Test your Knowledge

Question 1

What is a requirement, and how does it differ from a stakeholder expectation in product development?

Answer 1

A requirement is a statement about a desired design (which can be evaluated as true or false…), whereas a stakeholder expectation is a mental projection of something that should happen, which is subjective and may not be explicitly stated.

Question 2

What are the two main steps of SWOT analysis and how do they support strategic decision-making?

Answer 2

SWOT analysis involves identifying internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats, followed by combining them to derive strategic actions.

Question 3

How do customer requirements differ from technical requirements, and can you give one example of each?

Answer 3

Customer requirements express general desires (e.g., “I want good coffee”), while technical requirements translate these into measurable specifications (e.g., “The machine shall produce ≥9 bar pressure”).

Question 4

What are four types of requirements commonly used in engineering, and what does each represent?

Answer 4

Four types of requirements include functional (what the system does), non-functional (quality attributes), performance (quantitative targets), and process requirements (how development is conducted).

Question 5

What are three key challenges when receiving requirements, and how can they affect the design process?

Answer 5

Key challenges when receiving requirements include ambiguity (unclear language), volatility (changing expectations), and incompleteness (missing or hidden needs).

Question 6

What is requirement fixation, and why can it hinder finding better design solutions?

Answer 6

Requirement fixation occurs when designers rigidly adhere to initial requirements, potentially overlooking better or more innovative solutions.

Question 7

How does benchmarking help define design goals?

Answer 7

Benchmarking helps define design goals by comparing competitor products, as shown in the Tesla Model 3 example where its drivability influenced new performance targets.

Question 8

What is the purpose of storytelling in requirements elicitation, and which elements make it effective?

Answer 8

Storytelling helps uncover hidden or non-obvious requirements by enabling designers to empathize with users through personas, storyboards, and user stories.

Question 9

How do personas, storyboards, and user stories contribute to understanding user needs in product development?

Answer 9

Personas represent user types, storyboards visualize user-product interactions, and user stories describe user needs in a structured format to guide requirement formulation.

Question 10

What are scope 2 emissions?

Answer 10

Scope 2 emissions are the indirect greenhouse gas emissions from the generation of purchased energy

Question 11

Which of the following requirements could violate the What not-How principle?
A) The device shall be operable at temperatures between −30°C and +50°C.
B) The housing shall be made of aluminum.
C) The handle shall have stiffness > 10 N/mm.
D) The total weight shall be less than 5 kg.

Answer 11

B) The housing shall be made of aluminum.

Question 12

For each requirement below, mark whether it is verifiable (V) or not verifiable (N):
“The product should look modern.”
“The maximum noise level shall not exceed 65 dB(A).”
“The button shall feel pleasant to press.”

Answer 12

“The product should look modern.” → N
“The maximum noise level shall not exceed 65 dB(A).” → V
“The button shall feel pleasant to press.” → N

Question 13

Which pair of requirements is redundant?
A) R1: Diameter shall be in [10–12] mm; R2: Radius shall be less than 6 mm.
B) R1: Mass shall be below 2 kg; R2: Deflection shall be below 1 mm.
C) R1: The system shall operate in rain; R2: The system shall operate at −50°C to +50°C.
D) R1: Length shall be 120 mm; R2: Surface shall be anodized.
E) None of the above

Answer 13

A) R1: Diameter shall be in [10–12] mm; R2: Radius shall be less than 6 mm. (R2 is redundant to R1)

Question 14

In the “house on fire” example, is “presence of oxygen” (O₂) a necessary, sufficient, or an INUS condition for the house burning?

Answer 14

Necessary and INUS

Question 15

Which statement could be a set of INUS conditions?
A) “Lighting a match alone always causes fire.”
B) “A match + oxygen + flammable material together cause fire.”
C) “Fire cannot occur without oxygen.”
D) “Wooden walls always cause house fires.”

Answer 15

B) “A match + oxygen + flammable material together cause fire.”

Question 16

In the coffee machine QFD, the “size of water tank” is positively correlated with “brewing time.” If the goal is to reduce brewing time, which design adjustment aligns with the correlation?
A) Increase tank size
B) Decrease tank size
C) Increase heater temperature
D) Add insulation

Answer 16

B) Decrease tank size

Question 17

In a QFD correlation matrix for the coffee-machine design, the size of the water tank has a strong positive correlation (++) with the time to complete brewing. The design team wants to increase coffee quantity and decrease brewing time. Which combination of decisions below avoids a conflict of goals?
A) Increase tank size and raise heater power
B) Increase tank size and keep heater power constant
C) Reduce tank size and lower heater power
D) Increase tank size and lower brewing temperature

Answer 17

A) Increase tank size and raise heater power

Question 18

In the final House of Quality, brewing temperature shows the highest relative technical importance (RTI) and low technical difficulty, while dimensions of housing show low RTI but high technical difficulty. Which of the following prioritization strategies is most consistent with QFD principles?
A) Focus first on improving housing dimensions because it’s hardest.
B) Focus first on brewing temperature because it offers high customer impact at low difficulty.
C) Ignore brewing temperature because it’s already good enough.
D) Treat both equally since difficulty balances importance.

Answer 18

B) Focus first on brewing temperature because it offers high customer impact at low difficulty.

Question 19

Define the term model in the context of product development.

Answer 19

A model is a simplified representation of an original system that includes only what is relevant for a particular purpose.

Question 20

Using the nutcracker example, explain the concept of abstraction.

Answer 20

Starting from a specific nutcracker, omit specific details (e.g., crush nut with a lever arm of length 20 cm) to produce a more general description that would inclu a class of nutcrackers (e.g., apply static force)

Question 21

List the steps to create a flow-oriented function model for a banana peeling machine.

Answer 21

-Decide what flow to model.
-Define the starting and end state.
-Define connecting functions.
-Define the states in between.
-Review.
-Label.

Question 22

What are the three types of functions and four types of relations in relation-oriented function modeling?

Answer 22

Function types:
-FT: Function of type task (imperative)
-FB: Function of type behavior (descriptive)
-HF: Harmful function (undesired behavior)
Relation types:
-Was introduced for
-Was introduced to prevent
-Causes or may cause
-Prevents or may prevent

Question 23

What is a graph in the context of system modeling? Differentiate between a tree and a polyhierarchy.

Answer 23

-A graph is a set of nodes / elements and connecting edges / relations.
-A tree connects nodes with exactly one path between any two nodes (no cycles).
-A polyhierarchy allows multiple parent nodes without cycles

Question 24

How can a graph be converted into a matrix? What does a cell entry represent?

Answer 24

Assign each node to a row and column. For directed graphs, rows = inputs, columns = outputs.
A cell entry (e.g., X or 1) indicates a relation from the row element to the column element.

Question 25

Explain the purpose of a Design Structure Matrix (DSM) and give two types of DSMs.

Answer 25

A DSM is a matrix that represents elements and their relationships (e.g., components, tasks). It serves as input for further processing (clustering, sequencing) and compact visualization. Types: -Undirected DSMs for static systems, e.g., product architectures, -Directed DSMs for temporal systems, e.g., processes

Question 26

What is the goal of clustering in DSM analysis?

Answer 26

To group elements with strong internal connections and minimize inter-cluster dependencies, aiding in modularization and organizational structuring.

Question 27

What is sequencing in DSM, and what does a triangular matrix indicate?

Answer 27

Sequencing reorders DSM rows/columns to move dependencies above the diagonal, minimizing feedback loops. A triangular matrix indicates a fully sequenced process with no feedback.

Question 28

Using relation-oriented function modeling, identify at least 3 useful and 2 harmful functions for an ice crusher module.

Answer 28

Useful functions: Provide ice cubes, crush ice cubes, collect crushed ice Harmful functions: Makes noise, corrodes material

Question 29

What distinguishes functional, project, and matrix organizations in product development—and when is each advantageous?

Answer 29

Functional groups expertise by discipline (depth, but weaker integration). Project groups all disciplines per project (strong integration/time-to-market, may dilute discipline depth). Matrix blends both but increases management overhead and shared responsibilities.

Question 30

In the role-playing workshop, which real-world challenges of distributed development are being simulated?

Answer 30

Incomplete and asymmetrically distributed information, incomplete communication, time pressure and iterations caused by circular dependencies.

Question 31

Define an Attribute Dependency Graph (ADG). What must NOT appear in it?

Answer 31

An ADG is a graph of elements (nodes) and relations (edges) that represent dependency; it should include all attributes that (i) may change during design or use and (ii) help formulate INUS conditions—serving as a building plan for deriving requirements. It must not contain requirements!

Question 32

What is the difference between “direct” and “indirect” influence in an ADG?

Answer 32

A direct influence exists if B can change C without changing an intermediate A; adding intermediate attributes turns a direct influence into an indirect one—this is a property of the model, not the physical object.

Question 33

Why are ADGs useful for multi-disciplinary systems compared to two-level methods like QFD/DMM?

Answer 33

ADGs can represent arbitrarily many hierarchy levels and resolve detailed dependencies; QFD/DMM are simpler to create/communicate but remain two-level views that may omit detail.

Question 34

List steps/rules for constructing an ADG.

Answer 34

1. Forget requirements but include their associated attributes; 2. List relevant attributes; 3. Order by dependency (emergence); 4. Check direct vs. indirect influences; 5. Improve by possibly adding intermediate attributes.

Question 35

When is a matrix organization particularly sensible, and what risk does it bring?

Answer 35

Complex products that require a deep level of expertise. Risk: higher coordination/administration due to multiple supervisors/shared management.

Question 36

What is the difference between Quantities of Interest (QoIs) and Design Variables (DVs), and how does scope affect them?

Answer 36

QoIsare quantities that measure the performance of a product. They are typically subject to requirements. DVs are controllable design attributes. Which are QoIs/DVs depends on the chosen scope; DVs may also be QoIs in a different scope.

Question 37

Name two reasons real projects iterate, and how ADGs may help reduce iteration.

Answer 37

Circular or ambiguous dependencies between components or attributes → make them explicit and remove cycles. Incomplete or asymmetrically distributed information across teams → create a shared dependency map. Unclear interfaces/handovers that create rework at integration → define where disciplines meet and what must be delivered.

Question 38

Define Morphological Chart and name two reduction strategies to limit the number of concept combinations when using it.

Answer 38

A Morphological Chart (Zwicky box) orders functions and their partial solutions; each row is a function and each column lists alternative partial solutions. Two reduction strategies are (i) sort functions by relevance and postpone low-relevance ones, and (ii) sort partial solutions by suitability and postpone the less suitable; you can also group partial solutions into solution classes and combine within a class.

Question 39

What is the goal of target cascading, and how does it relate to “inversion” of the system mapping?

Answer 39

Goal: break top-level requirements into detailed requirements for subsystems/components (top-down). It resembles inversion because, given a desired system response, we seek the design variables that would produce it.

Question 40

Define box-shaped solution spaces and explain one key benefit and one disadvantage of using box-shaped solution spaces instead of the complete solution space.

Answer 40

A solution space is a set of designs that satisfy all requirements; a box-shaped solution space expresses this as independent intervals for each design variable. Benefit: strong decoupling enables parallel, independent work; disadvantage: (1) loss of feasible volume (conservative), (2) it does not guarantee physical feasibility.

Question 41

In a Morphological Chart, the total number of possible concepts equal A. The sum of the number of partial solutions across all functions B. The product of the number of partial solutions per function C. The maximum number of partial solutions of any function D. The number of functions squared

Answer 41

B. The product of the number of partial solutions per function

Question 42

Analytical Target Cascading (ATC) primarily computes A. Interval-based requirements via manual negotiation B. Point-based target values via numerical optimization C. Only qualitative trade-offs among functions D. Feasible sets of discrete components only

Answer 42

B. Point-based target values via numerical optimization

Question 43

Selective Design Space Projection is used to… A. Replace quantitative models with checklists B. Convert graphs into matrices C. Visualize and derive interval requirements on design variables by projecting high-dimensional good regions onto 2 dimensional diagrams D. Guarantee physically realizable designs without simulation

Answer 43

C. Visualize and derive interval requirements on design variables by projecting high-dimensional good regions onto 2 dimensional diagrams

Question 44

Which of the following best describes the goal of product family design? A) Maximize complexity across products B) Minimize internal variability while achieving large external variability C) Minimize customer-relevant property range D) Maximize the number of component variants

Answer 44

B) Minimize internal variability while achieving large external variability

Question 45

A module-based product family is primarily created by: A) Scaling component dimensions B) Changing only motor diameters C) Adding, removing, or substituting modules D) Reducing manufacturing tolerances

Answer 45

C) Adding, removing, or substituting modules

Question 46

What does a commonality pattern describe? A) How many design variables a product has B) Which products share component variants C) The cost of manufacturing a module D) The geometrical size of solution spaces

Answer 46

B) Which products share component variants

Question 47

Which number system counts the number of possible partitions of a set? A) Fibonacci numbers B) Pascal numbers C) Bell numbers D) Factorials

Answer 47

C) Bell numbers

Question 48

Define component variant in product family design

Answer 48

Two distinct versions of a component type shared across products.

Question 49

What is the primary objective when minimizing the number of component variants?

Answer 49

Maximize commonality, minimize cost by using economy of scales.

Question 50

What do solution spaces represent in design?

Answer 50

Regions of good design.

Question 51

Give one typical design challenge addressed by product family design

Answer 51

Minimize number of component variants.

Question 52

Name the two main types of product family design presented in the lecture

Answer 52

Module-based and scale-based.

Question 53

What is an assignment scheme used for?

Answer 53

Assigning component variants to product variants.

Question 54

Which of the following is not one of the three prototype purposes in the Prototyping Taxonomy? A) Exploration B) Communication C) Validation D) Evaluation

Answer 54

C) Validation

Question 55

Which prototype “lens of innovation” evaluates whether people actually want the solution? A) Feasibility B) Viability C) Desirability D) Functionality

Answer 55

C) Desirability

Question 56

Which type of prototype focuses on convincing stakeholders or decision makers?

Answer 56

Communication prototypes

Question 57

A team designs a new water bottle and wants to test if customers understand the opening mechanism. Which prototyping purpose does this correspond to?

Answer 57

Communication (because of other stakeholders, here users) and/or evaluation (because you want to find out if it succeeds in enabling users to open something)

Question 58

A designer builds three cardboard versions of a phone stand to compare shape alternatives. Which prototyping purpose is being used?

Answer 58

Exploration

Question 59

According to the lecture, which action reduces occurrence (O) in FMEA? A) Add sensors to detect faults B) Redesign the component to avoid failure C) Reduce customer exposure D) Reduce severity of consequences

Answer 59

B) Redesign the component to avoid failure

Question 60

In an FMEA, the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is typically computed as: A) S + O + D B) S × O × D C) (S × O) + D D) S × (O + D)

Answer 60

B) S × O × D

Question 61

What does an FMEA Step 1 produce?

Answer 61

A system structure

Question 62

In an FMEA for a bicycle brake, the team negates the function “transmit force” to look for weak points. Which FMEA step are they performing?

Answer 62

Identifying failure candidates

Question 63

When is a design or alternative considered Pareto-optimal? A) When all attributes have equal values B) When no Pareto improvement is possible C) When it dominates all other alternatives

Answer 63

B) When no Pareto improvement is possible

Question 64

What defines a Pareto improvement? A) Improving all attributes simultaneously B) Improving at least one attribute without making another worse C) Improving utility by changing weights D) Reducing the price of all alternatives

Answer 64

B) Improving at least one attribute without making another worse

Question 65

What is a key limitation of Pareto optimality highlighted in the slides? A) It is a subjective criterion B) It cannot handle binary attributes C) It does not identify a unique optimum D) It requires rating functions

Answer 65

C) It does not identify a unique optimum

Question 66

Why are additional criteria needed after identifying Pareto-optimal alternatives? A) Because Pareto fronts are not objective B) Because all Pareto-optimal alternatives are equally preferable C) Because utility functions require normalization D) Because Pareto diagrams only work for discrete data

Answer 66

B) Because all Pareto-optimal alternatives are equally preferable

Question 67

How is “utility” defined in the lecture? A) A technical performance index B) A market-based cost indicator C) A measure of the individual degree of satisfaction of needs D) A statistical ranking value

Answer 67

C) A measure of the individual degree of satisfaction of needs

Question 68

What characterizes a "good decision" regarding different viewpoints? A) The rational view ignores intuition B) The intuitive view matches the rational view C) The decision is made by only one stakeholder D) The model is never changed

Answer 68

B) The intuitive view matches the rational view

Question 69

What is the main purpose of utility evaluation?

Answer 69

It aims to rationalize decisions by organizing important aspects and making preferences transparent for communication

Question 70

Name three types of rating functions used in Extended Utility Evaluation

Answer 70

The functions used are linear, quadratic, and exponential

Question 71

How does hierarchical weighting work?

Answer 71

You define sub-criteria, assign relative weights (summing to 1) at each level, and multiply branches to find absolute weights.

Question 72

Which statement best distinguishes a method from a procedure model? A. A method is a macro view; a procedure model is a micro view. B. A method is a set of specific actions to achieve a goal; a procedure model is a coarse description of a development process (macro-level), used for planning/organizing/controlling. C. Both are identical; only the naming differs by domain. D. A procedure model describes action items (operative character) in detail; a method describes outcomes only.

Answer 72

B. A method is a set of specific actions to achieve a goal; a procedure model is a coarse description of a development process (macro-level), used for planning/organizing/controlling.

Question 73

In the Stage-Gate model by Eppinger & Ulrich, what is the role of a “gate”? A. It is a prototype build step done after each stage. B. It is a review that tests whether the preceding phase (stage) is completed. C. It is an automatic approval after a fixed time period. D. It is a planning document created at the start of the project.

Answer 73

B. It is a review that tests whether the preceding phase (stage) is completed.

Question 74

Which statement best describes a limitation of the V-model as presented in the lecture on procedure models? A. It cannot handle high technical complexity. B. It does not allow feedback loops between development phases. C. It is not specific about how to derive requirements quantitatively. D. It is unsuitable for integrating multiple engineering disciplines.

Answer 74

C. It is not specific about how to derive requirements quantitatively.

Question 75

Which sequence matches the early steps of the Stage-Gate model by Pahl/Beitz (VDI 2221)? A. Search for solution principles → Clarify task → Determine functions → Prepare instructions B. Clarify and define the task → Determine functions and their structures → Search for solution principles and their combinations → Divide into realizable modules C. Determine functions → Divide into modules → Clarify task → Complete overall design D. Clarify task → Complete overall design → Search for solution principles → Prepare instructions

Answer 75

B. Clarify and define the task → Determine functions and their structures → Search for solution principles and their combinations → Divide into realizable modules

Question 76

In the Stacey Matrix (as used here), what do the two dimensions represent? A. Cost uncertainty and team size B. Indeterminacy of expectation (unknown success metric) and technical complexity (difficulty with available means) C. Market share and product lifetime D. Number of stakeholders and number of requirements

Answer 76

B. Indeterminacy of expectation (unknown success metric) and technical complexity (difficulty with available means)

Question 77

Give two benefits and two limitations of Stage-Gate models.

Answer 77

Benefits: simple/linear; gates provide control mechanisms and clear project status; strong front loading on task clarification/requirements. Limitations: relies on comprehensive requirements (hard to establish); difficult to react to changing requirements; limited learning from prototypes; not specific on concept development.

Question 78

Why does the lecture motivate using the V-model instead of a purely linear top-down / stage-gate approach?

Answer 78

Because linear top-down / stage-gate development may not lead to an integrable or feasible solution; therefore, the V-model includes feedback loops to adjust requirements when verification/validation fail and emphasizes distribution of responsibilities.

Question 79

According to the lecture (VDI 2206 framing), for what kinds of development is the general V-model intended, and where did it originate?

Answer 79

It is a development procedure model for integration of different disciplines, high complexity (interaction of components), and well-understood requirements; it was originally proposed for software development based on the Waterfall model and later extended to mechatronic systems (VDI 2206).

Question 80

Which statement best characterizes agile development compared to stage-gate and V-model approaches? A. Agile relies on predefined phases with fixed transitions. B. Agile aims to eliminate iteration by strong front-loading of requirements. C. Agile treats changing requirements as normal and organizes work in short iterative cycles. D. Agile is only applicable when requirements and technologies are well understood.

Answer 80

C. Agile treats changing requirements as normal and organizes work in short iterative cycles.

Question 81

According to the lecture, which feature is typical of agile development? A. Verification and validation are performed only at the end of the project. B. Work is structured around roles, artifacts, and events rather than fixed phases. C. Requirements must be fully specified before development starts. D. Iteration is considered a failure of planning.

Answer 81

B. Work is structured around roles, artifacts, and events rather than fixed phases.