ascendance

Full realization of a person’s potential takes place: A. During adolescence B. By early adulthood C. By middle adulthood D. Across the entire lifespan from prenatal period through elderhood

D. Across the entire lifespan from prenatal period through elderhood

Developmental tasks are dictated by the interaction of: A. Genetic and environmental factors only B. Social expectations alone C. Biological, psychological, and societal systems D. Peer relationships exclusively

C. Biological, psychological, and societal systems

At each stage of development: A. Growth stops temporarily B. A normal crisis arises C. Biological maturation is completed D. Society withdraws expectations

B. A normal crisis arises

To resolve the crisis at each stage: A. Avoidance strategies must be used B. Biological change is sufficient C. A central process operates D. Cultural expectations are ignored

C. A central process operates

Each person is part of: A. An isolated developmental system B. A fixed peer group C. A biological lineage only D. An expanding network of significant relationships

D. An expanding network of significant relationships

These significant relationships convey: A. Only emotional support B. Society’s expectations and demands C. Genetic predispositions D. Personal ambitions exclusively

B. Society’s expectations and demands

Development will be optimal if a person: A. Avoids crises B. Remains dependent on earlier skills C. Focuses solely on biological growth D. Creates new behaviors and relationships through skill acquisition and crisis resolution

D. Creates new behaviors and relationships through skill acquisition and crisis resolution

The individual who identified and developed psychosocial theory is: A. Jean Piaget B. Sigmund Freud C. Erik H. Erikson D. Robert Havighurst

C. Erik H. Erikson

Erik H. Erikson was initially trained as a: A. Behaviorist B. Psychoanalyst C. Cognitive psychologist D. Sociologist

B. Psychoanalyst

Erikson’s theory was influenced by all of the following except: A. Sigmund Freud B. Anna Freud C. Peter Blos D. B.F. Skinner

D. B.F. Skinner

One intellectual collaborator who significantly contributed to the development of psychosocial theory was: A. Anna Freud B. Jean Piaget C. Joan Erikson D. Robert White

C. Joan Erikson

Erik and Joan first presented psychosocial theory and its eight stages in: A. 1945 B. 1950 C. 1965 D. 1938

B. 1950

Which of the following was among those who influenced Erikson’s theory? A. Robert White B. Carl Rogers C. Abraham Maslow D. John Watson

A. Robert White

Part 3 Flashcards

(177 cards)