Plan Solicitation Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

True or false: Acquisition planning should begin as soon as the agency need is identified.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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2
Q

What is the government’s policy on describing agency needs?
(Select all that apply):
a. Promote full and open competition
b. Minimize restrictive provisions
c. State requirements in terms of function, performance, & essential physical characteristics
d. None of the above

A

a. Promote full and open competition
b. Minimize restrictive provisions
c. State requirements in terms of function, performance, & essential physical characteristics

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3
Q

True or false: No officer or employee of the government may create or authorize an obligation in excess of the funds available, or in advance of appropriations (Anti-Deficiency Act,31 U.S.C.1341), unless otherwise authorized by law.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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4
Q

What does it mean to conduct a requirements analysis? Select all that apply.
a. Conducting a systematic review of your requirement given the guidance captured from stakeholders during the planning phase
b. Identifying the essential processes and outputs or results required
c. Describing the work in terms of required results, rather than either “how” the work is to be accomplished or the number of hours to be provided
d. None of the above

A

a. Conducting a systematic review of your requirement given the guidance captured from stakeholders during the planning phase
b. Identifying the essential processes and outputs or results required
c. Describing the work in terms of required results, rather than either

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5
Q

True or false: The government is ordinarily required to furnish all property necessary to perform government contracts.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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6
Q

True or false: Market research means collecting and analyzing information about capabilities within the market to satisfy agency needs.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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7
Q

What are the TWO different types of market research?
a. Tactical
b. Operational
c. Strategic
d. None of the above

A

a. Tactical
c. Strategic

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8
Q

True or false: Market research is a one-time step in the acquisition process.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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9
Q

What does commercial product mean? Select all that apply.
a. Any product, other than real property, that is of a type customarily used by the general public or by non-governmental entities for purposes other than governmental purposes
b. Any product that has been sold, leased, or licensed to the general public
c. Any product that has been offered for sale, lease, or license to the general public
d. None of the above

A

a. Any product, other than real property, that is of a type customarily used by the general public or by non-governmental entities for purposes other than governmental purposes
b. Any product that has been sold, leased, or licensed to the general public
c. Any product that has been offered for sale, lease, or license to the general public

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10
Q

What are some effective methods of industry engagement? Select all that apply.
a. “Sources sought” solicitation
b. Request for Information (RFI) distribution
c. Pre-solicitation conference or Industry Day
d. One-on-one interactions
e. Solicitation of feedback on draft RFP

A

a. “Sources sought” solicitation
b. Request for Information (RFI) distribution
c. Pre-solicitation conference or Industry Day
d. One-on-one interactions
e. Solicitation of feedback on draft RFP

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11
Q

When does FAR part 12 not apply to the acquisition of commercial items? Select all that apply.
a. At or below the micro-purchase threshold
b. Using SF–44
c. Using the imprest fund
d. Using the governmentwide commercial purchase card as a method of purchase rather than only as a method of payment
e. Directly from another federal agency

A

a. At or below the micro-purchase threshold
b. Using SF–44
c. Using the imprest fund
d. Using the governmentwide commercial purchase card as a method of purchase rather than only as a method of payment
e. Directly from another federal agency

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12
Q

Why does FAR part 13 prescribe simplified acquisition procedures? Select all that apply.
a. Reduce administrative costs
b. Improve opportunities for small, small disadvantaged, women-owned, veteran-owned, HUBZone, and service-disabled veteran- owned small business concerns to obtain a fair proportion of government contracts
c. Promote efficiency and economy in contracting
d. Avoid unnecessary burdens for agencies and contractors

A

a. Reduce administrative costs
b. Improve opportunities for small, small disadvantaged, women-owned, veteran-owned, HUBZone, and service-disabled veteran- owned small business concerns to obtain a fair proportion of government contracts
c. Promote efficiency and economy in contracting
d. Avoid unnecessary burdens for agencies and contractors

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13
Q

True or false: Agencies shall use simplified acquisition procedures to the maximum extent practicable for all purchases of supplies or services not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (including purchases at or below the micro-purchase threshold).
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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14
Q

When should CO’s solicit sealed bids? Select all that apply.
a. If the award will be made on the basis of price and other price-related factors
b. If it is not necessary to conduct discussions with the responding offerors about their bids
c. If there is a reasonable expectation of receiving more than one sealed bid
d. If time permits the solicitation, submission, and evaluation of sealed bids

A

a. If the award will be made on the basis of price and other price-related factors
b. If it is not necessary to conduct discussions with the responding offerors about their bids
c. If there is a reasonable expectation of receiving more than one sealed bid
d. If time permits the solicitation, submission, and evaluation of sealed bids

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15
Q

True or false: In accordance with FAR part 15, after evaluation of offers the contracting officer may hold negotiations with offerors in the competitive range, advising each of the deficiencies in its proposal, and request final proposal revisions.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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16
Q

True or false: Contract types vary according to the degree and timing of the responsibility assumed by the contractor for the costs of performance and the amount and nature of the profit incentive offered to the contractor for achieving or exceeding goals.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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17
Q

What are the two broad categories of contract types?
a. Fixed-price
b. Time-and-materials
c. Cost-reimbursement
d. Labor-hour

A

a. Fixed-price
c. Cost-reimbursement

18
Q

True or false: A cost-reimbursement type contract places upon the contractor maximum risk and responsibility for all costs and resulting profit or loss.
a. True
b. False

19
Q

True or false: Cost-reimbursement types of contracts require the contractor to put forth a best effort to perform, and provide for payment of the contractor’s allowable, allocable, and reasonable incurred costs.
a. True
b. False

20
Q

True or false: A cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost system of contracting is prohibited.
a. True
b. False

21
Q

What are the elements of a fixed-price incentive firm contract? Select all that apply.
a. Target cost
b. Target profit
c. Ceiling price
d. Profit adjustment formula

A

a. Target cost
b. Target profit
c. Ceiling price
d. Profit adjustment formula

22
Q

True or false: A cost-plus-incentive-fee contract specifies a target cost, a target fee, minimum and maximum fees, and a fee adjustment formula.
a. True
b. False

23
Q

What are TWO forms of cost-plus-fixed-fee contracts?
a. Term
b. Incentive
c. Completion
d. None of the above

A

a. Term
c. Completion

24
Q

True or false: A Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID) is a unique number identifying each solicitation, contract, agreement, or order and related procurement instrument.
a. True
b. False

25
True or false: Supplementary PIIDs are used to identify amendments to solicitations and modifications to contracts, orders, and agreements. a. True b. False
a. True
26
The Uniform Contract Format (UCF) contains which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Part I–The Schedule b. Part II–Contract Clauses c. Part III–List of Documents, Exhibits, and Other Attachments d. Part IV–Representations and Instructions
a. Part I–The Schedule b. Part II–Contract Clauses c. Part III–List of Documents, Exhibits, and Other Attachments d. Part IV–Representations and Instructions
27
True or false: Upon award, contracting officers shall not physically include Part IV in the resulting contract, but shall retain it in the contract file. The representations and certifications are incorporated by reference in the contract by using 52.204-19, or for acquisitions of commercial items, see 52.212-4(v). a. True b. False
a. True
28
What is the first step in identifying a requirement to ensure it will support or improve the agency's mission and performance goals and objectives? a. Determine how much will it cost b. Determine if there are contractors who can meet the requirements c. Identify there is a problem d. Determine if a small business can fulfill the requirement
c. Identify there is a problem
29
According to FAR 7.105, what are the two main parts of a written acquisition plan? a. Acquisition background and objectives and plan of action b. Competition and cost c. Performance period requirements and source selection procedures d. Risks and sources
a. Acquisition background and objectives and plan of action
30
What is the most suitable contracting method for an acquisition of other than commercial products or commercial services expected to exceed $250,000, where the quality of the item is more important than the price paid? a. Contracting by negotiation b. Sealed bidding c. Simplified acquisition procedures d. Two-step sealed bidding
a. Contracting by negotiation
31
When conducting market research, what must an agency do? a. First look to other than commercial products or commercial services to meet its need b. Not consider the acquisition history of the item because it is irrelevant to the present procurement c. Only collect information from the vendor to whom it intends to award the contract d. First consider mandatory sources before considering commercial sources
d. First consider mandatory sources before considering commercial sources
32
The contract type that places the least risk on the government and greatest risk on the contractor is: a. Time-and-materials b. Firm-fixed-price c. Cost-plus-incentive-fee d. Cost-plus-award-fee
b. Firm-fixed-price
33
Which of following is not a reason that the government may provide government-furnished property (GFP) and/or government-furnished information (GFI)? a. It is in the best interest of the government b. The benefit outweighs the increased cost of administration c. Government requirements cannot otherwise be met d. It results in decreased competition to enable more efficient source selection
d. It results in decreased competition to enable more efficient source selection
34
When selecting a contract type, which of the following is true? a. The objective is to select a contract type that will result in the lowest government risk b. The objective is to select a contract type that will result in the lowest contractor risk c. The objective is to select a contract type that will result in a reasonable contractor risk d. Contractor risk is not considered when selecting a contract type
c. The objective is to select a contract type that will result in a reasonable contractor risk
35
What level of competition is required for acquisitions using simplified acquisition procedures? a. Full and open competition after the exclusion of sources b. Competition to the maximum extent practicable c. Full and open competition d. Other than full and open competition
b. Competition to the maximum extent practicable
36
You have been assigned the purchase of the GPS units. You and your customer both agree that this is a commercial product, there is adequate price competition, and there is little (if any) performance risk. What contract type should you recommend to your internal customer for the purchase of the GPS units? a. Time and materials (T&M) b. Cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) c. Fixed-price award fee (FPAF) d. Firm-fixed-price (FFP)
d. Firm-fixed-price (FFP)
37
Why should contracting officers use caution in selecting a time and materials contract? a. No ceiling price is available b. Contractors are not incentivized to control costs c. Contractors are able to achieve higher profits d. Performance risk is higher
b. Contractors are not incentivized to control costs
38
The Uniform Contract Format (UCF) standardized the format for government negotiated solicitations and contracts for what? a. Commercial goods and services b. Construction contracts c. Requirements with values greater than the simplified acquisition threshold d. Letter requests for proposal
c. Requirements with values greater than the simplified acquisition threshold
39
Using the UCF, where in the solicitation would a contractor find information about the source selection method and evaluation factors? a. Section C b. Section L c. Section A d. Section M
d. Section M
40
Two days before the closing date for receipt of proposals, the requiring activity discovers that the quantities of several items to be procured under the solicitation need to be changed. The changes are relatively minor but may affect the total price of the requirement. What must the CO do? a. Amend the solicitation and extend the closing date for receipt of offers if necessary b. Immediately cancel the solicitation c. Amend the solicitation but keep the current closing date for receipt of offers even if potential offerors request an extension d. Do nothing and inform the requiring activity that it is too late to modify the solicitation
a. Amend the solicitation and extend the closing date for receipt of offers if necessary
41
In a Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID), what letter is used in position 9 for an invitation for bid? a. B b. C c. F d. H
a. B
42
In a Fixed-price incentive (firm target) contract, the point where every dollar the contractor expends is subtracted from its target profit is referred to as what? a. The price ceiling b. The point of total assumption c. The range of incentive effectiveness d. Pessimistic profit
b. The point of total assumption