Part 1 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

Q

the field concerned with the nature, development, and treatment of psychological disorders

A. Psychopathology
B. Abnormal Psychology
C. Psychological Disorders
D. Normal Behavior

A

A. Psychopathology

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Q

a branch of psychology that studies unusual patterns of behaviors, emotions, and thought, which may or may not indicate an underlying condition

A. Psychopathology
B. Abnormal Psychology
C. Psychological Disorders
D. Normal Behavior

A

B. Abnormal Psychology

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Q

psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected

A. Psychopathology
B. Abnormal Psychology
C. Psychological Disorders
D. Normal Behavior

A

C. Psychological Disorders

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Q

one behavior that is like other people in society

A. Psychopathology
B. Abnormal Psychology
C. Psychological Disorders
D. Normal Behavior

A

D. Normal Behavior

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Q

breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning

A. Dysfunction
B. Distress
C. Deviance

A

A. Dysfunction

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Q

the individual is extremely upset and cannot function properly

A. Dysfunction
B. Distress
C. Deviance

A

B. Distress

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Q

deviates from the average or the norm of the culture

A. Dysfunction
B. Distress
C. Deviance

A

C. Deviance

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Q

creates potential harm to self and others

A. Dangerousness
B. Disability
C. Duration

A

A. Dangerousness

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Q

impairment (limitations) in some important area of life

A. Dangerousness
B. Disability
C. Duration

A

B. Disability

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Q

how long the mental state has been persisting

A. Dangerousness
B. Disability
C. Duration

A

C. Duration

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Q

chief complaint

A. Presenting Problem
B. Clinical Description
C. Diagnosis
D. Prevalence
E. Incidence

A

A. Presenting Problem

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Q

represents the unique combination of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up a specific disorder

A. Presenting Problem
B. Clinical Description
C. Diagnosis
D. Prevalence
E. Incidence

A

B. Clinical Description

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Q

process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all criteria for a psychological disorder

A. Presenting Problem
B. Clinical Description
C. Diagnosis
D. Prevalence
E. Incidence

A

C. Diagnosis

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Q

how many people experience the disorder (# of active cases)

A. Presenting Problem
B. Clinical Description
C. Diagnosis
D. Prevalence
E. Incidence

A

D. Prevalence

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Q

how many cases occur during a given period (# of new cases)

A. Presenting Problem
B. Clinical Description
C. Diagnosis
D. Prevalence
E. Incidence

A

E. Incidence

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Q

how the disorder will progress

A. Cause
B. Chronic
C. Episodic
D. Time-limited

A

A. Cause

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Q

Lifetime

A. Cause
B. Chronic
C. Episodic
D. Time-limited

A

B. Chronic

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Q

likely to recover

A. Cause
B. Chronic
C. Episodic
D. Time-limited

A

C. Episodic

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Q

one time, will improve without treatment

A. Cause
B. Chronic
C. Episodic
D. Time-limited

A

D. Time-limited

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Q

how the disorder develops

A. Onset
B. Acute
C. Insidious

A

A. Onset

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Q

Sudden

A. Onset
B. Acute
C. Insidious

A

B. Acute

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Q

Gradual

A. Onset
B. Acute
C. Insidious

A

C. Insidious

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Q

anticipated course of a disorder

A. Prognosis
B. Good
C. Guarded

A

A. Prognosis

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Q

high chance of possibility to recover

A. Prognosis
B. Good
C. Guarded

A

B. Good

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low chance of recovery A. Prognosis B. Good C. Guarded

C. Guarded

manifestation of disease that the physician receives A. Sign B. Symptoms C. Syndrome D. Etiology

A. Sign

subjective representation of the complaints of the patient A. Sign B. Symptoms C. Syndrome D. Etiology

B. Symptoms

a group of symptoms that occur together more often by chance A. Sign B. Symptoms C. Syndrome D. Etiology

C. Syndrome

study of the origins of why the disorder begins A. Sign B. Symptoms C. Syndrome D. Etiology

D. Etiology

study of the distribution of disease, or health-related behaviors in a given population A. Epidemiology B. Ego Syntonic C. Ego Dystonic

A. Epidemiology

actions align with the client’s personal goals, values, and beliefs A. Epidemiology B. Ego Syntonic C. Ego Dystonic

B. Ego Syntonic

actions that are inconsistent with the client’s ego A. Epidemiology B. Ego Syntonic C. Ego Dystonic

C. Ego Dystonic

Clinical Disorder A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

A. Axis I

Mental Health and Substance Use Disorder A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

A. Axis I

Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

B. Axis II

General Medical Conditions A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

C. Axis III

Psychosocial and Environmental Problems A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

D. Axis IV

Assessment of Overall Functioning A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

E. Axis V

Global Assessment of Functioning A. Axis I B. Axis II C. Axis III D. Axis IV E. Axis V

E. Axis V

Which statement best reflects the idea that normality involves adjusting to commonly accepted behaviors? A. Normality is a fixed personality trait. B. Normality is social conformity. C. Normality is statistical rarity. D. Normality is irrational behavior.

B. Normality is social conformity.

Which description aligns with the idea that normality involves an individual feeling at ease with themselves? A. Normality is personal comfort. B. Normality is maladaptiveness. C. Normality is dangerousness. D. Normality is unpredictability.

A. Normality is personal comfort.

Viewing normality as something that develops and changes over time reflects which concept? A. Normality is social conformity. B. Normality is personal discomfort. C. Normality is a process. D. Normality is statistical deviancy.

C. Normality is a process.

Which indicator of abnormal behavior involves experiencing emotional suffering or pain? A. Maladaptiveness B. Statistical deviancy C. Subjective distress D. Violation of standards of society

C. Subjective distress

Behavior that interferes with a person’s ability to function effectively is known as: A. Irrationality B. Maladaptiveness C. Personal comfort D. Social conformity

B. Maladaptiveness

When a behavior is rare compared to most people in society, it reflects: A. Statistical deviancy B. Dangerousness C. Personal/social discomfort D. Emotional regulation

A. Statistical deviancy

Behavior that breaks widely accepted social rules demonstrates: A. Maladaptiveness B. Violation of the standards of society C. Subjective distress D. Personal comfort

B. Violation of the standards of society

Feeling uneasy in social situations due to one’s own behavior may indicate: A. Dangerousness B. Irrationality C. Personal/social discomfort D. Statistical deviancy

C. Personal/social discomfort

Acting without logical reasoning and behaving in an unpredictable manner is described as: A. Irrationality and unpredictability B. Social conformity C. Maladaptiveness D. Personal comfort

A. Irrationality and unpredictability

Behavior that poses harm to oneself or others is an example of: A. Statistical deviancy B. Subjective distress C. Dangerousness D. Social conformity

C. Dangerousness

The first Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders was published in 1952 by the: A. World Health Organization B. American Psychological Association C. American Psychiatric Association D. National Institute of Mental Health

C. American Psychiatric Association

The DSM-5 was released in: A. 1952 B. 2000 C. 1994 D. 2013

D. 2013

The DSM-5 provides detailed information about: A. Each disorder B. Only childhood disorders C. Statistical surveys of society D. Cultural traditions

A. Each disorder

The DSM-5 includes specific ______ for diagnosing mental disorders. A. Cultural customs B. Diagnostic criteria C. Social expectations D. Personality preferences

B. Diagnostic criteria

A mental disorder is defined as a syndrome characterized by a clinically significant disturbance in: A. Physical strength only B. Intelligence only C. Cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior D. Cultural traditions

C. Cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior

A dysfunction underlying mental functioning may involve which processes? A. Economic and political B. Psychological, biological, or developmental C. Social and financial only D. Cultural and historical only

B. Psychological, biological, or developmental

Mental disorders are usually associated with significant: A. Wealth accumulation B. Social popularity C. Distress or disability in important activities D. Cultural conformity

C. Distress or disability in important activities

An expected or culturally approved response to a common stressor, such as the death of a loved one, is: A. Always considered a mental disorder B. Not considered a mental disorder C. Automatically dangerous D. A violation of society’s standards

B. Not considered a mental disorder

Socially deviant behavior is not considered a mental disorder unless: A. It is statistically rare B. It is culturally approved C. It results from a dysfunction in the individual D. It causes personal comfort

C. It results from a dysfunction in the individual

Conflicts primarily between the individual and society are not classified as mental disorders unless: A. They are socially accepted B. They involve a dysfunction in the individual C. They are common D. They are temporary

B. They involve a dysfunction in the individual

Which of the following is NOT listed as an indicator for determining abnormal behavior? A. Subjective distress B. Statistical deviancy C. Emotional intelligence D. Dangerousness

C. Emotional intelligence

Which of the following best represents one of the listed indicators for abnormal behavior? A. Occupational success B. Violation of the standards of society C. Cultural celebration D. Personal achievement

B. Violation of the standards of society

Which concept of normality focuses on fitting in with group expectations? A. Normality is personal comfort. B. Normality is statistical deviancy. C. Normality is dangerousness. D. Normality is social conformity.

D. Normality is social conformity.

Which concept of normality emphasizes an individual’s inner sense of ease and satisfaction? A. Normality is personal comfort. B. Normality is a violation of standards. C. Normality is irrationality. D. Normality is statistical rarity.

A. Normality is personal comfort.

excessive and persistent fear, worry, or anxiety that is disproportionate to the actual situation, which significantly impairs daily functioning A. Anxiety Disorders B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic Attack

A. Anxiety Disorders

the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, more associated with surges of autonomic arousal necessary for fight or flight, thoughts of immediate danger, and escape behaviors A. Anxiety Disorders B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic Attack

B. Fear

the anticipation of a future threat, more often associated with muscle tension and vigilance in preparation for future danger, and cautious or avoidant behavior A. Anxiety Disorders B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic Attack

C. Anxiety

featured prominently within the anxiety disorders as a particular type of fear response A. Anxiety Disorders B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic Attack

D. Panic Attack

Separation Anxiety Disorder duration (children and adolescents) A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

A. at least 4 weeks

Separation Anxiety Disorder duration (adults) A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

B. 6 months or more

Selective Mutism duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

C. at least 1 month

Specific Phobia duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

B. 6 months or more

Social Anxiety Disorder duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

B. 6 months or more

Panic Disorder duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

C. at least 1 month

Agoraphobia duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

B. 6 months or more

Generalized Anxiety Disorders duration A. at least 4 weeks B. 6 months or more C. at least 1 month D. 12 months

B. 6 months or more

abrupt surges of intense fear or intense discomfort that reach a peak within minutes, accompanied by physical and/or cognitive symptoms A. Panic Attacks B. Expected Panic Attack C. Unexpected Panic Attack

A. Panic Attacks

such as in response to a typically feared object or situation A. Panic Attacks B. Expected Panic Attack C. Unexpected Panic Attack

B. Expected Panic Attack

panic attack occurs for no apparent reason A. Panic Attacks B. Expected Panic Attack C. Unexpected Panic Attack

C. Unexpected Panic Attack

Which disorder involves fear or anxiety about separation from attachment figures that is developmentally inappropriate? A. Social Anxiety Disorder B. Separation Anxiety Disorder C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder D. Agoraphobia

B. Separation Anxiety Disorder

A consistent failure to speak in social situations where speaking is expected, despite speaking in other situations, characterizes: A. Selective Mutism B. Specific Phobia C. Panic Disorder D. Social Anxiety Disorder

A. Selective Mutism

Which disorder involves fear or anxiety about circumscribed objects or situations? A. Agoraphobia B. Separation Anxiety Disorder C. Specific Phobia D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C. Specific Phobia

Which of the following is NOT listed as a specific type of Specific Phobia? A. Animal B. Situational C. Performance D. Blood-injection Injury

C. Performance

Fear or anxiety about social interactions and situations involving possible scrutiny is characteristic of: A. Panic Disorder B. Social Anxiety Disorder C. Agoraphobia D. Selective Mutism

B. Social Anxiety Disorder

Which of the following is an example of a situation associated with Social Anxiety Disorder? A. Being outside the home alone B. Having a conversation C. Seeing blood D. Being separated from attachment figures

B. Having a conversation

The specifier "performance only" applies to: A. Panic Disorder B. Social Anxiety Disorder C. Agoraphobia D. Specific Phobia

B. Social Anxiety Disorder

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks combined with persistent concern about additional attacks describes: A. Panic Disorder B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder C. Social Anxiety Disorder D. Separation Anxiety Disorder

A. Panic Disorder

Which of the following is a panic attack specifier? A. Muscle tension B. Sleep disturbance C. Palpitations D. Avoidance of animals

C. Palpitations

Fear of dying during an episode is identified as a: A. Feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder B. Type of Specific Phobia C. Panic attack specifier D. Symptom of Agoraphobia

C. Panic attack specifier

Agoraphobia requires fear or anxiety about at least how many specified situations? A. One or more B. Two or more C. Three or more D. Five or more

B. Two or more

Which of the following situations is included in Agoraphobia? A. Performing in front of others B. Being in open spaces C. Being observed eating D. Meeting unfamiliar people

B. Being in open spaces

Persistent and excessive anxiety and worry about various domains, such as work and school performance, is characteristic of: A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder B. Panic Disorder C. Specific Phobia D. Selective Mutism

A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Which physical symptom is associated with Generalized Anxiety Disorder? A. Derealization B. Chills C. Muscle tension D. Fear of choking

C. Muscle tension

“The world is a dangerous place” is associated with: A. Panic Disorder B. Social Anxiety Disorder C. Specific Phobia D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Avoidance of social situations due to fear of scrutiny is central to: A. Social Anxiety Disorder B. Separation Anxiety Disorder C. Agoraphobia D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A. Social Anxiety Disorder

Which disorder includes being fearful and anxious about using public transportation? A. Social Anxiety Disorder B. Agoraphobia C. Panic Disorder D. Specific Phobia

B. Agoraphobia

Trembling, sweating, and shortness of breath are associated with: A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder B. Separation Anxiety Disorder C. Panic attack specifiers D. Selective Mutism

C. Panic attack specifiers

Which of the following is included under the examples of Social Anxiety Disorder? A. Standing in line B. Being in enclosed spaces C. Giving a speech D. Using public transportation

C. Giving a speech

Difficulty concentrating or the mind going blank is a symptom of: A. Panic Disorder B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder C. Social Anxiety Disorder D. Specific Phobia

B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Which of the following is included as a panic attack specifier? A. Irritability B. Sleep disturbance C. Depersonalization D. Muscle tension

C. Depersonalization

Which situation is specifically listed under Agoraphobia? A. Meeting unfamiliar people B. Being outside of the home alone in other situations C. Performing in front of others D. Eating in public

B. Being outside of the home alone in other situations

Easily fatigued and restlessness are physical symptoms of: A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder B. Panic Disorder C. Specific Phobia D. Separation Anxiety Disorder

A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Fear or anxiety about animals falls under which disorder? A. Social Anxiety Disorder B. Agoraphobia C. Specific Phobia D. Panic Disorder

C. Specific Phobia

Persistent concern about additional panic attacks may lead to: A. Avoidance of attachment figures B. Maladaptive behavioral changes C. Fear of social scrutiny D. Excessive worry about work performance

B. Maladaptive behavioral changes

Trauma-and-Stressor-Related Disorders involve the development of psychological problems following: A. Chronic medical illness B. Genetic predisposition alone C. Exposure to a traumatic or stressful event D. Normal developmental transitions

C. Exposure to a traumatic or stressful event

Trauma-and-Stressor-Related Disorders may involve exposure to: A. Actual or threatened death B. Serious injury C. Sexual violence D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How many disorders are classified under Trauma-and-Stressor-Related Disorders? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 4

D. 4

Which disorder is characterized by markedly disturbed and developmentally inappropriate attachment behaviors? A. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder B. Reactive Attachment Disorder C. Adjustment Disorder D. Acute Stress Disorder

B. Reactive Attachment Disorder

In Reactive Attachment Disorder, a child rarely or minimally turns to an attachment figure for: A. Academic guidance B. Discipline C. Comfort, support, protection, and nurturance D. Financial assistance

C. Comfort, support, protection, and nurturance

Reactive Attachment Disorder must be evident before what age? A. 3 years B. 7 years C. 5 years D. 10 years

C. 5 years

A history of which of the following is associated with Reactive Attachment Disorder? A. Social neglect B. Head trauma C. Genetic mutation D. Peer rejection

A. Social neglect

A child must have a developmental age of at least _____ for Reactive Attachment Disorder to be diagnosed. A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

B. 9 months

Reactive Attachment Disorder is considered persistent when symptoms last: A. More than 6 months B. More than 3 months C. More than 12 months D. More than 1 month

C. More than 12 months

Reactive Attachment Disorder is considered severe when: A. Symptoms appear intermittently B. All symptoms are present at a high level of intensity C. Symptoms occur only at home D. Only emotional symptoms are present

B. All symptoms are present at a high level of intensity

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder involves: A. Avoidance of all strangers B. Excessive attachment to caregivers only C. Social withdrawal D. Overly familiar and disinhibited behavior toward unfamiliar adults

D. Overly familiar and disinhibited behavior toward unfamiliar adults

Children with Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder typically: A. Avoid eye contact with strangers B. Show typical wariness around unfamiliar adults C. Actively approach and interact with strangers without hesitation D. Refuse to speak to unfamiliar adults

C. Actively approach and interact with strangers without hesitation

The behaviors in Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder are: A. Solely due to impulsivity B. Exclusively caused by ADHD C. Limited to aggressive acts D. Not solely due to impulsivity but include socially disinhibited behavior

D. Not solely due to impulsivity but include socially disinhibited behavior

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder requires a developmental age of at least: A. 9 months B. 2 years C. 12 months D. 6 months

A. 9 months

For Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder to be considered persistent, symptoms must last: A. More than 3 months B. More than 12 months C. More than 6 months D. More than 1 month

B. More than 12 months

Which of the following is an intrusion symptom of PTSD? A. Hypervigilance B. Sleep disturbance C. Distressing memories D. Diminished interest in activities

C. Distressing memories

Dissociative reactions (flashbacks) fall under which PTSD symptom category? A. Avoidance B. Intrusion Symptoms C. Arousal or reactivity D. Adjustment features

B. Intrusion Symptoms

Which of the following is listed under Avoidance in PTSD? A. Exaggerated startle response B. Inability to remember C. Reckless behavior D. Hypervigilance

B. Inability to remember

Negative beliefs about oneself or the world are categorized under: A. Arousal or reactivity B. Intrusion symptoms C. Negative alterations in cognitions and mood D. Disinhibition

C. Negative alterations in cognitions and mood

Irritable behavior and anger outbursts are classified under: A. Arousal or reactivity B. Avoidance C. Adjustment features D. Intrusion

A. Arousal or reactivity

PTSD symptoms must persist for: A. More than 3 days B. More than 6 months C. More than 1 month D. More than 2 weeks

C. More than 1 month

PTSD with Delayed Expression applies when full diagnostic criteria are not met until at least: A. 1 month after the event B. 3 months after the event C. 12 months after the event D. 6 months after the event

D. 6 months after the event

Acute Stress Disorder differs from PTSD primarily in terms of: A. Type of symptoms B. Severity C. Duration D. Age of onset

C. Duration

Acute Stress Disorder symptoms occur: A. Immediately and last indefinitely B. 3 days to 1 month after trauma exposure C. Only after 6 months D. Within 3 months and persist beyond 6 months

B. 3 days to 1 month after trauma exposure

If Acute Stress Disorder symptoms persist longer than one month, the diagnosis may be revised to: A. Adjustment Disorder B. Reactive Attachment Disorder C. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder D. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

C. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

Adjustment Disorder involves emotional and behavioral symptoms developing in response to: A. Genetic predisposition B. A specific stressor such as a life change or stressful event C. Neurological damage D. Substance withdrawal

B. A specific stressor such as a life change or stressful event

Symptoms of Adjustment Disorder must develop within: A. 1 month of the stressor B. 3 months of the onset of stressors C. 6 months of the stressor ending D. 12 months of exposure

B. 3 months of the onset of stressors

If symptoms of Adjustment Disorder persist beyond 6 months, the diagnosis: A. Becomes PTSD B. Remains unchanged C. Will no longer apply D. Becomes Acute Stress Disorder

C. Will no longer apply

Adjustment Disorder does NOT represent: A. Normal bereavement B. Anxiety symptoms C. Depressive symptoms D. Conduct disturbance

A. Normal bereavement

Which of the following is a subtype of Adjustment Disorder? A. With Psychosis B. With Mania C. With Depressed Mood D. With Dissociation

C. With Depressed Mood

“With Mixed Anxiety and Depressed Mood” is a subtype of: A. Acute Stress Disorder B. Adjustment Disorder C. PTSD D. Reactive Attachment Disorder

B. Adjustment Disorder

“With Disturbance of Conduct” is categorized under: A. Acute Stress Disorder B. Adjustment Disorder C. PTSD D. Reactive Attachment Disorder

B. Adjustment Disorder

“Unspecified” is listed as a subtype of: A. Acute Stress Disorder B. Adjustment Disorder C. PTSD D. Reactive Attachment Disorder

B. Adjustment Disorder

Prolonged Grief Disorder in DSM-5-TR was previously referred to as: A. Acute Bereavement Disorder B. Complicated grief or persistent complex bereavement disorder C. Traumatic Separation Disorder D. Chronic Adjustment Syndrome

B. Complicated grief or persistent complex bereavement disorder

Prolonged Grief Disorder is characterized by: A. Mild sadness that resolves quickly B. Grief lasting less than one month C. Intense and persistent grief extending far beyond a typical or culturally expected period D. Emotional detachment immediately after loss

C. Intense and persistent grief extending far beyond a typical or culturally expected period

For adults, Prolonged Grief Disorder requires that the death occurred at least: A. 3 months ago B. 6 months ago C. 9 months ago D. 12 months ago

D. 12 months ago

For children and adolescents, Prolonged Grief Disorder requires that the death occurred at least: A. 6 months ago B. 12 months ago C. 3 months ago D. 1 month ago

A. 6 months ago

OCD-Related Disorders are characterized primarily by: A. Mood swings and manic episodes B. Persistent intrusive thoughts and/or repetitive behaviors C. Dissociative episodes D. Social withdrawal only

B. Persistent intrusive thoughts and/or repetitive behaviors

In OCD-Related Disorders, obsessions are defined as: A. Pleasant recurring fantasies B. Voluntary repetitive habits C. Recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are intrusive and unwanted D. Emotional responses to trauma

C. Recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are intrusive and unwanted

Obsessions typically cause: A. Euphoria B. Marked anxiety or distress C. Sleep paralysis D. Physical paralysis

B. Marked anxiety or distress

Compulsions are best described as: A. Random impulsive behaviors B. Repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed in response to an obsession or rigid rules C. Emotional reactions to grief D. Uncontrollable flashbacks

B. Repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed in response to an obsession or rigid rules

Individuals feel driven to perform compulsions primarily: A. For entertainment B. Due to peer pressure C. To gain social approval D. In response to an obsession or rigidly applied rules

D. In response to an obsession or rigidly applied rules

In OCD-Related Disorders, which typically serves as the primary trigger for compulsions? A. Family conflict B. Sleep disturbance C. Obsessions D. Environmental noise

C. Obsessions

Which statement accurately describes obsessions? A. They are always acted upon physically B. They are experienced as intrusive and unwanted C. They occur only during sleep D. They are culturally encouraged practices

B. They are experienced as intrusive and unwanted

Which statement accurately reflects compulsions? A. They are always enjoyable activities B. They are performed only once C. They are performed in response to obsessions or rigid rules D. They eliminate all anxiety permanently

C. They are performed in response to obsessions or rigid rules

Accommodation in OCD-Related Disorders refers to: A. Changing residences due to stress B. Hospital admission for symptoms C. Medication adjustments D. Involvement of family and friends in compulsive rituals

D. Involvement of family and friends in compulsive rituals

Which of the following best distinguishes obsessions from compulsions? A. Obsessions are behaviors; compulsions are thoughts B. Obsessions trigger compulsions C. Compulsions occur before obsessions D. Compulsions are always voluntary habits

B. Obsessions trigger compulsions

The term “persistent complex bereavement disorder” was classified as: A. A subtype of PTSD B. A subtype of Adjustment Disorder C. Other specified in DSM-5 D. A mood disorder

C. Other specified in DSM-5

OCD-Related Disorders require that compulsions are performed: A. Without awareness B. Only in childhood C. In response to an obsession or according to rigid rules D. Only in social situations

C. In response to an obsession or according to rigid rules

The grief seen in Prolonged Grief Disorder is considered: A. Typical and culturally expected B. Mild and transient C. Limited to 3 months D. Far beyond what is typical or culturally expected

D. Far beyond what is typical or culturally expected

the preoccupation is with a physical defect or flaw that is actually observable by others A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder D. Obsessional Jealousy E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws

meets all the criteria for BDD except that the individual has not performed repetitive behaviors or mental acts in response to the appearance concerns A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder D. Obsessional Jealousy E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors

involves repetitive behaviors (other than hair pulling or skin picking) such as nail biting, lip biting, cheek chewing A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder D. Obsessional Jealousy E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder

a non-delusional preoccupation with a partner's perceived infidelity A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder D. Obsessional Jealousy E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

D. Obsessional Jealousy

persistent preoccupation with the belief that one emits a foul or offensive body odor, even when this is not noticed by others A. BD-like Disorder w/ Actual Flaws B. BD-like Disorder w/o Repetitive Behaviors C. Body-Focused Repetitive Behavior Disorder D. Obsessional Jealousy E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

E. Olfactory Reference Syndrome

Which disorder is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that are time-consuming and impair daily functioning? A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder B. Hoarding Disorder C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder D. Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder

C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

In Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, obsessions and compulsions must: A. Be limited to food and weight concerns B. Take more than 1 hour per day, cause significant distress, and impair functioning C. Involve only realistic everyday concerns D. Occur only during childhood

B. Take more than 1 hour per day, cause significant distress, and impair functioning

Obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder typically: A. Focus exclusively on food and weight B. Reflect accurate real-life concerns C. Always involve body image issues D. Do not involve real-life concerns and may include irrational or magical content

D. Do not involve real-life concerns and may include irrational or magical content

Which disorder involves a preoccupation with one or more perceived physical flaws that are not observable or appear slight to others? A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder B. Trichotillomania C. Hoarding Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

Individuals with Body Dysmorphic Disorder may engage in repetitive behaviors such as: A. Counting rituals B. Mirror checking and excessive grooming C. Saving newspapers D. Hair braiding

B. Mirror checking and excessive grooming

Mental acts associated with Body Dysmorphic Disorder include: A. Repeated calorie counting B. Comparing appearance with others C. Sorting objects by color D. Avoiding social gatherings

B. Comparing appearance with others

The specifier “With Muscle Dysmorphia” refers to individuals who: A. Believe their muscles are too large B. Think their body build is too small C. Avoid physical activity D. Have noticeable physical deformities

B. Think their body build is too small

Hoarding Disorder is primarily characterized by: A. Recurrent hair pulling B. Persistent difficulty discarding possessions regardless of value C. Obsessions about symmetry D. Excessive concern about body weight

B. Persistent difficulty discarding possessions regardless of value

The difficulty discarding items in Hoarding Disorder is due to: A. Financial investment in the items B. Legal obligations C. A perceived need to save them and distress associated with discarding D. Fear of contamination

C. A perceived need to save them and distress associated with discarding

The accumulation of possessions in Hoarding Disorder typically: A. Enhances organization B. Improves safety in the home C. Has no impact on living spaces D. Congests and clutters active living areas and compromises their intended use

D. Congests and clutters active living areas and compromises their intended use

Which condition is characterized in early infancy by severe hypotonia, poor appetite, and feeding difficulties, followed by excessive eating and morbid obesity in childhood? A. Muscle Dysmorphia B. Prader-Willi Syndrome C. Trichotillomania D. Excoriation Disorder

B. Prader-Willi Syndrome

The specifier “With Excessive Acquisition” in Hoarding Disorder applies when: A. Items are discarded too frequently B. The individual collects only valuable objects C. Difficulty discarding is accompanied by acquiring items not needed or without space D. Hoarding involves only animals

C. Difficulty discarding is accompanied by acquiring items not needed or without space

Animal Hoarding is categorized under: A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder C. Excoriation Disorder D. Hoarding Disorder

D. Hoarding Disorder

Trichotillomania is defined as: A. Recurrent skin picking resulting in lesions B. Recurrent pulling out of one's hair resulting in noticeable hair loss C. Obsessive thoughts about contamination D. Repetitive nail biting

B. Recurrent pulling out of one's hair resulting in noticeable hair loss

Individuals with Trichotillomania typically experience: A. Relief before pulling and tension afterward B. Indifference during hair pulling C. Increasing tension before pulling and pleasure or relief when pulling D. Immediate regret with no sense of relief

C. Increasing tension before pulling and pleasure or relief when pulling

A key feature of Trichotillomania is that: A. Hair pulling occurs only during stress B. Repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair pulling have been unsuccessful C. It involves obsessive concerns about body shape D. It is limited to childhood

B. Repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair pulling have been unsuccessful

Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder involves: A. Compulsive hair cutting B. Recurrent skin picking resulting in skin lesions C. Saving worn-out clothing D. Fear of germs

B. Recurrent skin picking resulting in skin lesions

Individuals with Excoriation Disorder have: A. Never attempted to stop skin picking B. Successfully stopped the behavior C. Made repeated attempts to decrease or stop skin picking D. Only mild cosmetic concerns

C. Made repeated attempts to decrease or stop skin picking

Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder must cause: A. Temporary embarrassment only B. Clinically significant distress or impairment C. Improved skin condition D. Financial hardship

B. Clinically significant distress or impairment

Which disorder is explicitly noted as not being limited to concerns about food and weight? A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder B. Hoarding Disorder C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder D. Trichotillomania

C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

In Body Dysmorphic Disorder, the perceived defects: A. Are always medically verified B. Are clearly visible and severe C. Are not observable or appear slight to others D. Only involve weight concerns

C. Are not observable or appear slight to others

The clutter seen in Hoarding Disorder substantially compromises: A. Financial resources B. Social relationships only C. Occupational performance exclusively D. The intended use of active living areas

D. The intended use of active living areas

Which disorder includes repeated unsuccessful attempts to stop the behavior and results in noticeable physical damage? A. Trichotillomania B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder C. Hoarding Disorder D. Prader-Willi Syndrome

A. Trichotillomania

Which disorder requires that the behavior cause clinically significant distress or impairment? A. Muscle Dysmorphia B. Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder C. Animal Hoarding D. Prader-Willi Syndrome

B. Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder

Which statement best describes Somatic Symptom Disorder and Related Disorders? A. Individuals experience physical symptoms that are distressing and significantly disrupt daily life, not fully explained by a medical condition B. Individuals intentionally falsify physical symptoms for financial gain C. Individuals have neurological symptoms fully explained by brain injury D. Individuals experience mild physical discomfort without disruption

A. Individuals experience physical symptoms that are distressing and significantly disrupt daily life, not fully explained by a medical condition

The primary focus in Somatic Symptom Disorder and Related Disorders is on the individual’s: A. Laboratory findings B. Genetic predisposition C. Thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to physical symptoms D. Family medical history

C. Thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to physical symptoms

Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by: A. Fear of contamination B. One or more distressing somatic symptoms with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to them C. Complete absence of physical symptoms D. Intentional symptom fabrication

B. One or more distressing somatic symptoms with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to them

For Somatic Symptom Disorder, the symptomatic state is typically persistent for: A. At least 1 month B. At least 3 months C. At least 12 months D. More than 6 months

D. More than 6 months

Illness Anxiety Disorder involves: A. Multiple unexplained neurological deficits B. Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite minimal or absent somatic symptoms C. Falsifying symptoms to assume a sick role D. Experiencing paralysis due to nerve damage

B. Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite minimal or absent somatic symptoms

A key feature of Illness Anxiety Disorder is: A. Indifference to health concerns B. Low levels of anxiety about health C. High levels of anxiety about health and being easily alarmed about personal health status D. Complete avoidance of thinking about illness

C. High levels of anxiety about health and being easily alarmed about personal health status

Individuals with Illness Anxiety Disorder may: A. Show no behavioral response to health concerns B. Engage in excessive health-related behaviors or avoid medical care C. Always seek emergency treatment daily D. Fabricate symptoms for attention

B. Engage in excessive health-related behaviors or avoid medical care

The minimum duration required for Illness Anxiety Disorder is: A. At least 2 weeks B. At least 1 month C. At least 3 months D. At least 6 months

D. At least 6 months

The Care-seeking and Care-avoidant types are subtypes of: A. Conversion Disorder B. Factitious Disorder C. Illness Anxiety Disorder D. Somatic Symptom Disorder

C. Illness Anxiety Disorder

Illness Anxiety Disorder without excessive health-related behaviors is classified as: A. Care-seeking type B. Other specified (Criterion D is not met) C. Conversion type D. Imposed on Another type

B. Other specified (Criterion D is not met)

Conversion Disorder involves symptoms that suggest a: A. Cardiovascular condition B. Neurological condition C. Gastrointestinal disorder D. Endocrine imbalance

B. Neurological condition

Which of the following is an example of a symptom seen in Conversion Disorder? A. Fever B. Hypertension C. Paralysis D. Diabetes

C. Paralysis

In Conversion Disorder, clinical findings typically show: A. Clear neurological damage B. Consistency with neurological pathways C. Evidence of infection D. Inconsistency between reported symptoms and recognized neurological pathways

D. Inconsistency between reported symptoms and recognized neurological pathways

Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions refers to situations where: A. Medical conditions cause psychological symptoms B. Psychological or behavioral factors adversely affect a medical condition C. Symptoms are intentionally produced D. No medical condition is present

B. Psychological or behavioral factors adversely affect a medical condition

Which example fits Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions? A. Anxiety worsening asthma B. Paralysis without neurological basis C. Fabricating symptoms for sympathy D. Fear of having cancer without symptoms

A. Anxiety worsening asthma

Factitious Disorder is characterized by: A. Unconscious production of symptoms B. Fear of developing illness C. Falsification of physical or psychological signs or symptoms associated with deception D. Neurological impairment with medical cause

C. Falsification of physical or psychological signs or symptoms associated with deception

In Factitious Disorder, the individual: A. Seeks financial compensation B. Presents themselves as sick, impaired, or injured C. Avoids medical attention at all costs D. Has symptoms fully explained by a medical diagnosis

B. Presents themselves as sick, impaired, or injured

A defining feature of Factitious Disorder is that the behavior occurs: A. Only when external rewards are present B. Due to misinterpretation of bodily sensations C. Even in the absence of obvious external rewards D. Only in childhood

C. Even in the absence of obvious external rewards

Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another involves: A. Presenting oneself as ill B. Avoiding medical treatment C. Exaggerating real symptoms unintentionally D. Presenting another individual as ill

D. Presenting another individual as ill

Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self involves: A. Inducing illness in a family member B. Presenting oneself to others as ill C. Avoiding all medical care D. Having excessive anxiety about health

B. Presenting oneself to others as ill

Which disorder includes motor or sensory symptoms not explained by neurological or medical conditions? A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Factitious Disorder C. Conversion Disorder D. Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions

C. Conversion Disorder

Excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to somatic symptoms are central to: A. Somatic Symptom Disorder B. Factitious Disorder C. Conversion Disorder D. Imposed on Another type

A. Somatic Symptom Disorder

Stress delaying wound healing is an example of: A. Conversion Disorder B. Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions C. Illness Anxiety Disorder D. Somatic Symptom Disorder

B. Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions

Which disorder requires identified deception? A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Conversion Disorder C. Somatic Symptom Disorder D. Factitious Disorder

D. Factitious Disorder

Preoccupation with acquiring a serious illness despite minimal symptoms most strongly indicates: A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Conversion Disorder C. Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self D. Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions

A. Illness Anxiety Disorder

Which of the following best characterizes eating disorders? A. Temporary changes in appetite without functional impact B. Persistent disturbances of eating or eating-related behavior resulting in altered consumption or absorption of food and significant impairment in physical health or psychosocial functioning C. Occasional overeating without distress D. Cultural food preferences that differ from societal norms

B. Persistent disturbances of eating or eating-related behavior resulting in altered consumption or absorption of food and significant impairment in physical health or psychosocial functioning

Which disorder is defined by persistently eating non-nutritive substances? A. Rumination Disorder B. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder C. Pica Disorder D. Binge Eating Disorder

C. Pica Disorder

For a diagnosis of Pica Disorder, the behavior must persist for at least: A. 2 weeks B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 month

D. 1 month

In Pica Disorder, the eating of non-nutritive substances must be: A. Motivated by weight loss B. Appropriate to developmental level C. Inappropriate to the developmental level of the individual D. Limited to food items only

C. Inappropriate to the developmental level of the individual

Rumination Disorder is characterized by: A. Eating large amounts of food rapidly B. Repeated regurgitation of food that is re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out C. Persistent fear of weight gain D. Refusal to eat due to distorted body image

B. Repeated regurgitation of food that is re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out

The minimum duration required for Rumination Disorder is: A. 1 month B. 1 week C. 3 months D. 6 months

A. 1 month

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) involves restricted intake due to: A. Fear of gaining weight B. Distorted body image C. Lack of interest in eating, sensory issues, or fear of negative consequences from eating D. Recurrent binge episodes

C. Lack of interest in eating, sensory issues, or fear of negative consequences from eating

ARFID may lead to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Nutritional deficiencies B. Weight loss C. Fear of weight gain D. Restricted food intake

C. Fear of weight gain

Which disorder focuses primarily on eating problems rather than weight concerns? A. Anorexia Nervosa B. ARFID C. Bulimia Nervosa D. Binge Eating Disorder

B. ARFID

Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Restricted food intake B. Intense fear of gaining weight C. Distorted perception of body weight and shape D. Normal body weight

D. Normal body weight

Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa are typically: A. Overweight B. Slightly underweight C. Very underweight D. Normal weight

C. Very underweight

Which of the following is NOT a subtype of Anorexia Nervosa? A. Binge-eating/purging type B. Restricting type C. Compensatory type D. All are subtypes

C. Compensatory type

A BMI of 17 or more in Anorexia Nervosa is classified as: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Extreme

A. Mild

A BMI between 16 and 17 in Anorexia Nervosa indicates: A. Extreme severity B. Severe C. Moderate D. Mild

C. Moderate

A BMI between 15 and 16 in Anorexia Nervosa is considered: A. Moderate B. Severe C. Mild D. Extreme

B. Severe

A BMI under 15 in Anorexia Nervosa is classified as: A. Moderate B. Mild C. Severe D. Extreme

D. Extreme

Bulimia Nervosa involves recurrent binge eating followed by: A. Food refusal B. Compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain C. Persistent regurgitation D. Sensory avoidance of food

B. Compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain

Individuals with Bulimia Nervosa are typically: A. Very underweight B. Obese C. Normal weight D. Severely malnourished

C. Normal weight

For Bulimia Nervosa, binge eating and compensatory behaviors must occur at least: A. Once a week for 1 month B. Once a week for 3 months C. Twice a week for 6 months D. Daily for 1 month

B. Once a week for 3 months

In Bulimia Nervosa, 1 to 3 episodes per week is considered: A. Severe B. Extreme C. Moderate D. Mild

D. Mild

In Bulimia Nervosa, 4 to 7 episodes per week is classified as: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Extreme

B. Moderate

In Bulimia Nervosa, 8 to 13 episodes per week indicates: A. Extreme B. Moderate C. Severe D. Mild

C. Severe

In Bulimia Nervosa, 14 or more episodes per week is considered: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Extreme

D. Extreme

Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by: A. Recurrent binge eating with regular compensatory behaviors B. Restricted intake due to fear of weight gain C. Recurrent episodes of eating large amounts of food with lack of control and no regular compensatory behaviors D. Persistent eating of non-food items

C. Recurrent episodes of eating large amounts of food with lack of control and no regular compensatory behaviors

Individuals with Binge Eating Disorder are usually: A. Very underweight B. Normal weight C. Underweight D. Overweight

D. Overweight

For Binge Eating Disorder, episodes must occur at least: A. Once a week for 3 months B. Twice a week for 6 months C. Once a week for 1 month D. Daily for 3 months

A. Once a week for 3 months

characterized by disturbances in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep A. Dyssomnias B. Parasomnias C. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders D. REM Sleep

A. Dyssomnias

involve abnormal behaviors, experiences, or physiological events that occur in association with sleep, specific sleep stages, or the transitions between sleep and wakefulness A. Dyssomnias B. Parasomnias C. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders D. REM Sleep

B. Parasomnias

characterized by abnormal breathing patterns during sleep that lead to disrupted sleep and other health problems A. Dyssomnias B. Parasomnias C. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders D. REM Sleep

C. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders

during which the majority of typical story-like dreams occur (20% - 25% of total sleep) A. Dyssomnias B. Parasomnias C. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders D. REM Sleep

D. REM Sleep

transition from wakefulness to sleep, and occupies about 5% of time spent asleep in healthy adults A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

A. Stage 1 (N1)

Light sleep A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

A. Stage 1 (N1)

characterized by specific electroencephalographic waveforms (sleep spindles and K-complexes), occupied about 50% of the time spent sleeping A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

B. Stage 2 (N2)

Deeper sleep A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

B. Stage 2 (N2)

slow wave sleep; deepest level of sleep A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

C. Stage 3 (N3)

Deep sleep A. Stage 1 (N1) B. Stage 2 (N2) C. Stage 3 (N3)

C. Stage 3 (N3)

Elimination disorders are characterized by: A. Excessive sleep during the daytime B. Inappropriate excretion of urine or feces C. Difficulty initiating sleep D. Repeated vomiting episodes

B. Inappropriate excretion of urine or feces

Enuresis is defined as: A. Repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places B. Dissatisfaction with sleep quality C. Repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes, whether involuntary or intentional D. Urination caused exclusively by medical conditions

C. Repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes, whether involuntary or intentional

Enuresis may involve: A. Repeated urination in inappropriate places B. Constipation with overflow incontinence C. Sleep dissatisfaction D. Fecal passage during waking hours only

A. Repeated urination in inappropriate places

Enuresis occurs in children who are at least: A. 3 years old B. 6 years old C. 4 years old D. 5 years old

D. 5 years old

For a diagnosis of enuresis, which of the following must be satisfied? A. The child must experience sleep impairment B. Frequency and duration criteria must be met C. Symptoms must occur only during the daytime D. There must be constipation

B. Frequency and duration criteria must be met

Enuresis can lead to: A. Improved peer relationships B. Increased academic performance C. Significant emotional distress and social problems D. Enhanced participation in sleepovers

C. Significant emotional distress and social problems

A child reluctant to attend sleepovers due to repeated nighttime urination is demonstrating: A. Diurnal enuresis B. Encopresis C. Emotional and social impact of enuresis D. Sleep disorder

C. Emotional and social impact of enuresis

Nocturnal enuresis occurs: A. During waking hours B. During sleep C. Only in the morning D. After six months of dryness

B. During sleep

Diurnal enuresis occurs: A. During sleep B. After six months of nighttime dryness C. During waking hours D. Only before age 4

C. During waking hours

Primary enuresis refers to children who: A. Begin wetting after six months of dryness B. Have never achieved consistent nighttime dryness C. Wet only during the day D. Experience constipation

B. Have never achieved consistent nighttime dryness

Secondary enuresis is identified when: A. The child has never been dry at night B. Bedwetting occurs only during naps C. Symptoms begin before age 4 D. Wetting starts after at least six months of nighttime dryness

D. Wetting starts after at least six months of nighttime dryness

Encopresis involves: A. Repeated voiding of urine into clothes B. Repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places C. Sleeping too much D. Difficulty staying asleep

B. Repeated passage of feces into inappropriate places

In encopresis, feces may be passed into: A. Only toilets B. Bed only C. Clothing or floor D. Bathtubs exclusively

C. Clothing or floor

For encopresis to be diagnosed, the behavior must occur at least: A. Once a week for one month B. Once a month for at least three months C. Daily for six months D. Twice a month for one year

B. Once a month for at least three months

The minimum age required for a diagnosis of encopresis is: A. 5 years old B. 6 years old C. 4 years old D. 3 years old

C. 4 years old

Encopresis with constipation and overflow incontinence is also known as: A. Nonretentive type B. Diurnal type C. Retentive type D. Secondary type

C. Retentive type

Encopresis without constipation and overflow incontinence is called: A. Retentive B. Nonretentive C. Primary D. Nocturnal

B. Nonretentive

Sleeping disorders involve dissatisfaction with: A. Eating patterns B. Urinary control C. Emotional regulation D. Quality, timing, and amount of sleep

D. Quality, timing, and amount of sleep

Sleeping disorders result in: A. Nighttime dryness B. Daytime distress and impairment C. Improved concentration D. Increased physical endurance

B. Daytime distress and impairment

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A. Primary enuresis – starts after six months of dryness B. Secondary enuresis – never achieved consistent dryness C. Nocturnal enuresis – occurs during sleep D. Diurnal enuresis – occurs only at night

C. Nocturnal enuresis – occurs during sleep

Which condition specifically requires the individual to be at least 4 years old? A. Enuresis B. Primary enuresis C. Secondary enuresis D. Encopresis

D. Encopresis

Which condition specifically requires the individual to be at least 5 years old? A. Sleeping disorders B. Encopresis C. Enuresis D. Retentive encopresis

C. Enuresis

Which best describes the predominant complaint in Insomnia Disorder? A. Excessive sleepiness despite sleeping more than nine hours B. Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality C. Recurrent irresistible need to sleep during the day D. Episodes of decreased respiration with elevated carbon dioxide

B. Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality

Insomnia Disorder requires symptoms to occur: A. At least 2 nights per week for 1 month B. Daily for at least 1 month C. At least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months D. At least 5 nights per week for 6 months

C. At least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months

Which of the following is included in Insomnia Disorder? A. Difficulty initiating sleep B. Cataplexy C. Central apneas D. Hypocretin deficiency

A. Difficulty initiating sleep

Rebound insomnia refers to: A. Increased REM sleep after deprivation B. Sleep problems reappearing, sometimes worse C. Sudden bilateral muscle weakness D. Excessive daytime sleepiness

B. Sleep problems reappearing, sometimes worse

Hypersomnolence Disorder involves excessive sleepiness despite: A. Sleeping less than five hours B. Frequent nighttime awakenings C. A main sleep period of at least seven hours D. Recurrent nightmares

C. A main sleep period of at least seven hours

A prolonged main sleep episode of more than nine hours that is nonrestorative is characteristic of: A. Narcolepsy B. Hypersomnolence Disorder C. Insomnia Disorder D. Nightmare Disorder

B. Hypersomnolence Disorder

Hypersomnolence Disorder requires symptoms to occur: A. 3 times per week for at least 3 months B. 5 times per week for 6 months C. Daily for 1 month D. Twice weekly for 2 months

A. 3 times per week for at least 3 months

Narcolepsy includes recurrent periods of irrepressible need to sleep occurring: A. Once weekly for 6 months B. At least three times per week for at least three months C. Nightly for one month D. Daily for one week

B. At least three times per week for at least three months

Sudden bilateral muscle weakness elicited by strong emotion is called: A. Hypopnea B. Cataplexy C. Apnea D. Hypoventilation

B. Cataplexy

Narcolepsy may be confirmed by REM sleep latency of: A. ≤10 minutes B. ≥20 minutes C. ≤15 minutes on MSLT D. ≥30 minutes on MSLT

C. ≤15 minutes on MSLT

In Obstructive Sleep Apnea, apnea refers to: A. Reduction in airflow B. Elevated carbon dioxide C. Absence of airflow D. Rapid breathing

C. Absence of airflow

Hypopnea is defined as: A. Absence of airflow B. Reduction in airflow C. Elevated REM latency D. Muscle weakness

B. Reduction in airflow

Obstructive Sleep Apnea requires at least how many obstructive apneas or hypopneas per hour of sleep? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 10

B. 4

Central Sleep Apnea is diagnosed with evidence of how many central apneas per hour of sleep? A. 3 or more B. 4 or more C. 5 or more D. 10 or more

C. 5 or more

Cheyne-Stokes Breathing is characterized by: A. Constant shallow breathing B. Progressive deeper breathing followed by gradual decrease and apnea C. Immediate apnea without breathing changes D. Rapid shallow breathing without pause

B. Progressive deeper breathing followed by gradual decrease and apnea

Sleep-Related Hypoventilation involves decreased respiration with: A. Decreased oxygen levels only B. Elevated carbon dioxide levels C. Increased REM sleep D. Muscle paralysis

B. Elevated carbon dioxide levels

Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorders involve: A. Repeated dysphoric dreams B. Airflow obstruction C. Mismatch between internal sleep-wake cycle and required schedule D. Bilateral muscle weakness

C. Mismatch between internal sleep-wake cycle and required schedule

Which is a type of Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorder? A. Cataplexy Type B. Delayed Sleep Phase C. Hypocretin Type D. Cheyne-Stokes Type

B. Delayed Sleep Phase

NREM Sleep Arousal Disorders include: A. Nightmares and REM behavior disorder B. Sleepwalking and sleep terrors C. Hypoventilation and apnea D. Narcolepsy and hypersomnolence

B. Sleepwalking and sleep terrors

Individuals with NREM Sleep Arousal Disorders: A. Are fully alert and oriented immediately B. Remember everything upon awakening C. Cannot remember anything when they woke up D. Experience REM sleep latency

C. Cannot remember anything when they woke up

NREM Sleep Arousal Disorders occur mostly: A. In adulthood during REM sleep B. In childhood during NREM sleep C. In adolescence during REM sleep D. In late adulthood during REM sleep

B. In childhood during NREM sleep

Nightmare Disorder involves dreams that are: A. Pleasant and brief B. Neutral and forgotten C. Extended, extremely dysphoric, and well-remembered D. Associated with amnesia

C. Extended, extremely dysphoric, and well-remembered

Upon awakening from a nightmare, individuals: A. Are confused and amnesic B. Cannot move C. Become oriented and alert D. Enter NREM sleep

C. Become oriented and alert

Nightmare Disorder occurs during: A. NREM sleep B. Stage 1 sleep C. REM sleep D. Sleep onset only

C. REM sleep

REM Sleep Behavior Disorder involves: A. Irrepressible need to sleep B. Vocalization and/or complex motor behaviors during sleep C. Elevated carbon dioxide D. Sleepwalking in childhood

B. Vocalization and/or complex motor behaviors during sleep

Restless Legs Syndrome is characterized by: A. Sudden muscle weakness from emotion B. Apnea episodes C. Urge to move the legs with unpleasant sensations D. Nonrestorative prolonged sleep

C. Urge to move the legs with unpleasant sensations

Restless Legs Syndrome must occur: A. Once weekly for 6 months B. 3 times per week for at least 3 months C. Daily for 1 month D. Twice weekly for 2 months

B. 3 times per week for at least 3 months

Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders encompass: A. Only problems related to alcohol use B. Only gambling behaviors C. A range of problems associated with psychoactive substances and addictive behaviors D. Sleep-related breathing disorders

C. A range of problems associated with psychoactive substances and addictive behaviors

These disorders are most notably associated with: A. Sleepwalking B. Gambling disorder C. Nightmare disorder D. Circadian rhythm disruption

B. Gambling disorder

A defining feature of Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders is: A. Occasional recreational use without impairment B. Compulsive engagement despite significant harmful consequences C. Mild physiological reaction only D. REM sleep disturbances

B. Compulsive engagement despite significant harmful consequences

Individuals with these disorders often experience: A. Improved occupational functioning B. Increased social functioning C. Loss of control over use or behavior D. Decreased mood variability only

C. Loss of control over use or behavior

Distress and impairment from these disorders may affect: A. Only physical health B. Health, relationships, work, and social functioning C. Sleep cycles exclusively D. Educational functioning only

B. Health, relationships, work, and social functioning

A substance is defined as: A. A naturally occurring vitamin B. A behavioral pattern C. A sleep-related chemical D. A chemical compound ingested to alter mood or behavior

D. A chemical compound ingested to alter mood or behavior

Psychoactive substances alter: A. Only motor coordination B. Mood, behavior, or both C. Sleep stages exclusively D. Blood oxygen levels

B. Mood, behavior, or both

Substance use refers to ingestion of psychoactive substances: A. In excessive amounts with severe impairment B. Leading to immediate physiological dependence C. In moderate amounts without significant interference in functioning D. Only in clinical settings

C. In moderate amounts without significant interference in functioning

Substance intoxication is: A. Long-term behavioral impairment B. A physiological reaction to ingested substances C. Loss of employment due to substance use D. A mismatch in circadian rhythm

B. A physiological reaction to ingested substances

How many separate classes of drugs are identified? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12

C. 10

Which of the following is classified under Alcohol? A. Energy drinks B. Various alcoholic beverages C. Marijuana D. Nitrites

B. Various alcoholic beverages

Caffeine includes: A. Coffee B. Tea C. Energy drinks D. Some medications E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Cannabis includes: A. Marijuana and hashish B. Cocaine and methamphetamine C. Fentanyl and codeine D. Diazepam and alprazolam

A. Marijuana and hashish

Which is listed under Hallucinogens? A. Oxycodone B. Methylphenidate C. Phencyclidine (PCP) D. Zolpidem

C. Phencyclidine (PCP)

LSD, psilocybin, mescaline, and DMT are categorized as: A. Opioids B. Other Hallucinogens C. Sedatives D. Stimulants

B. Other Hallucinogens

Inhalants include: A. Volatile solvents B. Aerosols C. Gases D. Nitrites E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following is an opioid? A. Heroin B. Cocaine C. Diazepam D. LSD

A. Heroin

Sedatives, Hypnotics, or Anxiolytics include: A. Methamphetamine B. Methylphenidate C. Benzodiazepines such as diazepam and alprazolam D. Cannabis

C. Benzodiazepines such as diazepam and alprazolam

Zolpidem is classified under: A. Sedatives B. Hypnotics C. Anxiolytics D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Amphetamine and methamphetamine are classified as: A. Opioids B. Hallucinogens C. Tobacco products D. Amphetamine-type stimulants

D. Amphetamine-type stimulants

Cocaine is classified under: A. Stimulants B. Sedatives C. Inhalants D. Cannabis

A. Stimulants

Methylphenidate is categorized as: A. An opioid B. A stimulant C. A hallucinogen D. A nitrite

B. A stimulant

“Other (or Unknown) Substances” refers to: A. Only newly discovered opioids B. Substances that do not fit neatly into the other classes C. All prescription medications D. All illegal drugs

B. Substances that do not fit neatly into the other classes

Gambling disorder is categorized under: A. Sleep-Wake Disorders B. Mood Disorders C. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders D. Anxiety Disorders

C. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders