PATHOLOGY Flashcards

Question

HER2/neu (c-erbB2)

Answer 1

Oncogene (chromosome 17q12) Receptor tyrosine kinase Associated with breast cancer, gastric cancer

Answer 2

Oncogene (chromosome 9p24) Non-receptor tyrosine kinase Associated with chronic myeloproliferative disorders

Answer 3

Oncogene (chromosome 12) GTPase Associated with colorectal cancer, lung cancer, pancreatic cancer

Answer 4

Oncogene (chromosome 1) Transcription factor Associated with lung cancer

Answer 5

Oncogene (chromosome 2) Transcription factor Associated with neuroblastoma

Answer 6

Oncogene (chromosome 10) Receptor tyrosine kinase Associated with papillary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, MEN 2A and MEN 2B

Answer 7

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 5) A protein that prevents unregulated cell proliferation by inhibiting β-catenin synthesis → inhibition of the β-catenin/Wnt pathway (β-catenin is involved in the Wnt pathway, which stimulates cell proliferation) Associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (associated with colorectal cancer), sporadic colorectal cancer

Answer 8

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 17) DNA repair protein Associated with breast cancer, ovarian cancer, pancreatic cancer

Answer 9

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 9) p16 protein, which normally causes cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase Associated with melanoma, pancreatic cancer, lung cancer

Answer 10

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 18) Transmembrane receptor involved in cell apoptosis Associated with colorectal cancer

Answer 11

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 18) A DNA binding protein involved in signal transduction from TGF-β receptors Associated with pancreatic cancer

Answer 12

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome ) Associated with

Answer 13

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 17) Neurofibromin (Ras GTPase-activating protein) Associated with neurofibromatosis type 1

Answer 14

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 22) Merlin (schwannomin) Associated with neurofibromatosis type 2

Answer 15

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 10) Negatively regulates the PI3k/AKT pathway Associated with prostate cancer, endometrial cancer, breast cancer, Cowden syndrome

Answer 16

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 13) Causes cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase by inhibiting E2F transcription factor Associated with retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma

Answer 17

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 17) Causes cell apoptosis Activates proapoptotic genes (e.g., BAX) Causes cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase (by activating p21) Inhibits entry in the S phase via inhibition of pRb phosphorylation Associated with most human cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Answer 18

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 9) Hamartin protein Associated with tuberous sclerosis

Answer 19

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 16) Tuberin protein Associated with tuberous sclerosis

Answer 20

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 3) Protein involved in the degradation of hypoxia-inducible factor 1a Associated with Von Hippel Lindau disease

Answer 21

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 11) Transcription factor that regulates urogenital development Associated with nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)

Answer 22

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 11) Transcription factor that regulates urogenital development Associated with nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)

Answer 23

Tumor Suppressor (chromosome 13) DNA repair protein Associated with breast cancer, ovarian cancer, pancreatic cancer

Answer 24

Ocurrece: Gasoline Cigarette smoke Associated malignancy: Acute leukemia Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Answer 25

Occurrence: Cured meats (e.g. bacon) and fish Cold-smoked foods (the major carcinogens produced during the smoking process (both cold and hot) are the polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, chemicals that are formed during the burning of solid fuels (e.g., wood, coal)) Tobacco Associated malignancy: Gastric cancer

Answer 26

Occurrence: Production of polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and PVC-related manufacturing (e.g., of PVC pipes, cables) Associated malignancy: Lung cancer Hepatocellular carcinoma Glioblastoma Angiosarcoma

Answer 27

Occurrence: Tobacco smoke Dyes (occupational exposure in the textile industry) Rubber Associated malignancy: Bladder cancer (transitional cell carcinoma)

Answer 28

Occurrence: Insulation material (formerly used in construction and shipbuilding) Asbestos cement (fibrolite), roofing, and siding Associated malignancy: Lung cancer (bronchogenic carcinoma) Mesothelioma The risk of developing bronchogenic carcinoma is greater than that of developing mesothelioma.

Answer 29

Occurrence: Woodworking (e.g., sawing, drilling, sanding) Associated malignancy: Adenocarcinoma of the nose and paranasal sinuses

Answer 30

Occurrence: Alcoholic beverages Associated malignancy: Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) Breast cancer

Answer 31

Occurrence: Chemotherapeutic agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide, melphalan, busulfan, carmustine) Associated malignancy: Leukemia Lymphoma

Answer 32

Occurrence: First-hand smoke (smoke inhaled by the smoker) Second-hand smoke (exhaled smoke that is inhaled by others in the vicinity of the smoker) Third-hand smoke (smoke particles that adhere to surfaces in the surroundings of the smoker) All three have been proven to be carcinogenic. Associated malignancy: Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder Squamous cell carcinoma (cervix, oropharynx, esophagus, larynx, lung) Small cell lung cancer Pancreatic adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus Renal cell carcinoma

Answer 33

Occurrence: Accumulates in basements (a byproduct of uranium decay) Uranium is found in soil. The natural radioactive decay of uranium produces radon. Radon can accumulate in basements that are in direct contact with soil. Associated malignancy: Lung cancer (radon is the second most common cause following exposure to cigarette smoke)

Answer 34

Occurrence: Stored nuts and grains (Aspergillus flavus growth) Associated malignancy: HCC

Answer 35

Occurrence: Contaminated groundwater (esp. in developing countries) Pesticides, herbicides (e.g., vineyard workers) Metal smelting Associated malignancy: Lung cancer Squamous cell carcinoma Hepatic angiosarcomas

Answer 36

Occurrence: Occupations that involve beryllium production and processing (esp. melting and founding, welding manufacturing [industrial ceramics, electronics, automotive, aerospace, and defense components, dental supplies and prostheses]) Associated malignancy: Lung cancer

Answer 37

Occurrence: Occupations that involve cutting, drilling, chipping, or grinding crystalline silica (e.g., quartz) or materials that contain it (e.g., sand, granite), esp. sandblasting, glass manufacturing, construction work Associated malignancy: Lung cancer

Answer 38

Occurrence: Significant in workers exposed to galvanization (chrome plating), paint and glass manufacturing, tanning leather, building materials Associated malignancy: Lung cancer

Answer 39

Occurrence: Occupations that involve mining, smelting, welding, and casting of alloys (e.g., in coins, jewelry) Associated malignancy: Lung cancer

Answer 40

Occurrence: UV-B Associated malignancy: Skin cancers

Answer 41

Occurrence: X-rays Gamma rays Associated malignancy: Leukemias (especially AML and CML) Papillary thyroid cancer Osteosarcoma Liver angiosarcoma

Answer 42

- Shrunken and irregularly shaped cells with condensed chromatin and membrane blebbing - The cell detaches from other cells or the extracellular matrix. - The basophilic nucleus undergoes the following changes: 1. Pyknosis 2. Kareyorrhexis 3. Karyolysis - The eosinophilic cytoplasm and cell organelles form small bubbles and the endonucleases degrade the chromatin in the nucleus, resulting in nuclear fragmentation and apoptotic bodies that are phagocytized by macrophages. - DNA laddering (fragments in multiples of 180 base pairs) is seen on gel electrophoresis and can be used as a sensitive marker for apoptosis.

Answer 43

Seen in: Ischemia/infarcts in most tissues (except brain) Myocardial, splenic, hepatic, and renal infarction Gangrene Organ damage caused by acidic solutions Due to: Ischemia or infarction; injury denatures enzymes --\> proteolysis blocked Decreased oxygen delivery → ↓ ATP -Anaerobic metabolism → ↑ lactic acid production → ↓ pH → denaturation of proteins (including proteolytic enzymes) → cell death -Impaired Na+/K+-ATPase → ↑ intracellular Na+ → ↑ intracellular H2O → cell swelling Histology: Preserved cellular architecture (cell outlines seen) due to denaturation of lytic enzymes and disrupted proteolysis Cells become anucleated with eosinophilic cytoplasm Leukocytes eventually infiltrate necrotic tissue and digest cellular debris Increase cytoplasmic binding of eosin stain (--\> increase eosinophilia; red/pink color)

Answer 44

Seen in: Focal bacterial infections that stimulate massive leukocyte recruitment, bacterial abscesses (purulent infection), brain infarcts due to lack of substantive supporting stroma, pancreatitis (due to enzymatic damage to the parenchyma), organ damage caused by alkaline solutions Due to: Neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes that digest the tissue forming a viscous liquid mass. Necrotic fluid is often creamy yellow due to presence of dead leukocytes (pu) Tissue softening → fluid necrosis → cavitation, pseudocyst formation Histology: Early → cellular debris and macrophages Late → cystic spaces and cavitation (brain) Neutrophils and cell debris seen with bacterial infection Brain infarcts eventually resolve into CSF-filled spaces

Answer 45

Seen in: TB, systemic fungi (eg, Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides, Cryptococcus), Nocardia Due to: Macrophages, epitheloid cells, and multinucleated giant cells (Langhans giant cell) surround a site of infection → granular debris Histology: Fragmented cells and debris, surrounded by lymphocytes, epitheloid cells, and multinucleated giant cells, forming a granuloma Necrotic tissue has a cheesy tan-white gross appearance and consist of fragmented cells and acellular proteinaceous material

Answer 46

Seen in: Enzymatic: acute pancreatitis (saponification of peripancreatic fat) Nonenzymatic: traumatic (eg, injury to breast tissue) Due to: A type of necrosis in which adipose cells die off prematurely, either caused by an enzymatic reaction, or traumatic injury. Enzymatic fat necrosis (release of lipase and triglycerides from cytoplasm of damaged cells → breakdown of triglycerides by lipase → binding of fatty acids to calcium → saponification → chalky-white appearance) Infiltrating foamy macrophages containing engulfed lipid debris and release of free fatty acids that combine with calcium to form basophilic deposits. Histology: Outlines of adipocytes with no peripheral nuclei Combination of fat saponification and calcium → dark blue appearance on H&E stain

Answer 47

Seen in: Rheumatoid arthritis Peptic ulcer disease Immune vasculitis (e.g., polyarteritis nodosa) Vascular reactions Preeclampsia Hypertensive emergency Due to: Vessel wall damage caused by immune complex deposition (e.g., due to type III hypersensitivity reaction) → fragmentation of collagenous and elastic fibers → leakage of fibrin and other plasma proteins Histology: Vessel walls are thick and pink Visible damage → thick walls with fragments of embedded cellular debris, serum, and fibrin Affected necrotic areas stain intense red.

Answer 48

Seen in: Peripheral arterial disease Acute limb ischemia Intestinal ischemia Clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene) Sepsis Due to: Dry → ischemia Wet → superinfection of dry gangrene Histology: Dry → Coagulative Wet → Liquefactive superimposed on coagulative

Answer 49

-Large group of cells, tissues, or organs -Cell swelling, cell blebbing, cell organelle destruction, nuclear changes → cell bursts → inflammation (especially with an influx of neutrophils) → degradation of the necrotic tissue by leukocytes → organization of granulation tissue

Answer 50

Conversion into CCl3 free radical by cytochrome P450 → fatty liver → cell injury → ↓ apolipoprotein synthesis → fatty change, centrilobular necrosis

Answer 51

Intracellular hyaline Inclusion bodies within the cytoplasm of hepatocytes that contain damaged intermediate filaments and appear eosinophilic (pink) on H&E stain Most common in alcoholic liver disease

Answer 52

Intracellular hyaline An eosinophilic remnant of apoptotic hepatocytes with pyknosis Particularly in yellow fever and viral hepatitis

Answer 53

Intracellular hyaline Round calcium and protein inclusions in the cytoplasm with laminar stratification In granulomas in sarcoidosis

Answer 54

Intracellular hyaline Accumulation of immunoglobulins Plasma cells in plasmacytoma or chronic inflammation

Answer 55

(Light-chain amyloidosis, AL-amyloidosis) - Most common form of amyloidosis in resource-limited nations Fibril Protein → AL (from Ig Light chains) - Associated with plasma cell dyscrasias (e.g., multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia) - Increased production of the light chains of immunoglobulins → deposition of amyloid light chain protein (AL protein) in various organs - Rapidly progressive clinical course (the mean survival time without treatment is one year) - Heart → restrictive cardiomyopathy, atrioventricular block - Kidney → nephrotic syndrome, type II renal tubular acidosis, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - Tongue (macroglossia → obstructive sleep apnea) - Autonomic nervous system → autonomic neuropathy - Gastrointestinal tract → malabsorption - Hematopoietic system → bleeding disorders, splenomegaly - Musculoskeletal system → carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer 56

(Reactive amyloidosis, AA-amyloidosis) Secondary disease - Chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g., IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, vasculitis, familial Mediterranean fever) - Chronic infectious diseases (e.g., tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, leprosy, osteomyelitis) - Certain tumors (e.g., renal cell carcinoma, lymphomas) Chronic inflammatory process → ↑ production of acute phase reactant SAA (serum amyloid-associated protein) → deposition of AA (amyloid-associated) protein in various organs Clinical Features: -Rarely present with features of cardiac involvement. - Kidney → nephrotic syndrome, type II renal tubular acidosis, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - Adrenal glands → primary adrenal insufficiency - Liver and spleen → hepatomegaly, splenomegaly - Gastrointestinal tract → malabsorption - Musculoskeletal system → carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer 57

Normal (wild-type) transthyretin (ATTRwt) → deposition in cardiac ventricles → cardiac dysfunction (less drastic than in AL amyloidosis) Associated with old age

Answer 58

ANP → ↑ risk of atrial fibrillation Physiological in old age

Answer 59

Aβ (cleaved from the APP) → associated with Alzheimer disease APrP → associated with prion diseases

Answer 60

Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) deposits in pancreatic islet → associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus Amyloid at insulin injection site (AIns) → associated with subcutaneous insulin injection in diabetes mellitus Calcitonin amyloid (ACal) → associated with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Answer 61

Mutated transthyretin (ATTR) Autosomal dominant disease (most common) \> 20 years Deposition in ventricular endomyocardium → restrictive cardiomyopathy Atrial deposition → arrhythmia Common in African Americans (3% of African Americans carry the mutant allele for familial amyloid cardiomyopathy)

Answer 62

Mutated transthyretin (ATTR) Autosomal dominant disease (most common) \> 20 years Affected sites → peripheral and autonomic nerves Common in Portugal, Sweden, Japan, and among people of Irish descent

Answer 63

AA amyloid protein Autosomal recessive disease \< 20 years Affected sites → Kidney, liver and spleen, adrenal glands Common among individuals of Mediterranean descent (e.g., Sephardic Jews, Arabs, Turks) Two types of FMF: -Type 1 FMF (characterized by recurrent episodes of polyserositis (pleuritis, pericarditis, peritonitis). Amyloidosis is a late feature.) -Type 2 FMF (asymptomatic until symptoms of amyloidosis occur)

Answer 64

Papillary thyroid carcinoma Myelodysplastic syndromes, lymphomas, leukemias (eg, CML, AML, ALL) Angiosarcoma Osteosarcoma Solid tumors (eg, breast, ovarian, lung)

Answer 65

Factors whose serum concentrations change by \> 25% during periods of inflammation Produced by the liver in both acute and chronic inflammatory states Notably induced by IL-6 Positive (upregulated): C-reactive protein Ferritin Fibrinogen Hepcidin Serum amyloid A Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobulin von Willenbrand factor Complement Negative (downregulated): Albumin Transferrin Transthyretin (prealbumin)

Answer 66

Inflammation (eg, giant cell [temporal] arteritis, polymyalgia rheumatica) Infection Malignancies (e.g., multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, metastases) Autoimmune diseases (e.g., SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, giant cell arteritis, polymyalgia rheumatica, de Quervain thyroiditis) Anemia Macrocytosis Renal disease (e.g., nephrotic syndrome, ESRD) Pregnancy (leads to ↑ fibrinogen) Old age

Answer 67

-Polycythemia (the increased number of RBCs lowers the concentration of aggregation factors) -Sickle cell disease (irregular and smaller RBCs sink slower) -Spherocytosis -Microcytosis -Leukocytosis with very high WBC count (e.g., in chronic lymphocytic leukemia) -Congestive heart failure (CHF) (ESR correlates inversely with the severity of CHF) -Hypofibrinogenemia (e.g., in DIC) -Hypogammaglobulinemia

Answer 68

E-selectin (upregulated by TNF and IL-1) → Sialyl LewisX P-selectin (released from Weibel- palade bodies) → Sialyl LewisX GlyCAM-1, CD34 → L-selectin Defective in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 (Sialyl LewisX) The two main mechanisms that allow for margination are: 1. Rouleaux formation - The liver releases increased amounts of fibrinogen in response to cytokines released by macrophages, monocytes, and other cells near the site of inflammation. - Increased fibrinogen → rouleaux formation → neutrophils are pushed against endothelium of the venules 2. Dilation of post-capillary venules - The release of inflammatory mediators results in vasodilation of the post-capillary venules. - As these venules expand, the velocity of blood flow in these areas slows, causing neutrophils to marginate against the endothelium of the venules. - The venules are the segment of microvasculature most sensitive to inflammation. Their intercellular endothelial junctions open to allow for the flow of plasma proteins and leukocytes between cells.

Answer 69

ICAM-1 (CD54) → CD11/18 integrins (LFA-1, Mac-1) VCAM-1 (CD106) → VLA-4 integrin Defective in leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 (CD18 integrin subunit)

Answer 70

Transmigration of leukocytes across endothelial barriers (can occur paracellularly or transcellularly) Mechanism: - Leukocytes leave the blood vessel by moving between endothelial cells. - Neutrophils release type IV collagenase, which dissolves the basement membrane and allows them to exit the interstitial space. - Requires expression of platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1, also called CD31) on neutrophils, endothelial cells, and platelets PECAM-1 (CD31) → PECAM-1 (CD31)

Answer 71

WBC travels through interstitium to site of injury or infection guided by chemotactic signals Chemotactic factors → C5a, IL-8, LTB4, kallikrein, platelet-activating factor (PAF), N-formylmethionyl peptides

Answer 72

Mannose receptor → mannose, fucose, N-acetylglucosamine Scavenger receptor → low-density lipoprotein Opsonin receptor → Fc fragment of IgG, C3b

Answer 73

Sarcoidosis Crohn disease Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain) Primary biliary cholangitis

Answer 74

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis Giant cell arteritis Takayasu arteritis

Answer 75

Berylliosis Talcosis Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Breast implants Penetrating trauma with glass, wood, etc.

Answer 76

C-reactive protein (CRP) Procalcitonin Ferritin Hepcidin Haptoglobin Serum amyloid A (SAA) Fibrinogen Von Willebrand factor α1-antitrypsin Interleukin-6 (IL-6) Ceruloplasmin Complement components

Answer 77

Promotes the opsonization of pathogens, which leads to increased phagocytosis by macrophages Activates the complement system High sensitivity for detecting inflammation but not specific to any disease or organ Increases 6–12 hours after the inflammatory process begins Half-life is 24 hours.

Answer 78

Sensitive parameter for monitoring the progression of bacterial infections, especially pneumonia and sepsis Peptide precursor of calcitonin

Answer 79

Serum ferritin levels increase in infection to limit the amount of free iron available to pathogens, as well as in malignancy to limit the amount available to tumor cells (proinflammatory cytokines upregulate the expression of the gene coding for ferritin) In contrast, some organisms (e.g., Pseudomonas) cause serum ferritin levels to drop (innate immunity against these pathogens involves an iron-withholding strategy, in which intracellular storage of iron is increased in order to withhold it from the invading pathogen)

Answer 80

Reduces iron available to pathogens by: -Decreasing intestinal iron absorption (via ferroportin degradation) -Preventing the release of iron from macrophages Can cause anemia of chronic disease

Answer 81

Binds free hemoglobin Antimicrobial effects (in infection, haptoglobin is upregulated to make extracellular heme iron less available to pathogens) Antioxidative effects (free hemoglobin (e.g. in hemolysis) can cause oxidative damage) Haptoglobin levels decrease in hemolysis (haptoglobin levels may be normal in cases of inflammation with accompanying intravascular hemolysis. In this case, further parameters (e.g., hemoglobin, bilirubin, LDH, other acute phase proteins) should be determined)

Answer 82

Recruits immune cells to inflammatory sites Prolonged increased levels may cause amyloidosis.

Answer 83

Coagulant that promotes wound healing and endothelial repair Correlates with ESR

Answer 84

Binds free iron Antioxidative effects

Answer 85

-Albumin (reduced production of albumin conserves amino acids that can then be used to produce positive acute phase reactants) -Transferrin (macrophages take up transferrin and use it to remove iron from circulation, making it unavailable for pathogens) -Antithrombin -Transthyretin

Answer 86

-Tissue hypoperfusion (hypoxic states) (heart failure, sepsis and other infections, shock, infarction, lung disease (e.g., pulmonary embolism)) -Dehydration -Severe anemia and pancytopenia -Poisoning (CO (carbon monoxide), ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol) -Liver disease (lactate produced via anaerobic glycolysis in the Cori cycle is metabolized in the liver) -Drugs (e.g., metformin or isoniazid) -Thiamine deficiency -Kidney disease (especially in individuals with diabetes) -Strenuous exercise

Answer 87

Day 1 Effector cells: Platelets Neutrophils Macrophages Characteristics: -Hemostasis (platelet aggregation → clot formation) -Scab formation -Immediate local vasoconstriction (lasts 5–10 minutes) due to the release of prostaglandins, kinins, leukotrienes, and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) from ruptured cell membranes and platelets -Followed by vasodilation and increased vessel permeability -Wound pain may occur (pain results from tissue swelling, tissue hypoxia, or alteration in pH from tissue destruction or infection) Involved tissue mediators: PDGF FGF EGF Prostaglandins TXA2

Answer 88

Day 1-3 Effector cells: Platelets Neutrophils Macrophages Characteristics: - Chemotaxis (via PAF, PDGF, and TGF-β) of inflammatory cells (i.e., neutrophils, macrophages, lymphocytes) to the site of injury. Additionally, the coagulation cascade leads to the activation of thrombin and fibrin. Together, these two factors promote extravasation of inflammatory cells. -- Macrophages release growth factors and cytokines that recruit other immune cells, stimulate fibroblast proliferation (fibrosis) and resorb debris. -- Lymphocytes migrate to injury approx. 72 hours after the injury to promote cellular immunity. - Continued vasodilation (release of histamine, prostaglandins, kinins, and leukotrienes from immune cells leads to vasodilation) - EGF induces tyrosine kinases such as EGFR → epithelium at wound margins begins to proliferate Involved tissue mediators: PAF PDGF TGF-β

Answer 89

Day 3-7 Effector cells: Macrophages Fibroblasts Myofibroblasts, Endothelial cells Keratinocytes Characteristics: -Formation of granulation tissue -- Fibroplasia (formation of fibrous tissue) → synthesis and deposition of type III collagen. -- Growth factors (FGF, EGF, VEGF, PDGF, and TGF-β) from fibroblasts and epithelial cells promote angiogenesis. -- PDGF stimulates smooth muscle cell migration and fibroblast growth → collagen synthesis -- Wound contraction occurs as collagen synthesis increases and pulls the wound edges together. This process is facilitated by myofibroblasts. - Epidermal cells -- Migrate across the collagen matrix to form a full layer -- Secrete collagenase to dissolve the clot -- Replicate along a provisional matrix formed by inflammatory cells to completely cover the wound Involved tissue mediators: FGF EGF PDGF VEGF TGF-β

Answer 90

1 Week - year Effector cells: Fibroblasts Characteristics: -Scar forms with the proliferation of fibroblasts and remodeling of connective tissue. -Removal of excess collagen -Macrophages release matrix metalloproteinases and collagenases (require zinc), which facilitate the final remodeling of type III collagen into type I collagen. -Collagen becomes more organized, returning strength to the region of injury. -Peak tensile strength (∼ 80% of original strength) (collagenous network is replaced by parallel fibers within the scar) is reached ∼ 60 days after injury. -Sweat and sebaceous glands do not regenerate. Involved tissue mediators: Matrix metalloproteinase

Answer 91

AFP is formed by endodermal tissue and the fetal liver and has the same function as albumin (fetal counterpart of albumin). AFP is normally produced by the fetus → transient elevation of maternal AFP levels ↑ AFP → abdominal wall defects, neural tube defects ↓ AFP → associated with trisomy 21, 18, and 13 (see prenatal diagnostics for details) Associated Conditions: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) Hepatoblastoma Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) Mixed germ cell tumor Ataxia-telangiectasia

Answer 92

Associated Conditions: -Testicular germ cell tumors (choriocarcinoma, embryonal cell carcinoma, mixed germ cell tumor, seminoma) -Ovarian cancer → choriocarcinoma (gestational trophoblastic disease) If detectable in urine Pregnancy marker (produced by the syncytiotrophoblast in the placenta) Molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole)

Answer 93

Associated Conditions: -Highly nonspecific marker; elevated in most adenocarcinomas -Colorectal cancer -Pancreatic cancer -Breast cancer -Lung cancer (especially in non-small cell cancers) -Gastric cancer -Endometrial cancer -Medullary thyroid cancer Smokers

Answer 94

Associated Conditions: Prostate cancer Benign prostatic hyperplasia Prostatitis

Answer 95

Associated Conditions: Medullary thyroid cancer (both sporadic and associated with MEN 1 and MEN 2)

Answer 96

Associated Conditions: Metastases to bone or liver Paget disease of the bone

Answer 97

There is controversy regarding the use of placental alkaline phosphatase as a marker for seminoma and other germinative tumors because some studies report its low sensitivity. Associated Conditions: Seminoma Smokers

Answer 98

Associated Conditions: Levels correlate with tumor burden, reflects growth and invasiveness of cancer (nonspecific marker of cell death; may be elevated because of tumor-related increase in cell turnover) Ovarian cancer (dysgerminoma) Testicular germ cell tumors (both seminoma and nonseminoma) Lymphomas Ewing's sarcoma Hepatitis Hemolysis Myocardial infarction

Answer 99

Associated Conditions: Neuroendocrine tumors Small cell lung cancer Carcinoid tumor Neuroblastoma NSE is released secondary to brain injury (e.g., stroke) (not typically used in the clinical setting)

Answer 100

Associated Conditions: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma Gastric cancer

Answer 101

Associated Conditions: Breast cancer

Answer 102

Associated Conditions: Ovarian carcinoma Other gynecologic malignancies (especially cervical adenocarcinoma) Malignant ascites Certain lymphomas

Answer 103

Associated Conditions: Ovarian carcinoma (preferred tumor marker in mucinous cystadenocarcinoma) Gastric cancer

Answer 104

Associated Conditions: Neuroendocrine tumors Medullary thyroid cancer

Answer 105

Associated Conditions: Malignant melanoma

Answer 106

Associated Conditions: Multiple myeloma Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Renal disease

Answer 107

Associated Conditions: Papillary thyroid carcinoma Follicular thyroid carcinoma

Answer 108

Associated Conditions: Multiple myeloma Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia Monoclonal gammopathy Infections Certain autoimmune conditions (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)

Answer 109

Non-small cell lung cancer Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

Answer 110

Non-small cell lung cancer Certain head and neck cancers

Answer 111

Breast cancer

Answer 112

Breast cancer

Answer 113

Natural occurrence: Intermediate filament in the cytoskeleton of mesenchymal cells (e.g., macrophages, fibroblasts, endothelial cells) Occurrence in Tumors: Sarcomas -Ewing sarcoma -Osteosarcoma -Chondrosarcoma -Soft tissue sarcomas (e.g., GIST, angiosarcoma, liposarcoma) Endometrial carcinoma Renal cell carcinoma Meningioma Mesothelioma (coexpression together with cytokeratins)

Answer 114

Natural occurrence: Intermediate filament in the cytoskeleton of smooth and skeletal muscle cells Occurrence in Tumors: Rhabdomyosarcoma Leiomyosarcoma

Answer 115

Natural occurrence: Membrane-bound glycoprotein Occurrence in Tumors: Mesothelioma Pancreatic, esophageal, and gastric carcinoma

Answer 116

Natural occurrence: Intermediate filament in the cytoskeleton of epithelial cells Occurrence in Tumors: Squamous cell carcinoma (e.g. of the skin or lung) Basal cell carcinoma

Answer 117

Natural occurrence: Neurons Occurrence in Tumors: Neuroendocrine tumors (e.g., carcinoid tumor) Neuroblastoma Medulloblastoma Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)

Answer 118

Natural occurrence: Secretory granules of neuroendocrine cells Occurrence in Tumors: Neuroendocrine tumors (e.g., carcinoid tumor) Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) Medullary thyroid cancer

Answer 119

Natural occurrence: Secretory granules of neuroendocrine cells Occurrence in Tumors: Neuroendocrine tumors (e.g., carcinoid tumor) Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) Medullary thyroid cancer

Answer 120

Natural occurrence: Neural crest cells Occurrence in Tumors: Schwannoma Melanoma Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Answer 121

Natural occurrence: Intermediate filament in the cytoskeleton of neuroglia (e.g., oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, Schwann cells) Occurrence in Tumors: Glioblastoma Astrocytoma

Answer 122

Natural occurrence: Prostate epithelium Occurrence in Tumors: Prostate cancer

Answer 123

Natural occurrence: Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Occurrence in Tumors: Hairy cell leukemia

Answer 124

Natural occurrence: B lymphocytes Occurrence in Tumors: B cell lymphoma

Answer 125

Natural occurrence: T lymphocytes Occurrence in Tumors: T cell lymphoma CD3-positive T lymphocytes can also be found around Reed-Sternberg cells, which are characteristic for Hodgkin lymphoma.

Answer 126

Natural occurrence: T killer cells (cytotoxic T lymphocytes) Occurrence in Tumors: T cell lymphoma

Answer 127

Natural occurrence: T helper cells Occurrence in Tumors: T cell lymphoma

Answer 128

Natural occurrence: Hematopoietic cells Occurrence in Tumors: Malignant lymphoma

Answer 129

Concentric lamellar calcifications Seen in diseases associated with calcific degeneration -Papillary thyroid carcinomas (evidence of psammoma bodies in thyroid tissue should always raise suspicion of malignancy) -Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary and endometrium -Somatostatinoma -Adrenals (calcifying fibrous pseudotumor) -Meningioma -Malignant Mesothelioma -Ovarian serous carcinoma -Prolactinoma (Milk)

Answer 130

Progressive wasting of skeletal muscle mass with or without loss of body fat that occurs in patients with advanced cancer Excess in proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, IFN-γ, and TNF-α) as a result of tumor growth → ↑ basal metabolic rate and catabolism Negative nitrogen balance Proteasomal activation and breakdown of myosin in skeletal muscle with loss of adipose tissue Weight loss, poor appetite, decreased adipose tissue, muscle wasting, fatigue Treatment Progesterone analogs (e.g., megestrol acetate) Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisolone) The use of cannabinoids (e.g., dronabinol) remains controversial. Nutritional counseling

Answer 131

Presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) (P/Q-type) autoantibodies Associated cancer: Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) Characteristic Features: Proximal muscle weakness Reduced or absent reflexes Autonomic symptoms (e.g., dry mouth, constipation)

Answer 132

Autoantibodies against nicotinic AChRs of neuromuscular endplates Associated cancer: Thymoma Characteristic Features: Fatigable weakness of skeletal muscles Eye muscle weakness Bulbar muscle weakness Proximal limb weakness Respiratory muscle weakness Possibly cough, dysphagia, dyspnoea, hoarseness (due to anterior mediastinal mass)

Answer 133

Cell-mediated cytotoxicity against unidentified skeletal muscle antigens, chiefly affecting the endomysium Associated cancer: Adenocarcinoma (most common) Ovarian cancer Cervix cancer Lung cancer Pancreas cancer Stomach cancer Bladder cancer Characteristic Features: Proximal muscle weakness affecting both sides (progresses within weeks to months) Muscle tenderness

Answer 134

Paraneoplastic antibody-mediated vasculopathy Associated cancer: Adenocarcinoma (most common) Ovarian cancer Cervix cancer Lung cancer Pancreas cancer Stomach cancer Bladder cancer Characteristic Features: Proximal muscle weakness affecting both sides (progresses within weeks to months) Muscle tenderness

Answer 135

Immune reaction against neural antigens (e.g., Hu antigens, NMDA glutamate receptors) Associated cancer: Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) Anti-NMDA encephalitis → ovarian teratoma Characteristic Features: Symptoms of encephalitis -Cognitive defects (e.g., memory deficits, speech impairment, psychiatric manifestations) (cognitive disturbance with psychotic features is especially common in anti-NMDA encephalitis) -Seizures -Dyskinesias Symptoms of myelitis (different patterns of limb paresis and sensory loss depending on area affected) Autonomic instability CSF pleocytosis

Answer 136

Immune reaction against neural antigens in the cerebellum (e.g., Yo antigens of Purkinje cells, Tr antigens, Hu antigens) Associated cancer: Anti-Yo antibodies → gynecological malignancies (breast, ovarian, or endometrial cancer) Anti-Hu antibodies → small cell lung cancer Anti-Tr antibodies → Hodgkin lymphoma Characteristic Features: Ataxia, vertigo Nystagmus, diplopia Dysmetria, dysarthria

Answer 137

The exact pathophysiology remains unclear. Cellular immune reaction against onconeural antigens → disinhibition of the fastigial nucleus of the cerebellum Associated cancer: Small cell lung cancer (in adults) Pediatric cases of neuroblastoma Ovarian cancer Breast cancer Characteristic Features: Rapid, multidirectional, involuntary movements of the eyes (opsoclonus) and muscles (myoclonus) Ataxia Irritability, sleep disturbance

Answer 138

Neoplastic tissue produces ectopic ACTH (occasionally with CRH) → increased cortisol in the adrenal glands Associated cancer: Small cell lung cancer Pancreas cancer CNS tumors Characteristic Features: Moon facies, buffalo hump Hirsutism, hyperpigmentation Lethargy, depression, sleep disturbance Osteopenia, osteoporosis Muscle atrophy/weakness

Answer 139

Neoplastic tissue produces ectopic ADH (endogenous) → increased free-water reabsorption and retention and hyponatremia Associated cancer: CNS tumors Small cell lung cancer Characteristic Features: Anorexia, nausea, vomiting Headache Muscle cramps, muscle weakness Lethargy, confusion

Answer 140

1. Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (pseudohyperparathyroidism) → PTHrP secretion by the tumor Associated cancer: Squamous cell carcinomas (lung, head, and neck) Renal cancer Bladder cancer Breast cancer Ovarian cancer 2. Ectopic vitamin D production due to 1α-hydroxylase activity in tumor cells Associated cancer: Hodgkin lymphoma Non-Hodgkin lymphoma 3. Local osteolytic hypercalcemia → osteolytic activity at sites of skeletal metastases Associated cancer: Multiple myeloma Breast cancer Characteristic Features: Nephrolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis Bone pain, arthralgias, myalgias Constipation, abdominal pain Nausea, vomiting, anorexia

Answer 141

Ectopic transforming growth factor TGF-α and epidermal growth factor (EGF) Associated cancer: Gastric adenocarcinoma and other gastrointestinal cancers Lung cancer Ovarian cancer Breast cancer Characteristic Features: Brown to black, intertriginous and/or nuchal hyperpigmentation and dermal thickening Can turn into itching, papillomatous, poorly-defined rash Rapid growth and verrucous or papulous surface (this helps to differentiate it from benign acanthosis nigricans) Most commonly localized in the axilla, groin, neck, and genital/anal region (other, less common, locations include flexor regions (e.g., elbows, knee), navel, or under the breasts.)

Answer 142

Activation of epidermal growth factor receptors Associated cancer: Solid cancers (especially gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma) Characteristic Features: Multiple, sudden-onset seborrheic keratoses

Answer 143

Associated cancer: Glucagonoma Characteristic Features: Multiple areas of centrifugally spreading erythema Predominantly face, perineum, and lower extremities affected Develop into painful and pruritic crusty patches with central areas of bronze-colored induration Tend to resolve and reappear in a different location

Answer 144

Likely ectopic vascular endothelial GF, platelet-derived GF, and/or prostaglandin E2 → increased angiogenesis as well as fibroblast and osteoblast activity → connective-tissue matrix and bone synthesis Features include clubbing, joint pain, thickening of tubular bones, periostosis, and joint effusions Associated cancer: Non-small cell lung cancer (especially lung adenocarcinoma) Characteristic Features: Digital clubbing

Answer 145

EPO produced by tumor (activation of the EPO gene in neoplastic tissue → high increase in EPO production → polycythemia) Associated cancer: Renal cell carcinoma Pheochromocytoma Hemangioblastoma Leiomyoma Hepatocellular carcinoma Cerebellar hemangioma Characteristic Features: Hyperviscosity syndrome Plethora Facial flushing Pruritus Dizziness, headache Hypertension

Answer 146

Absence of red cell precursor cells → anemia (with low reticulocyte) Associated cancer: Thymoma Characteristic Features: Pallor Fatigue Exertional dyspnea Possibly cough, dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness (due to anterior mediastinal mass)

Answer 147

↓ B-cell counts → hypogammaglobulinemia → immunodeficiency Associated cancer: Thymoma Characteristic Features: Possibly cough, dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness (due to anterior mediastinal mass)

Answer 148

Malignancy-related hypercoagulability → recurring clots that resolve and appear again elsewhere in the body (migrans) Associated cancer: Pancreatic cancer Lung cancer Gliomas Characteristic Features: Pain, tenderness, induration, and erythema overlying the affected vein

Answer 149

Deposition of noninfectious thrombi on the heart valves Associated cancer: Commonly associated with adenocarcinomas (e.g., pancreas cancer, colorectal cancer) Characteristic Features: Fever, chills General malaise, weakness, night sweats, weight loss Dyspnea, cough, pleuritic chest pain Arthralgias, myalgias New heart murmur

Answer 150

Likely cytokine-mediated Associated cancer: Most cancers Characteristic Features: Fever, general malaise, weight loss

Answer 151

Membrane attack complex (MAC) that forms on glomerular epithelial cells (neoplastic tissue induces immune complex formation → MAC attaches to glomerular epithelial cells → complement activation → inflammation → leaky capillaries) Associated cancer: Lung cancer Colon cancer Characteristic Features: Edema (periorbital edema and(or peripheral edema) Hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia Hypercoagulable state (increased risk of thrombosis) Increased susceptibility to infection Possibly hypertension Possibly frothy urine

Answer 152

Histamine Prostaglandins Bradykinin NO

Answer 153

Leukotrienes (C4, D4, E4) Histamine Serotonin

Answer 154

Bradykinin PGE2 Histamine Sensitization of sensory nerve endings.

Answer 155

Pyrogens (eg, LPS) induce macrophages to release IL-1 and TNF → COX activity in perivascular cells of anterior hypothalamus → ↑ PGE2 temperature set point.

PATHOLOGY Flashcards

(179 cards)