1
Q
GEAR: What things occur when you gravity extend the gear?
A
(1) GREEN HYD pressure is removed
(2) Gear doors are opened
(3) Uplocks are unlocked
2
Q
HYD: Name some BLUE users.
A
(1) Slats
(2) EMER GEN
3
Q
HYD: Name some GREEN users.
A
(1) Slats and flaps
(2) Landing gear
(3) Normal brakes
(4) ENG 1 REV
4
Q
HYD: Name some YELLOW users.
A
(1) Flaps
(2) Nosewheel steering
(3) Alternate brakes
(4) ENG 2 REV
5
Q
HYD: Pump fault lt
A
(1) Pump low pressure
(2) Reservoir low pressure
(3) Reservoir over temperature
(4) Reservoir low quantity
6
Q
HYD: When is the PTU inhibited?
A
On the ground with the engine masters split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake on. 40 seconds after the cargo door is operated.
7
Q
INT LTS: What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
A
(1) CA instrument panel
(2) FO dome light
(3) Standby compass
8
Q
OXY: How long do the COGs last?
A
Approx. 15 mins.
9
Q
OXY: What causes the automatic deployment of the passenger masks?
A
Cabin altitude above approx. 14,000 ft.
10
Q
RCDR: GND CTL auto logic
A
On for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied.
On while at least 1 engine is running.
On while in-flight.
Stays on for 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.
11
Q
SIGNS: What lights illuminate when normal electrical power is lost?
A
(1) Floor proximity escape path markings
(2) Overhead emergency lighting
12
Q
SIGNS: What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is ON?
A
(1) Floor proximity escape path markings
(2) Overhead emergency lighting
(3) EXIT lights
13
Q
SIGNS: When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?
A
(1) When normal AC power is lost and the EMER EXIT LT switch is in ARM
(2) DC ESS SHED bus is not powered
(3) Cabin altitude is above 11,300 ft
14
Q
VENT: BLOWER fault lt
A
Low blower pressure.
Computer power supply failure.
Smoke warning.
Duct overheat.
15
Q
VENT: EXTRACT fault lt
A
Low extract pressure.
Computer power supply failure.
Smoke warning.
16
Q
ENG: When is the FADEC self powered?
A
When N2 is above 10%.
17
Q
A/THR: When is A. FLOOR inhibited on the NEOs?
A
Above M.60
18
Q
AIR COND: APU BLEED fault lt
A
APU bleed leak
19
Q
AIR COND: BLEED fault lt
A
(1) Overpressure
(2) Overheat
(3) Wing or engine leak
(4) Valve not closed during engine start
(5) Valve not closed with APU BLEED ON
20
Q
AIR COND: HOT AIR fault lt
A
Duct overheat.
21
Q
AIR COND: HOT AIR fault system behavior
A
Trim air valves close.
PACK 1 controls temp to cockpit at the last selected value.
PACK 2 controls temp to cabin at the average of the FWD and AFT temp selectors.
22
Q
AIR COND: PACK fault lt
A
(1) Low air pressure
(2) Compressor outlet overheat
(3) Pack outlet overheat
23
Q
ANTI ICE: ENG fault lt
A
Valve disagreement with the pb position.
24
Q
ANTI ICE: WING fault lt
A
Valve disagreement with the pb position.
Low pressure.
25
ANTI ICE: What happens when you press the WING anti ice pb on the ground?
30 sec. self test and then shuts off until airborne.
26
ANTI ICE: What is the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic?
On ground, when an engine is running, it is at low power.
In the air it is at high power.
27
BRK: What causes MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?
Airspeed above 72 kts and thrust levers at idle and ground spoilers extended.
28
BRK: What is the parking brake EPR limitation?
1.15 EPR
29
CABIN PRESS: MODE SEL fault lt
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
30
CABIN PRESS: What does the DITCHING pb to ON do?
Closes the outflow valve,
RAM AIR inlet,
avionics inlet and avionics outlet,
pack flow control valves.
31
ECAM Control Panel: What buttons are hardwired?
CLR. RCL. STS. EMER CANC. ALL.
32
ELEC: APU GEN fault lt
Line contactor open.
33
ELEC: BAT fault lt
Battery charging outside limits and then the battery line contactor opens.
34
ELEC: GALLEY fault lt
At least 1 GEN is above 100% output.
35
ELEC: GEN fault lt
Line contactor open. Fault detected by GCU.
36
ELEC: How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor.
37
ELEC: When are the BATs connected to the BATTERY BUS?
Battery charging.
APU start.
AC BUS 1 & 2 is not powered and airspeed is less than 100 kt.
38
EMER ELEC PWR: What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS SHED.
DC ESS and DC ESS SHED.
39
ENG: When do you get approach idle on a NEO?
CONF 3 or CONF FULL or when the gear is down.
40
F/CTL: How does pitch behave in ALT LAW?
Same as normal law. Load factor demand.
41
F/CTL: How does roll behave in ALT LAW?
Roll direct.
42
F/CTL: How does yaw behave in ALT LAW?
Loss of turn coordination.
43
FIRE: What happens when the ENG FIRE pb is pushed?
(1) Silences the aural warning
(2) Arms the squibs
(3) Closes the hydraulic fire valve
(4) Closes the LP fuel valve
(5) Deactivates the IDG
(6) Closes the pack flow control valve
(7) Closes the engine bleed valve
(8) Deactivates the FADEC
44
FIRE: Where are the engine fire loops installed?
Pylon nacelle,
core,
fan.
45
FUEL: Approx total fuel capacity.
42,000 lbs.
46
FUEL: FUEL tank pump fault lt
Low delivery pressure.
47
FUEL: MODE SEL fault lt
AUTO mode failed.
Center tank has more than 550 lbs. and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.
48
FUEL: Outer tank capacity
1,560 lbs.
49
FUEL: What happens when center tank feeding and IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks?
Center tanks stop feeding until wing tank is reduced by 1,100 lbs.
50
FUEL: When does outer tank fuel transfer to the inner tanks?
When the inner tank quantity is 1,650 lbs.
51
EMER ELEC PWR: RAT and EMER GEN FAULT lt
AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. It would normally be on during the 8 second transit time.
52
ELEC: What happens when you select GEN 1 LINE to OFF?
GEN 1 line contactor opens.
AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors.
GEN 1 powers one fuel pump in each wing tank.
53
ADIRS: Flashing white ALIGN light
(1) PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of a full alignment or within 3 minutes of a fast alignment
(2) Large different between shutdown position and entered position
(3) Aircraft movement during alignment
54
ELEC: Acceptable BAT voltage
25.6 V
55
ENG: APPR IDLE (CEO)
(1) Aircraft in flight
| (2) Flap lever not in zero position
56
ENG: APPR IDLE (NEO)
(1) Aircraft in flight
(2) Flaps CONF 3 or FULL
Or
(1) Aircraft in flight
(2) LDG GEAR DOWN
57
FLAPS: How does the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) work?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) automatically retract to 0 at 210 kts.
58
SPEED BRAKES: When are speed brakes inhibited?
(1) AOA protection is active
(2) A. FLOOR is active
(3) Thrust levers above MCT
(4) CONF FULL (A319/320)
(5) CONF 3 and CONF FULL (A321)
59
Describe ADIRU life while running on batteries only.
(1) ADIRU 1 will run until the battery is depleted
(2) ADIRU 2 will drop off after 5 minutes
(3) ADIRU 3 will drop off after 5 minutes
60
Why does GEN 1 LINE OFF run one fuel pump in each wing tank?
To provide enough pressure to eliminate air bubbles in the fuel and avoid pump cavitation.
61
Continuous Ignition (IAE)
(1) ENG ANTI ICE pb ON
(2) Max TO thrust selected
(3) FLEX TO thrust selected
(4) EIU data failed
(5) Approach idle selected
(6) Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge
(7) Master level cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON
62
Continuous Ignition (NEO)
(1) Engine flame-out detected
(2) Surge detected
(3) Thrust control malfunction detected
(4) Ignition delay during start
63
FAC functions
(1) Yaw
-Yaw damping
-Turn coordination
-Rudder trim
-Rudder travel limiter
(2) Flight Envelope
-PFD min/max speed
-Manuevering speed
-Alpha-floor
(3) Low-Energy Aural Alert
(4) WINDSHEAR Detection
64
What information does the ADR provide?
(1) Barometric altitude
(2) Airspeed
(3) Mach
(4) Overspeed warnings
(5) Temperature
(6) Angle of attack
65
What information does the IR provide?
(1) Attitude
(2) Flight Path Vector
(3) Heading
(4) Track
(5) Acceleration
(6) Angular rates
(7) Groundspeed
(8) Aircraft position
66
APU: Max altitude for starting, 1 generator lost
FL 410
67
APU: Max altitude for starting, EMER ELEC CONFIG
FL 250
68
Takeoff not recommended on which runway conditions?
Water on top of Compacted Snow
Dry Snow over Ice.
Wet Snow over Ice
69
Takeoff is not permitted on what runway conditions?
Wet Ice.
70
What visibility is considered visible moisture with OAT at or below 10C?
1SM (1600m) or less
71
What happens to over temperature protection if bleed BMC fails on NEO? CEO?
NEO: Lost on affected side.
CEO: no affect.
72
Pax count for PACK LO or ECON?
A320…below 141
A321…below 168
73
What are some considerations for APU Starts and Shutdowns during
Refueling/Defueling?
If the APU failed to start or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not
start the APU. If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown.
74
Minimum fuel for takeoff?
3307 lbs.
75
At what temperature will the LO OIL TEMP ECAM go away if you received it
upon pushing the TO CONFIG PB (Minimum Temperature Before Takeoff
Limitation)?
50°C for the CEO and
52°C for the NEO
76
When is it prohibited to use the GA SOFT mode?
OEI
77
According to the aircraft limitations, how long should the cabin last without
air conditioning supply with passengers on board?
20 minutes - the lack of fresh air supply will significantly reduce the cabin’s
air quality.
78
What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external
horn to sound?
BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped.
79
Above what temperature does there start to be a limit in running the aircraft
electrical supply in the normal avionics ventilation configuration?
Above 49°C the limitations section should be consulted to determine how long the aircraft can run on electrical power.
80
At what altitude should you expect to receive a Cabin Altitude warning?
9,550 ft (+/- 350 ft)
81
What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?
Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 ft
Both autopilots fail
82
When does PM announce “PITCH?”
A320…when pitch attitude becomes lower than -2.5 ° or higher than +10 °
A321…when pitch attitude becomes lower than -2.5 ° or higher than +7.5 °
83
If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?
Yes, as long as the LGCIU still has electric power.
84
What happens when the A/SKID & N/W STRG is switched OFF?
Loss of nose wheel steering
Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
Anti-skid is deactivated
ABCU takes over
85
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground
spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s2
MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground
spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s2
86
If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Anti-skid function, if anything?
At least 1 channel of the BSCU
87
How many full brake applications with accumulator only braking?
Approximately 7.
88
What is the maximum tire speed?
195 kts GS.
89
If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?
THS is jammed.
90
When does the aircraft exit ALPHA FLOOR and what is auto thrust behavior?
When AOA is reduced.
Reversible A. FLOOR (FMS2 ACFT)…
If autothrust was not active before…reverts to manual thrust at the TLA.
If autothrust was active before…reverts to active to correspond to the AP/FD mode.
All other ACFT…
TOGA LK
TOGA thrust is locked.
91
When would Thrust Lock occur?
Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed,
or
A/THR disconnects due to a failure
92
What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?
The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or
Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
93
When should we perform a TOGA takeoff? 7 instances.
1. Flex temp within 10⁰ of OAT
2. Contaminated runway
3. Medium or High Windshear Risk Factors exist
4. When requested by Maintenance
5. When directed to by Aerodata takeoff performance or
6. the departure procedure/COMPLEX SPECIAL PROC
7. When directed by the MEL
94
If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?
IAE V2500 = Accelerate to minimum of 50% N1 at intervals of not more than
15 minutes apart
PW1100G = Accelerate to 60% N1 for 30 seconds at intervals of
o 30 minutes if OAT is +3°C or below
95
If a decision is made to make an engine-out emergency CAT II or III fail
passive Autoland, what conditions does the limitations section provide?
CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved in configuration
FULL, and if engine-out procedures are completed before reaching 1,000 ft
in approach.
96
How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system
pressure available?
The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed.
97
What is ALPHA LOCK?
This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.
98
Why do the SOPs ask us to leave the flaps at 1 on the ground when
temperatures are above 37⁰C?
To allow air to flow between the leading edge and the slat to prevent WING
BLEED LEAK warnings.
99
Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff.
If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are
set to idle.
If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on
one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler
deployment.
100
When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?
On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 ft
During landing below 50 ft
101
Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical
Configuration?
VHF COM 1
HF 1
102
Why would a pilot select the NAV key on an RMP?
When both MCDUs fail
An immediate landing into an airport not in the database.
103
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff with brake fans on?
150°C
104
What is the max NWS angle?
+/- 85°
105
What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?
Nothing
106
What is the maximum wind limitation for FWD and AFT cargo operation?
40 knots (or 50 knots, if the aircraft nose is into the wind or if the FWD and
AFT cargo doors are on the leeward side).
107
The FWD and AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed
exceeds what speed?
65 knots
108
Name three sources for high pressure pneumatic air?
Engine bleed system
APU low compressor
HP ground connection
109
Abnormal procedure sequence of events
(1) MEMORY ITEMS, PROFICIENCY ITEMS, or OEB immediate actions
(2) OEB
(3) ECAM
(4) QRH
110
During abnormal procedure, STS page actions:
Order STOP ECAM.
Consider the after takeoff flow pattern,
any normal C/L,
system reset, or
any additional procedure, as applicable
111
TESTS briefing
Type of emergency
Evacuation necessary?
Special instructions
Time remaining to prepare
Signal to brace/evacuate
Annual
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