Systems

Question 1

When completing a conversation with flight attendants using the CABIN CALL button on the Communications Panel, how is the call ended?

Answer 1

The Flight Attendant hangs up; no pilot action is required

Question 2

An emergency call from the flight attendants will

Answer 2

Sound a triple HO-LO chime in the flight deck
Illuminate the EMER CALL button on the communications panel

Question 3

What does the MIC button do on the ACP?

Answer 3

When pushed it: auto switches on mask hot mic when mask out
When pushed out: forces on mask hot mic in case auto fails

Question 4

What are the minimum voltages for Batt 1 and Batt 2 during the Safety and Power-up Checklist.

Answer 4

22.5 V or above for normal operation (affords 10 minutes of emergency DC power + 2 APU start attempts)
21.0 V or above for the battery to be charged to 22.5 V before dispatching, if lower than 21.0 V the airplane cannot be dispatched

Question 5

AC power priority

Answer 5

Onside, inside, outside, cross-side

Question 6

What are two main components on the DC HOT BATT BUS 1 and 2 that we, as pilots, care about?

Answer 6

Engine fire extinguishers
Refueling panel
(Cabin courtesy light)

Question 7

What AC Busses are energized during an electrical emergency before the RAT deploys? After the RAT deploys? What items are on the AC STBY BUS? AC ESS BUS?

Answer 7

AC Standby Bus (before) engine exciters
AC ESS BUS (after) hydraulic pump 3A, AC fuel pump 2, slat channel 2, flap channel 1

Question 8

What will cause the RAT to deploy automatically? What speed is needed to ensure the RAT continues to provide electrical power?

Answer 8

Loss of all normal sources of power in flight. 130 kt (need 150 kt to initially power up the RAT)

Question 9

Familiarize the electrical system schematics.

Answer 9

See schematics

Question 10

After activation, how long will the oxygen provided by the PBE last?

Answer 10

15 minutes

Question 11

Emergency equipment that must be carried for dispatching.

Answer 11

Emergency Medical Kit (1)
Megaphone (1, in the back)
Automated External Defibrillator (1)
Portable Oxygen Bottle (2)

Question 12

FADEC will automatically abort an engine start for:

Answer 12

ITT exceeds 815 degrees
N1 and N2 stabilize at normal idle speeds

Question 13

ATTCS will automatically command Reserve (RSV) Thrust when:

Answer 13

1) ATTCS is engaged
2) Thrust leverS at TOGA
3) One of the following:
* Difference in N1 is more than 15%
* One engine failure during takeoff or go around
* Windshear detection

Question 14

GA will appear on the EICAS, indicating that Go Around thrust is available when:

Answer 14

Gear down And (GA) flaps > 0
or
TOGA is pressed in CLB, CRZ, or CON mode.

Question 15

When will CLB modes automatically engage?

Answer 15

Gear up
Altitude above 400 ft AFE
Vertical mode change
(Think the three actions following takeoff)

Question 16

When will the CRZ mode automatically engage?

Answer 16

Reaching preselected altitude +/- 1,000 ft for 90 sec
and
reaching preselected cruise speed +/- 5 kt

Question 17

When will the CON mode automatically engage?

Answer 17

Engine failure above 3,000 ft AGL

Question 18

What is the difference between CLB1 and CLB2 thrust settings?

Answer 18

In CLB-1 the engine produces 12,400 lbs of thrust; in CLB-2 the engine produces 11,100 lbs of thrust to save engine wear and tear.

Question 19

You intend to discharge the low-rate cargo fire bottle on the ground for a non-annunciated AFT cargo fire. How many times should you press the AFT Cargo Fire Button to accomplish this?

Answer 19

1st press: arm extinguisher bottles
2nd press: discharge high rate bottle
3rd press: discharge low rate bottle

Question 20

You have a confirmed engine fire on takeoff. After running the QRH procedure and discharging a fire bottle, the light in the engine fire handle has extinguished. This indicates that fire has gone out.

Answer 20

Only when both fire loops detect a fire will the light in the fire handle turn on. In this case, the fire could have burnt through one or both of the fire loops.

Question 21

If smoke is detected in the forward cargo compartment, a CARGO FWD SMOKE message will display on the EICAS. What else has happened?

Answer 21

Recirculation fan off
Cargo ventilation outflow valve closed
Cargo fire bottles armed

Question 22

The electric PBIT (FCM & ACE tests) may be interrupted by:

Answer 22

1. Interruption of AC power supply
2. Pressing any Flight Control Mode Switch
3. Any hydraulic system pressurization

Question 23

List the higher level functions:

Answer 23

AOA limiting
Elevator thrust compensation
Multi-function spoiler speed gain schedule
Yaw damper
Rudder speed gain schedule

Question 24

The speed brakes are automatically retracted when

Answer 24

1. Airspeed < 180 kt
2. Flaps 2 or greater (>= 2)
3. TLA > 70 degrees

Question 25

What is the purpose of the Hydraulic PBIT? What initiates the H-PBIT to run?

Answer 25

Check proper functioning of the flight control actuators Manually: by pressurizing hydraulic systems 3A, 1, 2 in that order with less than 6 sec in between Automatically: when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized

Question 26

What's the purpose of flaps 3?

Answer 26

It's used only in an electrical emergency to ensure sufficient approach speed for continuous RAT operation.

Question 27

Define Green Dot. What are all the uses of green dot?

Answer 27

1. L/D max speed 2. Single engine drift down speed 3. Emergency return to field speed 4. Safe flaps deployment speed 5. Green dot + 10 kt safe flaps retraction speed

Question 28

The DC fuel pump serves what functions?

Answer 28

Provides an initial source of fuel to start engine 2 when AC power is unavailable Normal APU start up

Question 29

When selected to AUTO, AC Fuel Pump 2 will turn on when:

Answer 29

1. Cross-feed Low 1 is selected 2. Main ejector pump 2 failure 3. During engine 2 start 4. Supply APU when engine is not running

Question 30

In the event of dual engine failure, which fuel pump will provide fuel to relight an engine?

Answer 30

Before RAT deployment, DC pump After RAT deployment, AC pumps

Question 31

When selected to AUTO, ACMP 2 will TURN ON when

Answer 31

On the ground: 1. Engine 1 running & parking brake released 2. Flaps > 0 & (ground speed > 50 or thrust levers set to TOGA) 3. Engine 1 start & parking brake set within 6 min In flight: 4. Flaps > 0 5. EDP 2 or engine 2 failure

Question 32

What is the purpose of the PTU? When, with the knob in AUTO, will the PTU engage?

Answer 32

Transfer hydraulic power from System 1 to System 2 without exchanging fluid. PTU never engages on the ground. In flight, PTU engages when gear is not up and locked or flaps > 0 + EDP 1 not failed + System 2 reservoir > 12%.

Question 33

When is the earliest my A/I valves will open when I select A/I OFF in the TO DATASET? A/I ENG? A/I ALL?

Answer 33

OFF: 2 min after departure or 1,700 ft AFE ENG: engine anti-ice comes on when the onside engine is turned on ALL: wing anti-ice will come on when the ground speed is above 40 kt

Question 34

When does the wing anti-ice system runs its IBIT? How long does it last?

Answer 34

10 min after takeoff or at 10000 ft AFE, whichever occurs first. 60 sec or all slat temperature sensors have an increase of 10°F

Question 35

What is the likely cause of receiving 'LH BRAKE FAULT' & 'RH BRAKE FAULT' advisory messages during pushback?

Answer 35

When the push back speed is above 5 kt.

Question 36

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be ARMED to RTO?

Answer 36

1. Switch: RTO 2. WOW: on the ground 3. Speed: less than 60 kt 4. System: no fault 5. Thrust levers: at idle or REV

Question 37

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be APPLIED in RTO?

Answer 37

1. Switch: RTO 2. WOW: on the ground 3. Speed: greater than 60 kt 4. System: no fault 5. Pedals: not depressed 6. Thrust levers: at idle or REV

Question 38

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be DISARMED from RTO?

Answer 38

1. Switch: other than RTO, or 2. WOW: in flight, or 3. System: fault < 60 kt, or 4. Pedals: pressed, or 5. Lever: above idle after application of RTO

Question 39

What can be done to disarm the autobrake from low, medium, or high?

Answer 39

1. Switch: OFF, or 2. System: fault, 3. Pedals: pressed, 4. Lever: above idle after application of auto brake

Question 40

If a localizer frequency is required based on the approach loaded in the FMS, the aircraft will automatically tune the frequency and course using preview needles. These preview needles will populate on the HSI ______ miles from the landing airfield.

Answer 40

150

Question 41

The E-175’s VHF navigation radios are capable of automatically tuning VOR/DME and Localizer frequencies. Pilots can verify that auto tune is enabled by:

Answer 41

1. “FMS AUTO” displayed next to the Nav radios on the MCDU RADIO page 2. A magenta radio frequency in the bottom-right corner of the PFD

Question 42

It is possible for an E175 to fly an RNAV approach with one failed GPS receiver.

Answer 42

True

Question 43

What purpose does the IRS serve?

Answer 43

1. Primary attitude, 2. Mag. & true heading, 3. Linear accel, 4. Angular rate, 5. Inertial velocity, 6. Nav. position, 7. Wind data, 8. Calc. data.

Question 44

What sources of navigation do I have available in the event of an electrical emergency?

Answer 44

NAV1, IRS1, GPS2

Question 45

TCAS is required for operations in RVSM airspace in the United States per the QRH required equipment list.

Answer 45

False

Question 46

The Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) includes several protection modes. They include:

Answer 46

1. Terrain Avoidance 2. Excessive Bank Angle 3. Windshear Detection and Escape Guidance 4. Landing Gear Configuration Alerts 5. Excessive Glideslope Deviation 6. Flap Configuration Alerts 7. Excessive Sinkrate on Takeoff

Question 47

If possible, what action should be taken during an ECS OFF takeoff?

Answer 47

APU ON