Part 2 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

Which of the following best defines Substance Use Disorder?

A. A temporary condition that occurs only during intoxication

B. A cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating continued use despite significant substance- or behavior-related problems

C. A single behavioral symptom related to risky activities

D. A pattern of gambling behavior causing distress

B. A cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating continued use despite significant substance- or behavior-related problems

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Which of the following is one of the four major categories of symptoms for Substance Use Disorder?

A. Impaired Control
B. Fire-Setting Behavior
C. Deceitfulness or Theft
D. Fascination with Fire

A. Impaired Control

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Which pair represents the pharmacological criteria for Substance Use Disorder?

A. Risky use and social impairment
B. Intoxication and withdrawal
C. Tolerance and withdrawal
D. Impaired control and risky use

C. Tolerance and withdrawal

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Substance-Induced Disorders typically:

A. Develop exclusively before substance use begins

B. Are permanent psychiatric conditions

C. Occur only in adolescents

D. Develop during or soon after substance use or withdrawal

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Which of the following is included under Substance-Induced Disorders?

A. Conduct disorder

B. Substance-induced psychotic disorder

C. Oppositional defiant disorder

D. Gambling disorder

B. Substance-induced psychotic disorder

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Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Gambling Disorder?

A. At least 2 symptoms within 6 months

B. At least 3 symptoms within 24 months

C. At least 4 symptoms within 12 months

D. At least 5 symptoms within 6 months

C. At least 4 symptoms within 12 months

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Needing to gamble with increasing amounts of money to achieve excitement is an example of:

A. Social impairment

B. Impaired control

C. Risky use

D. A symptom of Gambling Disorder

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Gambling to escape problems or relieve feelings of helplessness is characteristic of:

A. Intermittent Explosive Disorder
B. Gambling Disorder
C. Conduct Disorder
D. Pyromania

B. Gambling Disorder

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Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders primarily involve:

A. Temporary intoxication symptoms

B. Self-control problems involving emotions and behaviors that violate rights or societal norms

C. Gambling-related distress only

D. Pharmacological tolerance

B. Self-control problems involving emotions and behaviors that violate rights or societal norms

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These disorders often emerge during:

A. Late adulthood
B. Middle adulthood
C. Childhood or adolescence
D. Infancy only

C. Childhood or adolescence

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Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) requires a pattern lasting at least:

A. 3 months
B. 12 months
C. 1 month
D. 6 months

D. 6 months

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Which behavior is characteristic of ODD?

A. Setting fires for pleasure
B. Deliberately annoying others
C. Stealing items for monetary gain
D. Physical aggression toward animals

B. Deliberately annoying others

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For ODD, the behavior must be directed toward:

A. A sibling only

B. At least one individual who is not a sibling

C. Authority figures exclusively

D. Strangers only

B. At least one individual who is not a sibling

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ODD does NOT include:

A. Angry/irritable mood

B. Argumentative/defiant behavior

C. Aggression toward people or property

D. Vindictiveness

C. Aggression toward people or property

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If criteria for DMDD (Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder) are met along with ODD, which diagnosis is given?

A. ODD only
B. Both ODD and DMDD
C. Neither diagnosis
D. DMDD

D. DMDD

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Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED) involves:

A. Planned aggression for revenge

B. Recurrent behavioral outbursts due to failure to control aggressive impulses

C. Persistent theft

D. Fire-setting for pleasure

B. Recurrent behavioral outbursts due to failure to control aggressive impulses

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In IED, verbal or physical aggression must occur:

A. Once weekly for 1 month
B. Twice weekly for 3 months
C. Daily for 6 months
D. Once monthly for 12 months

B. Twice weekly for 3 months

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The aggression in IED is typically:

A. Carefully premeditated

B. Motivated by financial gain

C. Grossly out of proportion to the provocation

D. Limited to siblings

C. Grossly out of proportion to the provocation

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Conduct Disorder involves:

A. A single impulsive act

B. Temporary irritability

C. Repetitive and persistent violation of rights or societal norms

D. Gambling-related lying

C. Repetitive and persistent violation of rights or societal norms

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For Conduct Disorder, at least how many behaviors must be present in the past 12 months?

A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four

C. Three

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At least one Conduct Disorder behavior must have occurred within the past:

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

B. 6 months

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Conduct Disorder subtypes may be specified based on:

A. Gender and income

B. Geographic region

C. Presence of substance use

D. Childhood-onset vs. adolescent-onset

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If criteria for both ODD and Conduct Disorder are met:

A. Only ODD is diagnosed

B. Only Conduct Disorder is diagnosed

C. Both diagnoses can be given

D. Neither diagnosis is given

C. Both diagnoses can be given

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Antisocial Personality Disorder (ASPD) is diagnosed in individuals:

A. Younger than 15

B. Aged 18 or older with evidence of Conduct Disorder before age 15

C. With ODD only

D. Only during adolescence

B. Aged 18 or older with evidence of Conduct Disorder before age 15

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Pyromania involves: A. Accidental fire-setting B. Fire-setting for monetary gain C. Deliberate and purposeful fire setting on more than one occasion D. Fire-setting to conceal crimes

C. Deliberate and purposeful fire setting on more than one occasion

Individuals with Pyromania experience: A. Fear when near fire B. Pleasure or relief when setting fires or witnessing their aftermath C. Indifference to fire D. Hallucinations commanding them to set fires

B. Pleasure or relief when setting fires or witnessing their aftermath

Fire-setting in Pyromania is NOT done for: A. Pleasure B. Curiosity C. Gratification D. Monetary gain

D. Monetary gain

Kleptomania involves stealing objects that are: A. Highly valuable for resale B. Needed for personal use C. Not needed for personal use or monetary value D. Taken as revenge

C. Not needed for personal use or monetary value

Before committing theft in Kleptomania, individuals experience: A. Joy B. Increasing tension C. Hallucinations D. Anger

B. Increasing tension

The theft in Kleptomania is NOT committed: A. For pleasure B. To relieve tension C. To express anger or vengeance D. With gratification

C. To express anger or vengeance

feeling disconnected from one’s body, thoughts, feelings, or sense of self A. Detachment B. Amnesia C. Identity Confusion

A. Detachment

difficulty remembering personal information, often related to traumatic events A. Detachment B. Amnesia C. Identity Confusion

B. Amnesia

feeling uncertain about one's identity, sense of self, or place in the world A. Detachment B. Amnesia C. Identity Confusion

C. Identity Confusion

experiencing distinct shifts in sense of self, behavior, consciousness, memory, perception, cognition, and/or sensory-motor functioning, as if experiencing different “selves” A. Identity Alteration B. Derealization C. Depersonalization

A. Identity Alteration

feeling that the external world is unreal, dreamlike, or distorted A. Identity Alteration B. Derealization C. Depersonalization

B. Derealization

feeling detached from one's own body, thoughts, feelings, or actions, as if one is an outside observer A. Identity Alteration B. Derealization C. Depersonalization

C. Depersonalization

Dissociative disorders are characterized by disruption or discontinuity in the normal integration of: A. Intelligence, language, and reasoning B. Consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behavior C. Appetite, sleep, and metabolism D. Reflexes and sensory thresholds

B. Consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behavior

How many dissociative disorders are identified? A. Two B. Four C. Three D. Five

C. Three

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is characterized by: A. A single personality with mood instability B. Hallucinations and delusions C. Persistent memory loss for childhood only D. Two or more distinct personality states that recurrently take control of behavior

D. Two or more distinct personality states that recurrently take control of behavior

Dissociative Identity Disorder was previously known as: A. Split Mind Syndrome B. Identity Confusion Disorder C. Multiple Personality Disorder D. Personality Fragmentation Syndrome

C. Multiple Personality Disorder

Individuals with Dissociative Identity Disorder experience memory gaps that are: A. Typical of normal aging B. Limited to childhood events C. Too extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness D. Only related to academic material

C. Too extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness

The host personality refers to: A. The dominant aggressive identity B. The personality that becomes the patient and asks for treatment C. The personality that appears only during sleep D. The identity formed during hypnosis

B. The personality that becomes the patient and asks for treatment

A “switch” in Dissociative Identity Disorder refers to: A. The suppression of traumatic memories B. The sudden recovery of lost memory C. The blending of all personalities into one D. The transition from one personality to another

D. The transition from one personality to another

Dissociative Identity Disorder is considered an extreme subtype of: A. Major Depressive Disorder B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder C. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) D. Schizophrenia

C. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

A hypnotic trance in Dissociative Identity Disorder involves: A. Heightened awareness of all surroundings B. Focus on one aspect of the world and vulnerability to suggestions C. Complete loss of consciousness D. Permanent identity change

B. Focus on one aspect of the world and vulnerability to suggestions

Dissociative Amnesia involves inability to recall: A. General knowledge learned in school B. Important autobiographical information, usually traumatic or stressful C. Names of acquaintances only D. Daily routines exclusively

B. Important autobiographical information, usually traumatic or stressful

Localized amnesia refers to: A. Loss of memory for one's entire life B. Loss of memory for a specific category of information C. Loss of memory for a specific period, often immediately after trauma D. Loss of memory from a specific time up to the present

C. Loss of memory for a specific period, often immediately after trauma

Selective amnesia involves: A. Loss of memory for all events during a period B. Loss of memory for some but not all events during a specific period C. Loss of procedural memory only D. Loss of childhood memories exclusively

B. Loss of memory for some but not all events during a specific period

Generalized amnesia is characterized by: A. Loss of memory for one’s entire life history B. Loss of memory for recent events only C. Loss of memory related to one person D. Loss of memory limited to traumatic experiences

A. Loss of memory for one’s entire life history

Continuous amnesia refers to: A. Memory loss for events during sleep B. Memory loss for one’s entire childhood C. Memory loss for events from a specific time up to the present D. Memory loss that occurs intermittently

C. Memory loss for events from a specific time up to the present

Systematized amnesia involves loss of memory for: A. A specific category of information B. All autobiographical data C. Events from birth to adolescence D. A single traumatic incident only

A. A specific category of information

Dissociative fugue involves: A. Hallucinations during travel B. Memory loss centered around a specific incident and an unexpected trip C. Paralysis following trauma D. Sudden emotional outbursts without memory loss

B. Memory loss centered around a specific incident and an unexpected trip

In dissociative fugue, individuals may: A. Remain in one place and refuse to move B. Travel unexpectedly and later be unable to remember why or how they arrived C. Recall every detail of their journey D. Only forget minor details of travel

B. Travel unexpectedly and later be unable to remember why or how they arrived

Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder involves: A. Multiple personalities taking control B. Memory loss for traumatic events C. Persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization, or both D. Sudden travel with identity confusion

C. Persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization, or both

Depersonalization is described as: A. Loss of memory for surroundings B. Experiences of unreality or detachment from surroundings C. Being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, sensations, body, or actions D. Forgetting one’s identity permanently

C. Being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, sensations, body, or actions

Derealization refers to: A. Feeling detached from one’s body B. Experiences of unreality or detachment with respect to surroundings C. Switching between identities D. Loss of autobiographical memory

B. Experiences of unreality or detachment with respect to surroundings

During derealization, surroundings may appear: A. Intensely vivid and colorful B. Completely invisible C. Dreamlike, foggy, lifeless, or visually distorted D. Perfectly normal but louder

C. Dreamlike, foggy, lifeless, or visually distorted

Dissociative disorders affect integration of all the following EXCEPT: A. Memory B. Identity C. Motor control D. Blood circulation

D. Blood circulation

Which subtype of dissociative amnesia involves loss of memory related to an abusive family member? A. Continuous amnesia B. Systematized amnesia C. Localized amnesia D. Generalized amnesia

B. Systematized amnesia

Which dissociative disorder specifically includes two or more distinct personality states? A. Dissociative Amnesia B. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder C. Dissociative Identity Disorder D. Dissociative Fugue

C. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Libido A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

A. Desire

initial phase characterized by sexual thoughts, fantasies, or the urge to have sex A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

A. Desire

involves the body’s initial responses to sexual stimulation, whether physical or mental A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

B. Excitement

Aroused A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

B. Excitement

represents the heightening of arousal, where the physical changes from the excitement phase become more intense and stabilize A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

C. Plateau

the peak or climax of sexual excitement, characterized by a sudden release of accumulated sexual tension A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

D. Orgasm

the body gradually returns to its pre-aroused state A. Desire B. Excitement C. Plateau D. Orgasm E. Resolution

E. Resolution

Sexual dysfunctions involve: A. Temporary dissatisfaction in a relationship B. A clinically significant disturbance in sexual orientation C. A clinically significant disturbance in a person’s ability to respond sexually or to experience sexual pleasure D. Occasional lack of interest in intimacy

C. A clinically significant disturbance in a person’s ability to respond sexually or to experience sexual pleasure

A sexual dysfunction that has been present since the individual became sexually active is classified as: A. Acquired B. Situational C. Generalized D. Lifelong

D. Lifelong

A sexual dysfunction that developed after a period of relatively normal sexual functioning is classified as: A. Lifelong B. Acquired C. Generalized D. Situational

B. Acquired

When a sexual dysfunction occurs in all or most sexual situations, it is described as: A. Situational B. Lifelong C. Generalized D. Acquired

C. Generalized

A dysfunction that occurs only in specific situations is classified as: A. Situational B. Generalized C. Lifelong D. Chronic

A. Situational

Delayed Ejaculation is characterized by: A. Ejaculation within one minute of penetration B. A marked delay in, marked infrequency of, or absence of ejaculation during sexual activity with a partner C. Reduced sexual fantasies D. Pain during vaginal penetration

B. A marked delay in, marked infrequency of, or absence of ejaculation during sexual activity with a partner

For Delayed Ejaculation to be diagnosed, symptoms must persist for at least: A. 3 months B. 1 year C. 6 months D. 2 months

C. 6 months

Erectile Disorder includes marked difficulty in: A. Experiencing orgasm B. Obtaining or maintaining an erection and/or marked decrease in erectile rigidity C. Ejaculating too quickly D. Experiencing sexual fantasies

B. Obtaining or maintaining an erection and/or marked decrease in erectile rigidity

Erectile Disorder symptoms must be present: A. Only in specific situations B. For at least 6 months and in almost or all occasions C. For 3 months in any situation D. Only during partnered sexual activity

B. For at least 6 months and in almost or all occasions

Female Orgasmic Disorder is characterized by: A. Pain during intercourse B. Immediate orgasm C. Persistent or recurrent delay in, infrequency of, or absence of orgasm, or markedly reduced intensity of orgasmic sensations D. Lack of sexual fantasies only

C. Persistent or recurrent delay in, infrequency of, or absence of orgasm, or markedly reduced intensity of orgasmic sensations

Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder involves: A. Rapid ejaculation B. Persistent or recurrent lack of sexual interest and/or lack of subjective sexual arousal or genital or nongenital sensations C. Pelvic floor muscle tightening D. Delayed ejaculation

B. Persistent or recurrent lack of sexual interest and/or lack of subjective sexual arousal or genital or nongenital sensations

Which of the following is a feature of Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder? A. Increased sexual desire B. Vaginal penetration without discomfort C. Marked vulvovaginal or pelvic pain during intercourse or attempts at penetration D. Reduced erectile rigidity

C. Marked vulvovaginal or pelvic pain during intercourse or attempts at penetration

Marked fear or anxiety in anticipation of genito-pelvic pain is associated with: A. Female Orgasmic Disorder B. Male Hypoactive Sexual Disorder C. Premature (Early) Ejaculation D. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

D. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

Marked tensing or tightening of the pelvic floor muscles during attempted vaginal penetration is characteristic of: A. Delayed Ejaculation B. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder C. Erectile Disorder D. Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder

B. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

Male Hypoactive Sexual Disorder is characterized by: A. Early ejaculation B. Pain during intercourse C. Persistently or recurrently deficient (or absent) sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity D. Difficulty maintaining erection

C. Persistently or recurrently deficient (or absent) sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity

Premature (Early) Ejaculation involves ejaculation: A. After prolonged stimulation exceeding 30 minutes B. Before penetration occurs C. Within approximately one minute following vaginal penetration and before the individual wishes it to occur D. Only in specific situations

C. Within approximately one minute following vaginal penetration and before the individual wishes it to occur

For Premature (Early) Ejaculation to meet criteria, the pattern must be present: A. For at least 6 months and in almost or all occasions B. For 3 months in some occasions C. Only during the first sexual experience D. Only in generalized situations

A. For at least 6 months and in almost or all occasions

Which classification describes a dysfunction present in all or most sexual situations? A. Situational B. Acquired C. Lifelong D. Generalized

D. Generalized

Which disorder is specifically defined by ejaculation occurring within approximately one minute following vaginal penetration? A. Delayed Ejaculation B. Premature (Early) Ejaculation C. Erectile Disorder D. Male Hypoactive Sexual Disorder

B. Premature (Early) Ejaculation

Which statement best characterizes Paraphilic Disorders? A. Temporary sexual curiosity that does not cause impairment B. Intense and persistent sexual interests other than normative sexual interests lasting at least 6 months and causing distress, impairment, or risk of harm C. Any unconventional sexual behavior regardless of duration D. Sexual identity confusion lasting less than 6 months

B. Intense and persistent sexual interests other than normative sexual interests lasting at least 6 months and causing distress, impairment, or risk of harm

The minimum duration required for a diagnosis of a Paraphilic Disorder is: A. 3 months B. 12 months C. 6 months D. 1 month

C. 6 months

Which disorder involves sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity? A. Frotteuristic Disorder B. Exhibitionistic Disorder C. Sexual Sadism Disorder D. Voyeuristic Disorder

D. Voyeuristic Disorder

Sexual arousal from exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting person is characteristic of: A. Exhibitionistic Disorder B. Voyeuristic Disorder C. Fetishistic Disorder D. Sexual Masochism Disorder

A. Exhibitionistic Disorder

Which disorder involves sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person? A. Sexual Sadism Disorder B. Frotteuristic Disorder C. Pedophilic Disorder D. Transvestic Disorder

B. Frotteuristic Disorder

Sexual arousal from being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer defines: A. Sexual Sadism Disorder B. Fetishistic Disorder C. Sexual Masochism Disorder D. Exhibitionistic Disorder

C. Sexual Masochism Disorder

Sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another person is characteristic of: A. Sexual Sadism Disorder B. Sexual Masochism Disorder C. Voyeuristic Disorder D. Frotteuristic Disorder

A. Sexual Sadism Disorder

For Pedophilic Disorder, the individual must: A. Be at least 18 years old and 3 years older than the child B. Be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the child C. Be at least 21 years old and 7 years older than the child D. Be any age older than the child

B. Be at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the child

Fetishistic Disorder involves sexual arousal from: A. Cross-dressing B. Prepubescent children C. Nonliving objects or non-genital body parts D. Being humiliated

C. Nonliving objects or non-genital body parts

Transvestic Disorder is defined by sexual arousal from cross-dressing accompanied by: A. Physical aggression B. Risk of legal consequences C. Social popularity D. Significant distress or impairment

D. Significant distress or impairment

Zoophilia refers to sexual attraction to: A. Corpses B. Urine C. Animals D. Enemas

C. Animals

Necrophilia refers to sexual attraction to: A. Corpses B. Animals C. Feces D. Nonliving objects

A. Corpses

Telephone Scatologia involves sexual arousal from: A. Cross-dressing B. Making obscene phone calls C. Observing others secretly D. Physical suffering

B. Making obscene phone calls

Urophilia involves sexual arousal related to: A. Enemas B. Feces C. Urine D. Non-genital body parts

C. Urine

Coprophilia involves sexual arousal related to: A. Feces B. Urine C. Animals D. Corpses

A. Feces

Klismaphilia involves sexual arousal related to: A. Beatings B. Enemas C. Cross-dressing D. Phone calls

B. Enemas

Gender Dysphoria refers to: A. Sexual attraction to nonliving objects B. Persistent cross-dressing without distress C. Conflict between physical/assigned gender at birth and deeply identified gender lasting at least 6 months D. Sexual interest in non-consenting individuals

C. Conflict between physical/assigned gender at birth and deeply identified gender lasting at least 6 months

The minimum duration required for Gender Dysphoria is: A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 12 months D. 6 months

D. 6 months

Which of the following is a feature of Gender Dysphoria? A. Strong desire to expose one’s genitals B. Strong desire to be rid of one's primary and/or secondary sex characteristics due to incongruence C. Sexual arousal from suffering D. Sexual attraction to animals

B. Strong desire to be rid of one's primary and/or secondary sex characteristics due to incongruence

A strong desire for the primary and/or secondary sex characteristics of the other gender is associated with: A. Fetishistic Disorder B. Exhibitionistic Disorder C. Gender Dysphoria D. Frotteuristic Disorder

C. Gender Dysphoria

Which of the following reflects a feature of Gender Dysphoria? A. Strong desire to be treated as the other gender B. Sexual arousal from making obscene calls C. Sexual arousal from rubbing against strangers D. Sexual attraction to nonliving objects

A. Strong desire to be treated as the other gender

A strong conviction that one has the typical feelings and reactions of the other gender is associated with: A. Pedophilic Disorder B. Gender Dysphoria C. Sexual Sadism Disorder D. Voyeuristic Disorder

B. Gender Dysphoria

Which condition specifically requires that sexual interests cause distress, impairment, or involve harm or risk of harm? A. Gender Dysphoria B. Zoophilia C. Paraphilic Disorders D. Klismaphilia

C. Paraphilic Disorders

Which disorder involves sexual arousal from cross-dressing with significant distress or impairment? A. Transvestic Disorder B. Fetishistic Disorder C. Exhibitionistic Disorder D. Sexual Masochism Disorder

A. Transvestic Disorder

Mood disorders are primarily characterized by: A. A disturbance in personality traits B. A significant disturbance in a person’s predominant mood C. Cognitive impairment without mood changes D. Isolated anxiety symptoms

B. A significant disturbance in a person’s predominant mood

Mood disorders involve which of the following mood disturbances? A. Only excessively low mood B. Only excessively elevated mood C. Excessively low mood or excessively elevated mood D. Rapid mood changes within minutes

C. Excessively low mood or excessively elevated mood

Excessively elevated mood in mood disorders is referred to as: A. Dysthymia B. Hypersomnia C. Mania or hypomania D. Catalepsy

C. Mania or hypomania

Depressive disorders are characterized by the presence of: A. Elevated energy and decreased need for sleep B. Sadness, emptiness, or irritability C. Psychotic hallucinations only D. Seasonal mood shifts only

B. Sadness, emptiness, or irritability

Depressive disorders are often accompanied by: A. Increased pleasure in activities B. Heightened concentration C. Loss of interest or pleasure in activities D. Increased physical strength

C. Loss of interest or pleasure in activities

Bipolar related disorders are characterized by significant shifts in: A. Appetite and digestion only B. Mood, energy, activity levels, concentration, and ability to carry out daily tasks C. Personality traits exclusively D. Intelligence quotient

B. Mood, energy, activity levels, concentration, and ability to carry out daily tasks

Psychotic features in mood disorders include: A. Phobias and compulsions B. Panic attacks C. Hallucinations and delusions D. Memory loss

C. Hallucinations and delusions

Mood-congruent psychotic features are: A. Unrelated to emotional state B. Directly related to the depression C. Present only during mania D. Limited to auditory hallucinations

B. Directly related to the depression

Mood-incongruent psychotic features: A. Are consistent with the depressed mood B. Occur only during hypomania C. Are always mild D. Do not seem consistent with the depressed mood

D. Do not seem consistent with the depressed mood

The anxious distress specifier indicates: A. Absence of anxiety B. Presence and severity of accompanying anxiety C. Psychotic symptoms D. Seasonal mood changes

B. Presence and severity of accompanying anxiety

Anxious distress increases the likelihood of: A. Improved daily functioning B. Mania C. Suicidal thoughts and completed suicide D. Catalepsy

C. Suicidal thoughts and completed suicide

The mixed features specifier requires: A. At least 3 symptoms of depression B. At least 3 symptoms of anxiety C. At least 3 symptoms of mania D. At least 3 psychotic symptoms

C. At least 3 symptoms of mania

Melancholic features can be applied only if: A. Bipolar disorder is diagnosed B. Full criteria for Major Depressive Episode (MDE) have been met C. Catatonia is present D. Anxiety is severe

B. Full criteria for Major Depressive Episode (MDE) have been met

Which of the following is a somatic symptom associated with melancholic features? A. Increased appetite B. Early-morning awakenings C. Increased libido D. Mood reactivity

B. Early-morning awakenings

Weight loss, loss of libido, and excessive guilt are associated with: A. Atypical features B. Catatonic features C. Melancholic features D. Seasonal pattern

C. Melancholic features

Catatonic features can be applied to: A. Only manic episodes B. Only depressive episodes in personality disorders C. MDE, whether they occur in a personality disorder or not, and even with a manic episode (rare) D. Seasonal depression only

C. MDE, whether they occur in a personality disorder or not, and even with a manic episode (rare)

Catalepsy is characterized by: A. Rapid speech and agitation B. Absence of movement with waxy, semirigid muscles C. Increased motor activity D. Frequent crying spells

B. Absence of movement with waxy, semirigid muscles

Atypical features apply to: A. Only bipolar disorder B. Only melancholic depression C. Both depressive episodes, whether in the context of PDD or not D. Only manic episodes

C. Both depressive episodes, whether in the context of PDD or not

Individuals with atypical features typically: A. Experience insomnia and weight loss B. Oversleep and overeat during depression C. Have no appetite changes D. Never gain weight

B. Oversleep and overeat during depression

During depression with atypical features, individuals may: A. Be unable to experience any pleasure B. Show no mood changes C. React with interest or pleasure to some things D. Develop catalepsy

C. React with interest or pleasure to some things

Atypical features are associated with: A. Greater percentage of women and earlier age onset B. Greater percentage of men and later onset C. Only postpartum onset D. Only seasonal pattern

A. Greater percentage of women and earlier age onset

The peripartum onset specifier can apply to: A. Only MDE B. Only manic episodes C. Both MDE and manic episode D. Only atypical depression

C. Both MDE and manic episode

Higher incidence of depression postpartum is associated with: A. Decreased stress B. Serious thoughts of harming oneself C. Immediate resolution of symptoms D. Increased physical stamina

B. Serious thoughts of harming oneself

Mothers with peripartum onset may experience: A. Difficulty understanding why she is depressed B. Complete emotional numbness only C. Absence of stress D. Exclusive manic symptoms

A. Difficulty understanding why she is depressed

Extreme stress in peripartum onset can be brought on by: A. Excessive exercise B. Social celebrations C. Physical exhaustion D. Seasonal changes

C. Physical exhaustion

Baby Blues are: A. A severe form of MDE B. Normal responses to the stresses of childbirth that disappear quickly C. Always associated with psychosis D. A type of manic episode

B. Normal responses to the stresses of childbirth that disappear quickly

The seasonal pattern specifier applies to: A. Any single episode of depression B. Recurrent MDD C. Bipolar disorder only D. Catatonia only

B. Recurrent MDD

Seasonal pattern depression typically: A. Begins in summer and ends in fall B. Begins in late fall and ends with the beginning of spring C. Occurs randomly throughout the year D. Lasts less than one month

B. Begins in late fall and ends with the beginning of spring

For seasonal pattern to be specified, episodes must have occurred for at least: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 5 years

C. 2 years

Seasonal pattern requires: A. Presence of nonseasonal MDE B. No evidence of nonseasonal MDE C. Co-occurring psychotic features D. Presence of catalepsy

B. No evidence of nonseasonal MDE

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) is primarily diagnosed in: A. Older adults B. Children and adolescents C. Individuals over 21 years D. Postpartum women

B. Children and adolescents

DMDD is characterized by severe and recurrent temper outbursts occurring: A. Once per week B. Twice per month C. 3 or more times per week D. Only during school hours

C. 3 or more times per week

For a diagnosis of DMDD, symptoms must be present for at least: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 2 years D. 1 month

B. 12 months

DMDD symptoms must be present in: A. At least 2 settings and severe in at least 1 B. Only the home setting C. Only academic settings D. All settings equally

A. At least 2 settings and severe in at least 1

The onset of DMDD should occur between: A. Birth and 5 years B. 10 and 21 years C. 6 and 18 years D. 18 and 25 years

C. 6 and 18 years

For DMDD, age onset must be before: A. 6 years B. 10 years C. 12 years D. 18 years

B. 10 years

DMDD symptoms do NOT occur exclusively during: A. Hypomanic episodes B. Cyclothymic disorder C. Major Depressive Episode (MDE) D. Manic episodes

C. Major Depressive Episode (MDE)

A diagnosis of DMDD requires that there has never been a distinct period lasting more than one day meeting full criteria for: A. Major Depressive Episode B. Manic or hypomanic episode C. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder D. Persistent Depressive Disorder

B. Manic or hypomanic episode

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) requires symptoms lasting at least: A. 1 week B. 10 days C. 2 weeks D. 1 month

C. 2 weeks

Core symptoms of MDD include persistent sadness or: A. Increased motivation B. Loss of interest C. Elevated mood D. Increased appetite only

B. Loss of interest

Additional symptoms of MDD may include: A. Increased physical strength B. Changes in appetite and sleep C. Grandiosity D. Decreased energy requirement

B. Changes in appetite and sleep

For a diagnosis of MDD, there has never been a: A. Depressive episode B. Anxiety disorder C. Manic or hypomanic episode D. Seasonal pattern

C. Manic or hypomanic episode

Persistent Depressive Disorder (PDD) is also known as: A. Cyclothymia B. Dysthymia C. Bipolar II D. Double Depression

B. Dysthymia

In adults, PDD symptoms must last for at least: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 18 months D. 2 years

D. 2 years

In children and adolescents, PDD symptoms must last for at least: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years

B. 1 year

Double Depression refers to individuals who: A. Experience two manic episodes B. Have both MDE (Major Depressive Disorder) and PDD (Persistent Depressive Disorder) with fewer symptoms C. Have Bipolar I Disorder D. Experience only seasonal depression

B. Have both MDE (Major Depressive Disorder) and PDD (Persistent Depressive Disorder) with fewer symptoms

Early onset PDD is defined as onset before: A. 18 years B. 25 years C. 21 years D. 30 years

C. 21 years

Late onset PDD is defined as onset at age: A. 21 years or older B. 18 years or older C. 25 years or older D. 30 years or older

A. 21 years or older

Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) is related to: A. Pregnancy B. Menstrual cycle C. Adolescence D. Menopause

B. Menstrual cycle

PMDD symptoms occur during: A. The week after menstruation B. Ovulation only C. The final week before the onset of menses D. Throughout the entire month

C. The final week before the onset of menses

For PMDD, at least how many symptoms must be present? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

C. Five

Bipolar I Disorder requires: A. At least one hypomanic episode only B. At least one manic episode C. At least one major depressive episode D. Two depressive episodes

B. At least one manic episode

A manic episode in Bipolar I Disorder must last at least: A. 3 days B. 4 days C. 1 week D. 2 weeks

C. 1 week

A manic episode involves abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood along with: A. Decreased activity B. Increased activity or energy C. Isolation from others D. Decreased concentration only

B. Increased activity or energy

In Bipolar I Disorder, depressive episodes are: A. Required for diagnosis B. Not allowed C. Rare and prohibited D. Common but not required for diagnosis

D. Common but not required for diagnosis

Bipolar II Disorder requires at least one major depressive episode and at least one: A. Manic episode B. Hypomanic episode C. Cyclothymic episode D. Mixed episode only

B. Hypomanic episode

Bipolar II Disorder requires that the individual must NOT have experienced: A. Hypomania B. Depression C. A full manic episode D. Mood swings

C. A full manic episode

Cyclothymic Disorder involves numerous periods of: A. Full manic and full depressive episodes B. Hypomanic and depressive symptoms not meeting full criteria for MDE or manic episode C. Only depressive symptoms D. Only hypomanic symptoms

B. Hypomanic and depressive symptoms not meeting full criteria for MDE or manic episode

In adults, Cyclothymic Disorder mood swings must persist for at least: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 18 months D. 2 years

D. 2 years

In children and adolescents, Cyclothymic Disorder mood swings must persist for at least: A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years

B. 1 year

Personality disorders are best defined as: A. Temporary emotional reactions to stress B. Enduring and inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, behaving, and relating to others that deviate markedly from cultural expectations C. Sudden psychotic episodes with hallucinations D. Mood disturbances lasting at least two weeks

B. Enduring and inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, behaving, and relating to others that deviate markedly from cultural expectations

Which cluster of personality disorders is characterized as odd or eccentric? A. Cluster B B. Cluster C C. Cluster A D. Cluster D

C. Cluster A

Cluster B personality disorders are described as: A. Anxious or fearful B. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic C. Odd and withdrawn D. Perfectionistic and rigid

B. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic

Cluster C personality disorders are primarily described as: A. Dramatic and impulsive B. Odd and eccentric C. Anxious or fearful D. Aggressive and deceitful

C. Anxious or fearful

A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others and their motives is characteristic of: A. Schizoid Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder D. Avoidant Personality Disorder

B. Paranoid Personality Disorder

Persistently bearing grudges is a feature of: A. Paranoid Personality Disorder B. Dependent Personality Disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A. Paranoid Personality Disorder

Which personality disorder includes reluctance to confide in others due to fear that information will be used maliciously? A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder

B. Paranoid Personality Disorder

“I cannot trust people” best reflects which personality disorder? A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

B. Paranoid Personality Disorder

Paranoid Personality Disorder occurs in: A. Males only B. Females only C. Males more than females D. Males and females equally

D. Males and females equally

Detachment from social relationships and restricted emotional expression are hallmarks of: A. Schizoid Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder

A. Schizoid Personality Disorder

A person who neither desires nor enjoys close relationships most likely has: A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Schizoid Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

B. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Emotional coldness and flattened affect are characteristic of: A. Schizoid Personality Disorder B. Paranoid Personality Disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder D. Borderline Personality Disorder

A. Schizoid Personality Disorder

“Relationships are messy and undesirable” best reflects: A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder C. Schizoid Personality Disorder D. Dependent Personality Disorder

C. Schizoid Personality Disorder

Schizoid Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Females B. Males C. Equal in males and females D. Children only

B. Males

Acute discomfort in close relationships combined with cognitive or perceptual distortions describes: A. Paranoid Personality Disorder B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Ideas of reference involve: A. Accurate interpretations of others’ behavior B. Beliefs that one is superior to others C. False beliefs that random events relate directly to oneself D. Fear of abandonment

C. False beliefs that random events relate directly to oneself

Odd beliefs or magical thinking are features of: A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder B. Schizoid Personality Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder D. Dependent Personality Disorder

A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Excessive social anxiety and lack of close friends (other than relatives) are typical of: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Histrionic Personality Disorder

B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

“It’s better to be isolated from others” reflects: A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Borderline Personality Disorder

A. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Schizotypal Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Females B. Males C. Equal in males and females D. Adolescents only

B. Males

Disregard for and violation of the rights of others is central to: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Antisocial Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Avoidant Personality Disorder

B. Antisocial Personality Disorder

A diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder requires the individual to be at least: A. 15 years old B. 16 years old C. 18 years old D. 21 years old

C. 18 years old

Evidence of conduct disorder must have onset before age: A. 10 years B. 12 years C. 15 years D. 18 years

C. 15 years

The Underarousal Hypothesis suggests that psychopaths: A. Have heightened emotional sensitivity B. Have abnormally low levels of cortical arousal C. Experience excessive fear D. Avoid social interaction

B. Have abnormally low levels of cortical arousal

The Fearlessness Hypothesis proposes that psychopaths: A. Are easily frightened B. Avoid risky situations C. Have a higher threshold for experiencing fear D. Fear abandonment

C. Have a higher threshold for experiencing fear

“I’m entitled to break rules” best reflects: A. Antisocial Personality Disorder B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A. Antisocial Personality Disorder

Antisocial Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Females B. Males C. Equal in males and females D. Older adults only

B. Males

Instability in relationships, self-image, affect, and impulsivity characterizes: A. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder D. Avoidant Personality Disorder

B. Borderline Personality Disorder

Frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment are seen in: A. Dependent Personality Disorder B. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Paranoid Personality Disorder D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

B. Borderline Personality Disorder

Chronic feelings of emptiness are characteristic of: A. Borderline Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A. Borderline Personality Disorder

“Sad girl/boy” is most closely associated with: A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

B. Borderline Personality Disorder

Borderline Personality Disorder occurs in: A. Males only B. Females only C. Females more than males D. Males and females equally

D. Males and females equally

Excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior define: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Dependent Personality Disorder

B. Histrionic Personality Disorder

Being uncomfortable when not the center of attention suggests: A. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Schizoid Personality Disorder D. Paranoid Personality Disorder

A. Histrionic Personality Disorder

“Ako ang bida” best represents: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

B. Histrionic Personality Disorder

Histrionic Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Males B. Equal in males and females C. Females D. Children

C. Females

A sense of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy characterize: A. Histrionic Personality Disorder B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder C. Antisocial Personality Disorder D. Borderline Personality Disorder

B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A belief that one is “special” and unique is typical of: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

“I’m the greatest in the world” reflects: A. Antisocial Personality Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

Narcissistic Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Females B. Males C. Equal in males and females D. Adolescents only

B. Males

Social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation describe: A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Dependent Personality Disorder C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder D. Paranoid Personality Disorder

A. Avoidant Personality Disorder

“I’m avoiding them because I’m afraid of rejection” reflects: A. Schizoid Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Dependent Personality Disorder D. Borderline Personality Disorder

B. Avoidant Personality Disorder

Avoidant Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Males B. Equal in males and females C. Females D. Children

C. Females

An excessive need to be taken care of leading to submissive and clinging behavior describes: A. Dependent Personality Disorder B. Avoidant Personality Disorder C. Histrionic Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A. Dependent Personality Disorder

Difficulty making everyday decisions without excessive advice and reassurance is characteristic of: A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder B. Dependent Personality Disorder C. Paranoid Personality Disorder D. Antisocial Personality Disorder

B. Dependent Personality Disorder

“I need others to survive every day” best reflects: A. Avoidant Personality Disorder B. Dependent Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

B. Dependent Personality Disorder

Dependent Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Males B. Equal in males and females C. Females D. Adolescents

C. Females

A preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control at the expense of flexibility describes: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder C. Paranoid Personality Disorder D. Histrionic Personality Disorder

B. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

Reluctance to delegate tasks and a miserly spending style are features of: A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder B. Dependent Personality Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder D. Borderline Personality Disorder

A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

“I’m a perfectionist” best represents: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder B. Antisocial Personality Disorder C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder D. Histrionic Personality Disorder

C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is more common in: A. Females B. Equal in males and females C. Males D. Children

C. Males

Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders are characterized primarily by: A. Mood instability B. Cognitive decline only C. Disconnection from reality D. Personality changes

C. Disconnection from reality

The term used to describe a disconnection from reality is: A. Neurosis B. Psychosis C. Mania D. Dissociation

B. Psychosis

Who outlined a description of schizophrenia symptoms in Observations on Madness and Melancholy? A. Philippe Pinel B. Emil Kraepelin C. John Haslam D. Eugene Bleuler

C. John Haslam

Who described cases of schizophrenia as a French physician? A. Philippe Pinel B. John Haslam C. Eugene Bleuler D. Benedict Morel

A. Philippe Pinel

The term “demence precoce” meaning early or premature loss of mind was introduced by: A. Emil Kraepelin B. Benedict Morel C. Philippe Pinel D. John Haslam

B. Benedict Morel

Who unified distinct categories of schizophrenia under the name “dementia praecox”? A. Eugene Bleuler B. John Haslam C. Philippe Pinel D. Emil Kraepelin

D. Emil Kraepelin

Which subtype involves alternating immobility and excited agitation? A. Hebephrenia B. Paranoia C. Catatonia D. Erotomania

C. Catatonia

Silly and immature emotionality is characteristic of: A. Hebephrenia B. Catatonia C. Paranoia D. Nihilism

A. Hebephrenia

Delusions of grandeur or persecution are characteristic of: A. Hebephrenia B. Paranoia C. Catatonia D. Somatic type

B. Paranoia

Who introduced the term “schizophrenia” meaning splitting of the mind? A. Benedict Morel B. Emil Kraepelin C. Eugene Bleuler D. Philippe Pinel

C. Eugene Bleuler

The term used to describe a mother believed to cause schizophrenia due to cold and rejecting behavior is: A. Double bind mother B. Schizophrenogenic mother C. Detached caregiver D. Pathogenic parent

B. Schizophrenogenic mother

Double bind communication refers to: A. Clear and supportive messages B. Nonverbal cues only C. Conflicting messages that produce confusion D. Repetitive speech patterns

C. Conflicting messages that produce confusion

False beliefs firmly held despite contradictory evidence are called: A. Hallucinations B. Illusions C. Delusions D. Obsessions

C. Delusions

Believing one is being harmed or plotted against describes which type of delusion? A. Grandiose B. Persecutory C. Nihilistic D. Somatic

B. Persecutory

Believing that common cues have special meaning directed at oneself is a: A. Referential delusion B. Erotomanic delusion C. Thought insertion D. Capgras syndrome

A. Referential delusion

The belief that one has exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame is: A. Nihilistic B. Grandiose C. Somatic D. Referential

B. Grandiose

The false belief that another person is in love with oneself is: A. Persecutory B. Nihilistic C. Erotomanic D. Somatic

C. Erotomanic

Belief that a major catastrophe will occur is: A. Nihilistic B. Grandiose C. Somatic D. Referential

A. Nihilistic

The belief that thoughts have been removed by an outside force is: A. Thought insertion B. Delusion of control C. Thought withdrawal D. Clang association

C. Thought withdrawal

The belief that thoughts have been placed into one’s mind is: A. Thought insertion B. Thought withdrawal C. Delusion of reference D. Circumstantiality

A. Thought insertion

Believing one’s actions are controlled by someone else is: A. Somatic delusion B. Delusion of control C. Nihilistic delusion D. Clang association

B. Delusion of control

The belief that a familiar person has been replaced by a double is: A. Fregoli syndrome B. Cotard’s syndrome C. Capgras syndrome D. de Clérambault’s syndrome

C. Capgras syndrome

The belief that one is dead is known as: A. Capgras syndrome B. Cotard’s syndrome C. Fregoli syndrome D. Grandiose delusion

B. Cotard’s syndrome

The delusion that different people are actually one person in disguise is: A. Capgras syndrome B. Fregoli syndrome C. Nihilistic delusion D. Thought insertion

B. Fregoli syndrome

Sensory experiences without an external stimulus are called: A. Delusions B. Illusions C. Hallucinations D. Neologisms

C. Hallucinations

Hallucinations occurring while falling asleep are: A. Hypnopompic B. Auditory C. Hypnagogic D. Visual

C. Hypnagogic

The most common type of hallucination is: A. Gustatory B. Visual C. Tactile D. Auditory

D. Auditory

Switching from one topic to another is known as: A. Circumstantiality B. Derailment C. Concrete thinking D. Clang association

B. Derailment

Excessive and irrelevant detail with eventual return to the point is: A. Loose association B. Tangentiality C. Circumstantiality D. Word salad

C. Circumstantiality

Creating new words with no meaning is called: A. Neologism B. Clang association C. Word salad D. Concrete thinking

A. Neologism

A combination of words with no meaning is: A. Loose association B. Word salad C. Neologism D. Circumstantiality

B. Word salad

A state of marked motor abnormalities including immobility or excessive movement is: A. Hebephrenia B. Paranoia C. Catatonia D. Avolition

C. Catatonia

Negative symptoms generally reflect: A. Excess of normal behavior B. Absence or insufficiency of normal behavior C. Delusional thinking only D. Hallucinations only

B. Absence or insufficiency of normal behavior

Reduced emotional expression is called: A. Avolition B. Anhedonia C. Flat affect D. Asociality

C. Flat affect

Lack of motivation to initiate and persist in activities is: A. Alogia B. Avolition C. Anhedonia D. Tangentiality

B. Avolition

Reduced speech output is: A. Alogia B. Anhedonia C. Asociality D. Clang association

A. Alogia

Inability to experience pleasure is: A. Avolition B. Asociality C. Anhedonia D. Flat affect

C. Anhedonia

Lack of interest in social interactions is: A. Asociality B. Alogia C. Circumstantiality D. Concrete thinking

A. Asociality

no psychomotor activity; not actively relating to the environment A. Stupor B. Catalepsy C. Waxy flexibility D. Mutism E. Negativism

A. Stupor

passive induction of a posture held against gravity A. Stupor B. Catalepsy C. Waxy flexibility D. Mutism E. Negativism

B. Catalepsy

slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner A. Stupor B. Catalepsy C. Waxy flexibility D. Mutism E. Negativism

C. Waxy flexibility

no or very little verbal response, exclude if aphasia A. Stupor B. Catalepsy C. Waxy flexibility D. Mutism E. Negativism

D. Mutism

opposition or no response to instructions or external stimuli A. Stupor B. Catalepsy C. Waxy flexibility D. Mutism E. Negativism

E. Negativism

spontaneous & active maintenance of posture against gravity A. Posturing B. Mannerism C. Stereotypy

A. Posturing

odd, circumstantial caricature of normal actions A. Posturing B. Mannerism C. Stereotypy

B. Mannerism

repetitive, abnormally frequent, non-goal-directed movements A. Posturing B. Mannerism C. Stereotypy

C. Stereotypy

not influenced by external stimuli A. Agitation B. Ecolalia C. Echopraxia

A. Agitation

mimicking another’s speech A. Agitation B. Ecolalia C. Echopraxia

B. Ecolalia

mimicking another’s movement A. Agitation B. Ecolalia C. Echopraxia

C. Echopraxia

Which disorder is characterized by one or more delusions lasting 1 month or longer? A. Brief Psychotic Disorder B. Schizophreniform Disorder C. Delusional Disorder D. Schizoaffective Disorder

C. Delusional Disorder

In Delusional Disorder, the delusions are best described as: A. Flexible beliefs influenced by evidence B. Fixed, false beliefs held despite clear contradictory evidence C. Mild suspicions that fluctuate D. Beliefs accompanied by prominent negative symptoms

B. Fixed, false beliefs held despite clear contradictory evidence

Which feature is typically absent in Delusional Disorder? A. Negative symptoms B. Delusions C. Fixed beliefs D. Duration of at least one month

A. Negative symptoms

Compared to schizophrenia, functioning in Delusional Disorder is generally: A. More severely impaired B. Identical C. Better D. Completely absent

C. Better

Delusional Disorder is associated with the absence of: A. Mood episodes B. Active phase of schizophrenia C. Residual symptoms D. Prodromal symptoms

B. Active phase of schizophrenia

Shared Psychotic Disorder (Folie à Deux) involves: A. Two individuals independently developing psychosis B. Delusions caused by substance use C. A mood episode with psychosis D. Development of delusions due to a close relationship with a delusional individual

D. Development of delusions due to a close relationship with a delusional individual

Which of the following is a recognized type of Delusional Disorder? A. Catatonic B. Bipolar C. Erotomanic D. Residual

C. Erotomanic

Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the sudden onset of at least: A. Two psychotic symptoms B. One psychotic symptom C. Three negative symptoms D. One mood episode

B. One psychotic symptom

The duration of Brief Psychotic Disorder is: A. At least one month but less than six months B. At least six months C. Less than one day D. At least one day but less than one month

D. At least one day but less than one month

After Brief Psychotic Disorder, individuals experience: A. Persistent cognitive decline B. Full return to premorbid functioning C. Chronic residual symptoms D. Ongoing mood symptoms

B. Full return to premorbid functioning

Schizophreniform Disorder lasts: A. Less than one month B. At least one month but less than six months C. More than six months D. Exactly six months

B. At least one month but less than six months

If symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder persist beyond six months, the diagnosis is typically changed to: A. Delusional Disorder B. Brief Psychotic Disorder C. Schizophrenia or Schizoaffective Disorder D. Bipolar Disorder

C. Schizophrenia or Schizoaffective Disorder

Schizophrenia requires at least how many characteristic symptoms? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

B. Two

Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of schizophrenia? A. Somatic complaints only B. Anxiety attacks C. Delusions D. Personality changes only

C. Delusions

Continuous signs of schizophrenia must persist for at least: A. One month B. Three months C. Six months D. One year

C. Six months

Schizoaffective Disorder involves a combination of psychotic symptoms and: A. Anxiety disorder B. Personality disorder C. Major mood episode D. Somatic symptom disorder

C. Major mood episode

In Schizoaffective Disorder, delusions or hallucinations must be present without mood symptoms for at least: A. One week B. Two weeks C. One month D. Six months

B. Two weeks

In Schizoaffective Disorder, mood episode symptoms must be present for: A. A minority of the illness duration B. Only during the prodromal phase C. The majority of the total duration of active and residual portions D. Less than two weeks total

C. The majority of the total duration of active and residual portions

The types of Schizoaffective Disorder include: A. Catatonic and Paranoid B. Bipolar and Depressive C. Residual and Acute D. Somatic and Grandiose

B. Bipolar and Depressive

The Prodromal Phase of schizophrenia is characterized by: A. Severe hallucinations and delusions B. Sudden onset of grossly disorganized behavior C. Subtle changes without full-blown psychotic symptoms D. Complete absence of symptoms

C. Subtle changes without full-blown psychotic symptoms

The Prodromal Phase can last: A. Only one week B. Only one month C. Weeks, months, or even years D. Exactly six months

C. Weeks, months, or even years

The Active Phase of schizophrenia is when: A. Only negative symptoms remain B. Psychotic symptoms are most prominent and severe C. Full recovery occurs D. No symptoms are evident

B. Psychotic symptoms are most prominent and severe

Schizophrenia is typically first diagnosed during the: A. Prodromal Phase B. Residual Phase C. Active Phase D. Recovery Phase

C. Active Phase

The Residual Phase of schizophrenia involves: A. Complete absence of symptoms B. Increase in positive symptoms C. Exclusive presence of mood symptoms D. Reduction in positive symptoms with possible persistence of negative symptoms and cognitive deficits

D. Reduction in positive symptoms with possible persistence of negative symptoms and cognitive deficits

During the Residual Phase, which symptoms may become most challenging? A. Positive symptoms B. Mood symptoms C. Negative symptoms and cognitive deficits D. Somatic symptoms

C. Negative symptoms and cognitive deficits

Which disorder specifically requires a major depressive or manic episode along with psychotic symptoms? A. Schizophrenia B. Schizoaffective Disorder C. Delusional Disorder D. Brief Psychotic Disorder

B. Schizoaffective Disorder

Which disorder does NOT require at least two characteristic psychotic symptoms? A. Schizophrenia B. Schizoaffective Disorder C. Delusional Disorder D. None of the above

C. Delusional Disorder

Which disorder includes the total duration of prodromal, active, and residual phases lasting less than six months? A. Schizophreniform Disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Delusional Disorder D. Schizoaffective Disorder

A. Schizophreniform Disorder

Which type of Delusional Disorder involves beliefs of having exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame? A. Jealous B. Persecutory C. Grandiose D. Somatic

C. Grandiose

Which of the following is included among the types of Delusional Disorder? A. Bipolar type B. Mixed type C. Residual type D. Catatonic type

B. Mixed type

Neurodevelopmental disorders are best defined as: A. Conditions that develop exclusively in adulthood B. Disorders caused primarily by brain injury in old age C. A group of conditions with onset in the developmental period D. Disorders limited to academic difficulties

C. A group of conditions with onset in the developmental period

Neurodevelopmental disorders are characterized by developmental deficits that produce impairments in: A. Physical strength only B. Personal, social, academic, or occupational functioning C. Vision and hearing exclusively D. Sleep-wake cycles

B. Personal, social, academic, or occupational functioning

Intellectual Developmental Disorder is characterized by deficits in: A. Motor coordination only B. Emotional regulation exclusively C. General mental abilities such as reasoning and problem-solving D. Appetite control

C. General mental abilities such as reasoning and problem-solving

Deficits in adaptive functioning in Intellectual Developmental Disorder result in: A. Enhanced academic performance B. Failure to meet developmental and sociocultural standards for personal independence and social responsibility C. Improved occupational functioning D. Increased creativity

B. Failure to meet developmental and sociocultural standards for personal independence and social responsibility

Adaptive functioning deficits may limit functioning in activities such as: A. Driving and cooking gourmet meals only B. Playing musical instruments C. Competitive sports D. Communication, social participation, and independent living

D. Communication, social participation, and independent living

The onset of Intellectual Developmental Disorder occurs during: A. Late adulthood B. Adolescence only C. The developmental period D. Retirement

C. The developmental period

Severity of Intellectual Developmental Disorder is specified based on functioning in which domains? A. Physical, emotional, and spiritual B. Conceptual, social, and practical C. Academic, occupational, and recreational D. Cognitive, behavioral, and neurological

B. Conceptual, social, and practical

An IQ score between 35–40 and 50–55 corresponds to which severity level of Intellectual Developmental Disorder? A. Mild B. Severe C. Profound D. Moderate

D. Moderate

An IQ score below 20–25 corresponds to which severity level? A. Severe B. Profound C. Moderate D. Mild

B. Profound

Global Developmental Delay is diagnosed in children who are: A. Under 5 years old and fail to meet expected developmental milestones in several areas B. Over 10 years old with academic difficulties C. Adolescents with speech issues D. Adults with motor deficits

A. Under 5 years old and fail to meet expected developmental milestones in several areas

Language Disorder involves difficulties in: A. Motor coordination B. Social play C. Acquisition and use of language modalities due to deficits in comprehension and production D. Visual processing

C. Acquisition and use of language modalities due to deficits in comprehension and production

In Language Disorder, expressive language is typically: A. Equal to receptive language B. Significantly above receptive language C. Unaffected D. Significantly below receptive language

D. Significantly below receptive language

Speech Sound Disorder is characterized by: A. Difficulty understanding implied meanings B. Persistently difficulty with speech sound production interfering with intelligibility C. Deficits in adaptive functioning D. Repetitive motor movements

B. Persistently difficulty with speech sound production interfering with intelligibility

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering) involves disturbances in: A. Language comprehension only B. Written communication C. Normal fluency and motor production of speech D. Social awareness

C. Normal fluency and motor production of speech

Social (Pragmatic) Communication Disorder includes persistent difficulties in: A. Motor coordination B. Social use of verbal and nonverbal communication C. IQ functioning D. Reading comprehension

B. Social use of verbal and nonverbal communication

A key distinction between Social (Pragmatic) Communication Disorder and Autism Spectrum Disorder is the absence of: A. Social communication difficulties B. Developmental onset C. Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior D. Language deficits

C. Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior

Autism Spectrum Disorder requires: A. Only academic impairment B. Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts and restricted, repetitive behaviors C. Motor deficits only D. IQ below 70

B. Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts and restricted, repetitive behaviors

Symptoms of Autism Spectrum Disorder must be present: A. Only after age 18 B. During middle adulthood C. In late adolescence only D. In the early developmental period

D. In the early developmental period

Severity levels for Autism Spectrum Disorder are based on: A. IQ scores only B. Academic performance C. Level of support required D. Age of onset

C. Level of support required

Level 2 Autism Spectrum Disorder indicates: A. Requiring support B. Very substantial support C. Substantial support D. No support required

C. Substantial support

Rett Disorder primarily affects: A. Males only B. Mostly females C. Both sexes equally D. Only adults

B. Mostly females

Rett Disorder is characterized by: A. Excessive talking B. Hand wringing and poor coordination C. Advanced motor skills D. Hyperactivity

B. Hand wringing and poor coordination

ADHD is characterized by a persistent pattern of: A. Mood instability B. Social withdrawal C. Inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity D. Repetitive motor behavior only

C. Inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity

For ADHD diagnosis, symptoms must be present for at least: A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 12 months D. 6 months

D. 6 months

ADHD symptoms must be present in: A. Only one setting B. Multiple settings C. School only D. Home only

B. Multiple settings

ADHD symptoms must have been present before age: A. 5 B. 18 C. 12 D. 21

C. 12

ADHD-PI refers to: A. Predominantly Inattentive Presentation B. Predominantly Impulsive Presentation C. Persistent Inattention D. Partial Inhibition

A. Predominantly Inattentive Presentation

Specific Learning Disorder involves persistent difficulties in: A. Social communication B. Learning and using key academic skills C. Motor coordination D. Speech fluency

B. Learning and using key academic skills

The learning difficulties in Specific Learning Disorder must persist for at least: A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 12 months

C. 6 months

Specific Learning Disorder may be specified with impairment in: A. Reading, expression, or mathematics B. Motor skills only C. Social participation D. Adaptive functioning

A. Reading, expression, or mathematics

Developmental Coordination Disorder involves deficits in: A. Language comprehension B. Adaptive reasoning C. Coordinated motor skills D. Reading fluency

C. Coordinated motor skills

Stereotypic Movement Disorder involves motor behaviors that are: A. Purposeful and goal-directed B. Repetitive and seemingly driven C. Socially motivated D. Academically related

B. Repetitive and seemingly driven

Stereotypic Movement Disorder may be specified as: A. Mild or severe B. With or without self-injurious behavior C. Acute or chronic D. Social or nonsocial

B. With or without self-injurious behavior

Tic Disorders are characterized by: A. Rhythmic, coordinated movements B. Slow, intentional vocalizations C. Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic movements or vocalizations D. Language comprehension deficits

C. Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic movements or vocalizations

Tourette's Disorder requires: A. One motor tic only B. One vocal tic only C. Multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic persisting more than 1 year D. Tics lasting less than 1 year

C. Multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic persisting more than 1 year

Persistent (Chronic) Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder involves: A. Both motor and vocal tics for less than 1 year B. Single or multiple motor or vocal tics (but not both) persisting more than 1 year C. Only vocal tics for less than 6 months D. Only motor tics for less than 1 year

B. Single or multiple motor or vocal tics (but not both) persisting more than 1 year

Provisional Tic Disorder is diagnosed when tics have been present for: A. More than 1 year B. Exactly 12 months C. Less than 1 year D. More than 2 years

C. Less than 1 year

Part 2 Flashcards

(337 cards)