1
Q
Memory is best defined as the process by which we:
A. Analyze, interpret, and forget information
B. Encode, store, and retrieve information
C. Perceive, rehearse, and recognize information
D. Store, retrieve, and distort information
A
B. Encode, store, and retrieve information
2
Q
Which type of memory involves factual information?
A. Procedural
B. Episodic
C. Declarative
D. Sensory
A
C. Declarative
3
Q
Skills and habits are stored in which type of memory?
A. Procedural
B. Semantic
C. Episodic
D. Explicit
A
A. Procedural
4
Q
General knowledge is classified under which type of memory?
A. Declarative
B. Semantic
C. Procedural
D. Autobiographical
A
B. Semantic
5
Q
Memory for events is known as:
A. Semantic
B. Implicit
C. Episodic
D. Recognition
A
C. Episodic
6
Q
In the three-system approach, the initial storage of information perceived by the senses is called:
A. Long-Term Memory
B. Short-Term Memory
C. Episodic Memory
D. Sensory Memory
A
D. Sensory Memory
7
Q
Short-Term Memory (STM) typically holds information for:
A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 30 to 60 seconds
C. 15 to 20 seconds
D. 1 to 2 minutes
A
C. 15 to 20 seconds
8
Q
Which system stores information on a relatively permanent basis?
A. Sensory Memory
B. Long-Term Memory
C. Short-Term Memory
D. Working Memory
A
B. Long-Term Memory
9
Q
Meaningful groupings of stimuli stored as a unit in STM are called:
A. Rehearsals
B. Cues
C. Chunks
D. Constructs
A
C. Chunks
10
Q
Repetition of information that has entered STM is known as:
A. Encoding
B. Recognition
C. Rehearsal
D. Retrieval
A
C. Rehearsal
11
Q
Which type of rehearsal transfers information into LTM?
A. Recognition
B. Repetitive
C. Cue-dependent
D. Elaborative
A
D. Elaborative
12
Q
Which type of rehearsal keeps information in STM?
A. Elaborative
B. Repetitive
C. Implicit
D. Procedural
A
B. Repetitive
13
Q
The inability to recall information that one realizes one knows is called:
A. Cue-dependent forgetting
B. Decay
C. Tip-of-the-Tongue Phenomenon
D. Retroactive interference
A
C. Tip-of-the-Tongue Phenomenon
14
Q
A retrieval cue helps by:
A. Preventing decay
B. Allowing information to be recalled more easily
C. Storing information in STM
D. Blocking interference
A
B. Allowing information to be recalled more easily
15
Q
A memory task in which specific information is retrieved is known as:
A. Recall
B. Recognition
C. Rehearsal
D. Encoding
A
A. Recall
16
Q
When an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked whether they have been exposed to it before, this is called:
A. Recall
B. Retrieval
C. Recognition
D. Chunking
A
C. Recognition
17
Q
Memory that can be recalled automatically without thinking is called:
A. Explicit Memory
B. Implicit Memory
C. Semantic Memory
D. Episodic Memory
A
B. Implicit Memory
18
Q
The Level of Processing Theory focuses on:
A. The duration of STM
B. The influence of stress on memory
C. The number of chunks in STM
D. The degree to which new material is mentally analyzed
A
D. The degree to which new material is mentally analyzed
19
Q
Memory that requires conscious retrieval of information is known as:
A. Explicit Memory
B. Implicit Memory
C. Procedural Memory
D. Sensory Memory
A
A. Explicit Memory
20
Q
Constructive processes suggest that memories are influenced by:
A. The length of rehearsal
B. The meaning we give to them
C. Sensory duration
D. Biological decay only
A
B. The meaning we give to them
21
Q
Episodes from our own lives are known as:
A. Semantic memories
B. Flashbulb memories
C. Autobiographical memories
D. Procedural memories
A
C. Autobiographical memories
22
Q
Vivid memories of specific or surprising events that resemble a snapshot are called:
A. Implicit memories
B. Recognition memories
C. Repressed memories
D. Flashbulb memories
A
D. Flashbulb memories
23
Q
Forgetting permits us to:
A. Eliminate all memories
B. Increase stress levels
C. Form general impressions and recollections
D. Strengthen procedural skills
A
C. Form general impressions and recollections
24
Q
Failure to pay attention and place information in memory is called:
A. Decay
B. Failure of Encoding
C. Proactive interference
D. Cue-dependent forgetting
A
B. Failure of Encoding
25
Loss of information due to nonuse is known as:
A. Retroactive interference
B. Cue-dependent forgetting
C. Decay
D. Recognition failure
C. Decay
26
Forgetting caused by insufficient retrieval cues is called:
A. Cue-dependent forgetting
B. Proactive interference
C. Decay
D. Encoding failure
A. Cue-dependent forgetting
27
When new information is forgotten because of previously learned information, this is:
A. Retroactive interference
B. Cue-dependent forgetting
C. Proactive interference
D. Decay
C. Proactive interference
28
When old information is forgotten because of newly learned information, this is:
A. Retroactive interference
B. Proactive interference
C. Failure of encoding
D. Recognition error
A. Retroactive interference
29
Lewinsohn’s Behavioral Theory proposes that depression is caused by:
A. Biological inheritance alone
B. Cognitive distortions only
C. A chemical imbalance in the brain
D. A combination of environmental stressors and lack of personal skills
D. A combination of environmental stressors and lack of personal skills
30
The Diathesis-Stress Model proposes that individuals inherit tendencies that:
A. Always lead to disorder
B. Are activated under conditions of stress
C. Prevent stress from occurring
D. Replace environmental influences
B. Are activated under conditions of stress
31
In the Diathesis-Stress Model, diathesis refers to:
A. Environmental triggers
B. A coping strategy
C. An underlying predisposition or vulnerability
D. A memory disorder
C. An underlying predisposition or vulnerability
32
In the Diathesis-Stress Model, stress refers to:
A. Genetic vulnerability
B. Environmental factors or life events that trigger a disorder
C. Failure of encoding
D. Long-term memory storage
B. Environmental factors or life events that trigger a disorder
33
Individuals with a strong diathesis may develop a disorder with:
A. Relatively low levels of stress
B. No environmental stress
C. Only prolonged stress
D. High levels of rehearsal
A. Relatively low levels of stress
34
Individuals with a weaker diathesis typically require:
A. Less stress to trigger a disorder
B. No stress to develop a disorder
C. More significant or prolonged stress to trigger a disorder
D. Only biological changes
C. More significant or prolonged stress to trigger a disorder
35
The Diathesis-Stress Model is associated with:
A. B.F. Skinner
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Carl Rogers
D. Eric Kandel
D. Eric Kandel
36
Gene-Environment Interaction refers to:
A. The idea that genes and environment operate independently
B. The environment having the same effect regardless of genotype
C. The effect of the environment depending on an individual’s genotype
D. Genes being more influential than environmental factors
C. The effect of the environment depending on an individual’s genotype
37
An example of Gene-Environment Interaction is when:
A. Stress affects people with gene A more than people with gene B
B. Parents choose environments for their children
C. A child copies a peer’s behavior
D. Culture defines abnormal behavior
A. Stress affects people with gene A more than people with gene B
38
The Gene-Environment Correlation Model proposes that:
A. Genes are irrelevant in shaping behavior
B. Nature and nurture are independent forces
C. Environmental factors determine genotype
D. Genotypes influence exposure to certain environments
D. Genotypes influence exposure to certain environments
39
The Reciprocal Gene-Environment Model suggests that individuals with a genetic predisposition to a disorder may:
A. Avoid environments related to the disorder
B. Create environmental factors that promote the disorder
C. Be unaffected by environmental stress
D. Develop only physical health problems
B. Create environmental factors that promote the disorder
40
Passive Gene-Environment Correlation occurs when:
A. A child actively selects a compatible environment
B. Parents provide both genes and an environment correlated with those genes
C. A child evokes reactions from teachers
D. A therapist analyzes dreams
B. Parents provide both genes and an environment correlated with those genes
41
Musically inclined parents who provide musical genes and a home filled with instruments illustrate:
A. Active gene-environment correlation
B. Evocative gene-environment correlation
C. Passive gene-environment correlation
D. Reciprocal gene-environment model
C. Passive gene-environment correlation
42
Evocative (Reactive) Gene-Environment Correlation involves:
A. Individuals selecting environments
B. Parents shaping all environments
C. Genetically influenced traits evoking responses from others
D. Ignoring genetic predispositions
C. Genetically influenced traits evoking responses from others
43
A cheerful child receiving more positive attention demonstrates:
A. Passive gene-environment correlation
B. Evocative gene-environment correlation
C. Active gene-environment correlation
D. Gene-environment interaction
B. Evocative gene-environment correlation
44
Active (Niche-Picking) Gene-Environment Correlation occurs when individuals:
A. Passively accept environmental conditions
B. Inherit environments from parents
C. Are unaware of their preferences
D. Select environments compatible with their genetic predispositions
D. Select environments compatible with their genetic predispositions
45
An extroverted person seeking social gatherings illustrates:
A. Passive correlation
B. Evocative correlation
C. Active correlation
D. Reciprocal interaction
C. Active correlation
46
Culture influences psychological disorders by:
A. Eliminating all abnormal behavior
B. Defining what is considered normal or abnormal behavior
C. Preventing all stigma
D. Removing environmental stressors
B. Defining what is considered normal or abnormal behavior
47
A behavior considered pathological in one culture but celebrated in another demonstrates that:
A. Psychological disorders are genetically fixed
B. Culture shapes interpretations of behavior
C. All cultures define abnormality identically
D. Disorders are purely biological
B. Culture shapes interpretations of behavior
48
Viewing mental health issues as weaknesses or moral failings may result in:
A. Increased professional help-seeking
B. Reduced shame
C. Greater reluctance to seek professional help
D. Immediate recovery
C. Greater reluctance to seek professional help
49
Strong, positive social connections function primarily as:
A. Risk factors
B. Protective factors
C. Genetic markers
D. Biological stressors
B. Protective factors
50
Loneliness and social isolation are major risk factors for:
A. Increased social skills
B. Improved emotional regulation
C. Depression, anxiety, and physical health problems
D. Secure attachment
C. Depression, anxiety, and physical health problems
51
Exposure to substance abuse and negative peer groups can:
A. Decrease the likelihood of disorders
B. Have no influence on mental health
C. Increase the likelihood of developing certain disorders
D. Ensure secure attachment
C. Increase the likelihood of developing certain disorders
52
Secure attachment in early relationships fosters:
A. Anxiety and distrust
B. Safety, trust, and healthy emotional regulation
C. Chronic conflict
D. Resistance to therapy
B. Safety, trust, and healthy emotional regulation
53
Insecure attachments may contribute to:
A. Improved interpersonal functioning
B. Difficulties in relationships and anxiety
C. Complete immunity from disorders
D. Strong emotional regulation
B. Difficulties in relationships and anxiety
54
Chronic conflict, abuse, neglect, or lack of support can serve as:
A. Protective factors
B. Perpetuating stressors for psychological disorders
C. Neutral experiences
D. Genetic predispositions
B. Perpetuating stressors for psychological disorders
55
Experiences such as death of a loved one or divorce can:
A. Guarantee resilience
B. Eliminate risk of PTSD
C. Precipitate psychological distress and disorders
D. Improve emotional regulation automatically
C. Precipitate psychological distress and disorders
56
The quality of the therapeutic relationship is significant because it:
A. Has no effect on recovery
B. Demonstrates the healing power of positive interpersonal connections
C. Replaces all treatment methods
D. Eliminates genetic predispositions
B. Demonstrates the healing power of positive interpersonal connections
57
Idiographic data refers to:
A. Broad generalizations
B. Statistical averages
C. Specific details and background information
D. Treatment procedures
C. Specific details and background information
58
Nomothetic information involves:
A. Specific individual case histories
B. Broad information about nature and treatment
C. Dream symbolism
D. Free association
B. Broad information about nature and treatment
59
Treatment is defined as:
A. A genetic analysis
B. A diagnostic label
C. A procedure designed to change abnormal behavior to more normal behavior
D. A research method
C. A procedure designed to change abnormal behavior to more normal behavior
60
In Free Association, the client:
A. Selectively shares organized thoughts
B. Says whatever comes to mind without censorship
C. Only discusses dreams
D. Focuses on childhood memories exclusively
B. Says whatever comes to mind without censorship
61
Transference involves:
A. The therapist projecting feelings onto the client
B. The client consciously role-playing
C. Unconscious redirection of feelings from a significant past person onto the therapist
D. Avoidance of emotional topics
C. Unconscious redirection of feelings from a significant past person onto the therapist
62
Resistance refers to:
A. Immediate acceptance of therapeutic insights
B. Opposition to the therapeutic process
C. Emotional release
D. Dream symbolism
B. Opposition to the therapeutic process
63
In dream interpretation, the manifest content is:
A. The symbolic meaning
B. The hidden meaning
C. The consciously remembered dream
D. The therapist’s interpretation
C. The consciously remembered dream
64
The latent content of a dream represents:
A. The remembered storyline
B. The surface imagery
C. Random thoughts
D. The underlying meaning
D. The underlying meaning
65
Catharsis involves:
A. Avoiding emotional experiences
B. Releasing strong or repressed emotions
C. Ignoring unconscious material
D. Selecting social environments
B. Releasing strong or repressed emotions
66
Working Through involves:
A. Suppressing insights
B. Changing therapists frequently
C. Confronting and integrating insights for lasting change
D. Avoiding relational patterns
C. Confronting and integrating insights for lasting change
67
Short-term Psychodynamic Therapies are characterized by:
A. A lifelong personality overhaul
B. A focused and time-limited approach
C. Exclusive use of hypnosis
D. Ignoring relational issues
B. A focused and time-limited approach
68
Relational Psychoanalytic Therapy emphasizes:
A. Genetic inheritance patterns
B. Medication management
C. Past and present relationships shaping the sense of self
D. Behavioral conditioning only
C. Past and present relationships shaping the sense of self
69
Hypnotherapy involves:
A. Conscious debate
B. Inducing heightened suggestibility and relaxation
C. Group therapy sessions
D. Behavioral reinforcement
B. Inducing heightened suggestibility and relaxation
70
Play Therapy is primarily used with:
A. Adults with PTSD
B. Adolescents only
C. Elderly clients
D. Children, using play as expression
D. Children, using play as expression
71
Client-Centered Therapy is characterized primarily by:
A. Directive advice-giving from the therapist
B. A non-directive, empathic, and genuinely accepting environment
C. Behavioral reinforcement techniques
D. Structured exposure exercises
B. A non-directive, empathic, and genuinely accepting environment
72
The main goal of Client-Centered Therapy is to facilitate:
A. Behavioral conditioning
B. Symptom suppression
C. Self-exploration and actualization
D. Dream analysis
C. Self-exploration and actualization
73
A Support Group is best defined as:
A. A therapist-led psychoanalytic session
B. A gathering of individuals sharing a common experience who provide mutual support
C. A medication management meeting
D. An individualized behavioral intervention
B. A gathering of individuals sharing a common experience who provide mutual support
74
Home-Based Self-Help Programs typically involve:
A. Daily in-person therapy sessions
B. Hypnosis techniques
C. Independent use of materials at home to address concerns
D. Family-based interventions only
C. Independent use of materials at home to address concerns
75
Social Skills Therapy primarily helps individuals improve:
A. Genetic predispositions
B. Dream recall ability
C. Medication compliance
D. Interpersonal communication and assertiveness
D. Interpersonal communication and assertiveness
76
Family Therapy works with:
A. Only the identified patient
B. Individuals separately without family involvement
C. Families as a system
D. Peer support groups only
C. Families as a system
77
The Maudsley Model is:
A. A subtype of Gestalt Therapy
B. A specific intensive family therapy for adolescents with anorexia nervosa
C. A medication protocol
D. A support group format
B. A specific intensive family therapy for adolescents with anorexia nervosa
78
Psychological Debriefing is typically offered:
A. Years after a traumatic event
B. Before any trauma occurs
C. Only to children
D. Soon after a traumatic event
D. Soon after a traumatic event
79
The purpose of Psychological Debriefing is to:
A. Eliminate all trauma memories
B. Reduce the risk of PTSD by recounting experiences and normalizing reactions
C. Replace long-term therapy
D. Diagnose personality disorders
B. Reduce the risk of PTSD by recounting experiences and normalizing reactions
80
Psychological Debriefing is noted as:
A. Universally effective
B. Irrelevant to PTSD
C. Debated in effectiveness and potentially harmful if not done carefully
D. Appropriate only for bipolar disorder
C. Debated in effectiveness and potentially harmful if not done carefully
81
Interpersonal Psychotherapy is:
A. An open-ended psychoanalytic method
B. A time-limited therapy focused on interpersonal relationships and social functioning
C. A hypnosis-based therapy
D. A purely behavioral intervention
B. A time-limited therapy focused on interpersonal relationships and social functioning
82
Interpersonal Psychotherapy is particularly associated with alleviating symptoms of:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Bipolar disorder exclusively
C. Depression
D. Phobias
C. Depression
83
Motivational Interviewing is described as:
A. Therapist-centered and confrontational
B. Client-centered and directive
C. Non-structured and passive
D. Purely psychoanalytic
B. Client-centered and directive
84
Motivational Interviewing enhances change by:
A. Forcing behavioral compliance
B. Ignoring ambivalence
C. Exploring and resolving ambivalence
D. Analyzing childhood dreams
C. Exploring and resolving ambivalence
85
Milieu Therapy involves:
A. Treating only individual cognition
B. Structuring the entire environment to be therapeutic
C. Isolating patients from social contact
D. Conducting therapy exclusively outdoors
B. Structuring the entire environment to be therapeutic
86
Parent Management Training teaches parents to:
A. Analyze their own dreams
B. Diagnose psychiatric disorders
C. Apply hypnosis
D. Manage children’s challenging behaviors using specific skills
D. Manage children’s challenging behaviors using specific skills
87
Gestalt Therapy emphasizes:
A. Past unconscious conflicts exclusively
B. Present moment awareness and personal responsibility
C. Medication adherence
D. Behavioral reinforcement schedules
B. Present moment awareness and personal responsibility
88
Gestalt Therapy is described as:
A. Reductionist and symptom-focused
B. Holistic and experiential
C. Time-limited and manualized
D. Biologically driven
B. Holistic and experiential
89
Interpersonal Social Rhythm Therapy is specifically designed for:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Bipolar disorder
D. PTSD
C. Bipolar disorder
90
Interpersonal Social Rhythm Therapy combines interpersonal psychotherapy with:
A. Hypnosis
B. Regulation of daily routines and social rhythms
C. Free association
D. Exposure therapy
B. Regulation of daily routines and social rhythms
91
In Interpersonal Social Rhythm Therapy, stabilizing which of the following is important?
A. Dream frequency
B. Sleep, wake, and meal times
C. Genetic predisposition
D. Childhood memories
B. Sleep, wake, and meal times
92
Social Skills Therapy aims to help individuals navigate social situations:
A. More effectively
B. By avoiding others
C. Through dream analysis
D. Using medication alone
A. More effectively
93
A key feature of Client-Centered Therapy is that the therapist is:
A. Highly confrontational
B. Directive and instructional
C. Genuinely accepting
D. Emotionally detached
C. Genuinely accepting
94
Support Groups provide members with:
A. Formal diagnoses
B. Mutual understanding and encouragement
C. Medication prescriptions
D. Hypnotic induction
B. Mutual understanding and encouragement
95
Home-Based Self-Help Programs may include:
A. Hospital admission
B. Electroconvulsive therapy
C. Workbooks and online resources
D. Dream journals analyzed by therapists
C. Workbooks and online resources
96
Family Therapy addresses:
A. Only individual symptom reduction
B. Communication patterns and relational dynamics
C. Genetic testing
D. Solely parental discipline techniques
B. Communication patterns and relational dynamics
97
Parent Management Training primarily aims to improve:
A. Sleep rhythms in adults
B. Family relationships
C. Hypnotic suggestibility
D. Peer group selection
B. Family relationships
98
Psychological Debriefing allows individuals to:
A. Avoid discussing trauma
B. Recount their experiences
C. Suppress emotional responses
D. Change genetic vulnerability
B. Recount their experiences
99
Motivational Interviewing focuses on enhancing:
A. External pressure
B. Intrinsic motivation to change
C. Environmental control
D. Passive compliance
B. Intrinsic motivation to change
100
Milieu Therapy settings may include:
A. Private home offices only
B. Hospital wards or residential facilities
C. Online chat groups exclusively
D. Isolated wilderness camps
B. Hospital wards or residential facilities
[BLEPP] - Ab Psych
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