For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
A - 5 degrees caudad
B - 10 degrees caudad
C - 5 degrees cephalad
D - 0 degrees (perpendicular)
D - 0 degrees (perpendicular)
The knee is formed by the proximal tibia, the patella, and the distal femur, which articulate to form the femorotibial and femoropatellar joints. Body habitus will change the relationship of the knee-joint space with the tabletop/IR considerably. The CR should be directed to ½ inch below patellar apex (knee joint). The direction of CR depends on distance between the ASIS and tabletop/IR. When this distance is up to 19 cm (thin pelvis), the CR should be directed 3 to 5 degrees caudad; when the distance is between 19 to 24 cm, the CR is directed vertically/perpendicular (0 degrees); when the distance is greater than 24 cm (thick pelvis), the CR is directed 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
A - Lateral wrist
B - Ulnar deviation
C - Radial deviation
D - Carpal tunnel
B - Ulnar deviation
The carpal scaphoid is somewhat curved and consequently foreshortened radiographically in the PA projection/position. To better separate it from the adjacent carpals, the ulnar deviation maneuver is frequently employed. In addition to correcting foreshortening of the scaphoid, ulnar deviation opens the interspaces between adjacent lateral carpals. Radial deviation is used to better demonstrate medial carpals.
Proper positioning for the lateral calcaneus will result in:
1) Open joint space between calcaneus and cuboid
2) Superimposed talar domes
3) Lateral malleolus free of superimposition
A - 1 and 2 only
B - 1 and 3 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
A - 1 and 2 only
Proper positioning for the lateral calcaneus will result in open joint spaces between the calcaneus and cuboid (1), talus and calcaneus, and talus and navicular. The talar domes should be superimposed (2). The lateral malleolus will partially superimpose the distal tibia and talus (3).
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3 only
B - 1 and 2 only
Synovial pivot joints are diarthrotic, that is, freely movable. Pivot joints permit rotation motion. Examples include the proximal radioulnar joint that permits supination and pronation of the hand and the atlantoaxial joint, the articulation between C1 and C2. The atlantoaxial joint permits rotation of the head. The temporomandibular joint is diarthrotic, having both hinge and planar movements.
Which of the following statements regarding Figure 2–10 is (are) true?
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
Get Image……
B - 1 and 2 only
A PA oblique projection of the hand is shown. The correct degree of obliquity (45 degrees) is evidenced by no overlap of midshaft third, fourth, and fifth metacarpals and minimal overlap of their heads. The interphalangeal joint spaces are not visualized because the fingers are not elevated to be parallel to the IR, hence, they are foreshortened.
The Grashey method of the oblique shoulder is used to demonstrate which of the following?
A - Glenohumeral joint
B - Anterior dislocation of the humerus
C - Lesser tubercle abnormalities
D - Posterior dislocation of the humerus
A - Glenohumeral joint
The Grashey method of the oblique shoulder is used to demonstrate the glenohumeral joint space, fractures of the glenoid and proximal humerus, and degenerative changes of the shoulder girdle (A). This projection should not be utilized for evaluation of anterior or posterior dislocations; the scapular Y or axial projections provide more useful information (B and D). The lesser tubercle is best seen on the AP projection of the shoulder with internal rotation, which brings the lesser tubercle in profile (C).
Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus?
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 1 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
A - 1 only
The intertubercular (bicipital) groove is located on the proximal humerus, distal to the head, between the greater and lesser tubercles. The distal humerus articulates with the radius and ulna to form the elbow joint. The lateral aspect of the distal humerus presents a raised, smooth, rounded surface, the capitulum, which articulates with the superior surface of the radial head. The trochlea is on the medial aspect of the distal humerus and articulates with the semilunar notch of the ulna. Just proximal to the capitulum and the trochlea are the
A modified axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful
1 - when the “cross-table” axiolateral is contraindicated.
2 - for patients with bilateral hip fractures.
3 - for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 1 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
D - 1, 2, and 3
The correct answer is: (D)
Typically, traumatic injury to the hip requires a cross-table (axiolateral) lateral projection. Occasionally, this projection may be contraindicated, for example, a patient with suspected bilateral hip fractures, or one who is unable to move the unaffected hip out of the way as required by the axiolateral. In these instances, the axiolateral inferosuperior trauma projection (Clements–Nakayama method) can be employed. The patient is recumbent with lateral surface of affected side close to table/stretcher edge. The CR is directed almost horizontally to the affected femoral neck (inferosuperior), with a 15° posterior angulation. Correct placement and angulation of the grid cassette is essential to avoid grid cutoff.
In the mediolateral projection of the knee, which of the following structures are visualized?
A - Superimposed medial and lateral femoral condyles
B - Intercondylar eminence
C - Medial malleolus
D - Fibular head
E - Patellofemoral joint space
F - Intercondylar fossa
G - Lateral malleolus
H - Infrapatellar fat pad region
A - Superimposed medial and lateral femoral condyles
D - Fibular head
E - Patellofemoral joint space
H - Infrapatellar fat pad region
The answers are A, D, E, and H.
In the mediolateral projection of the knee, the femoral condyles should be superimposed (A). Proper CR angulation and elimination of tilt can demonstrate the intercondylar eminence, seen here superimposed on the femoral condyles (B), and lack of rotation will be evident by visualization of the patellofemoral joint space (E). The fibular head (D) is located on the proximal fibula and will be projected partially superimposed by the tibia. Lastly, soft tissue detail, such as the fat pad anterior to the knee joint (infrapatellar fat pad), will be seen
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
A - Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
B - Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees
C - Medial oblique 45 degrees
D - Lateral oblique 45 degrees
A - Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
The Correct Answer is: A
The 15-degree medial oblique projection is used to demonstrate the ankle mortise (joint). Although the joint is well demonstrated in the 15-degree medial oblique projection, there is some superimposition of the distal tibia and fibula, and greater obliquity is required to separate the bones. To best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular articulation, a 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle is required.
Which of the numbered tarsal bones is the cuboid?
A - 1
B - 4
C - 2
D - 5
E - 3
D - 5
The Correct Answer is: D
The cuboid (5) is located proximal to the base of the fifth metatarsal (2) and articulates with the calcaneus (1) (A, C, and D). The talus is located directly above the calcaneus (3) and distal to the tibia (E). The navicular (
The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as
A - angulation
B - apposition
C - luxation
D - sprain
B - apposition
The Correct Answer is: B
Various terms are used to describe the position of fractured ends of long bones. The term apposition is used to describe the alignment, or misalignment
Which structure is labeled 7?
A - Coracoid process
B - Coronoid process
C - Trochlear notch
D - Radial notch
D - Radial notch
The Correct Answer is: D
An anterior view of the forearm is shown. The proximal anterior surface of the ulna (number 8) presents a rather large pointed process at the anterior margin of the semilunar (trochlear) notch (number 5) called the coronoid process (number 6). The olecranon process is identified as number 4, and the radial notch of the ulna is number 7. Distally, the ulnar head is number 9, and the styloid process is labeled 10. The radius (number 12) is the lateral bone of the forearm. The radial head is number 3, the radial neck is number 2, and the radial tuberosity is number 1. Distally, the radial styloid process is labeled 11.
Angulation of the central ray may be required
1 - to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2 - to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3 - to project through certain articulations.
A - 1 only
B - 2 only
C - 1 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
D - 1, 2, and 3
The Correct Answer is: D
If structures are overlying or underlying the area to be demonstrated (eg, the medial femoral condyle obscuring the joint space in the lateral knee projection), central ray angulation is employed (eg, 5° cephalad angulation to see the joint space in the lateral knee). If structures would be foreshortened or self-superimposed (eg, the scaphoid in a PA wrist), central ray angulation may be employed to place the structure more closely parallel with the IR. Another example is the oblique cervical spine, where cephalad or caudad angulation is required to “open”
Which of the following would correct the positioning error demonstrated?
1 - Direct the CR more medially
2 - Rotate knee 5-10° externally
3 - Angle CR 5-10° caudad to level tibia plateaus
A - 2 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1 and 3 only
B - 1 and 2 only
The correct answer is B.
The AP knee above has part rotation and has slightly askew centering. To correct for these positioning errors, the patient’s knee should be centered more medially (1) in order to reduce medial soft tissue cutoff. The knee should also be rotated 5-10° externally. The knee is currently rotated internally, thus visualizing the proximal tibiofibular articulation. If angulation were to be used, a cephalic angulation of 5-7° could be applied to level the tibial plateaus (3).
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
A - Synarthrodial
B - Diarthrodial
C - Amphiarthrodial
D - Cartilaginous
B - Diarthrodial
The Correct Answer is: B
Arthrography is the study of diarthrodial/synovial joints and related soft tissue structures using contrast media. Diarthrodial joints are freely movable joints that distinctively contain a joint capsule. Contrast medium is injected into the joint capsule to demonstrate the menisci, articular cartilage, bursae, and ligaments of the joint under investigation. Synarthrodial (fibrous) joints are immovable joints composed of either cartilage or fibrous connective tissue. Amphiarthrodial (cartilaginous) joints allow only slight movement.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the radiograph shown?
1 - It demonstrates a scapular Y projection.
2 - The axillary and vertebral borders are superimposed.
3 - It is performed to demonstrate shoulder dislocation.
A - 1 only
B - 2 only
C - 1 and 2 only
D - 2 and 3 only
B - 2 only
The Correct Answer is: B
The radiograph in the Figure illustrates a lateral projection of the scapula. The axillary and vertebral borders are superimposed. The acromion and coracoid process are visualized; the coracoid process is partially superimposed on the axillary portion of the third rib. A scapular Y projection is often performed to demonstrate shoulder dislocation, but the affected arm is left to rest at the patient’s side; the arm in this radiograph is abducted somewhat to better view the body of the scapula.
In the typical AP projection of the ankle, the
1 - plantar surface of the foot is vertical.
2 - fibula projects more distally than the tibia.
3 - calcaneus is well visualized.
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
B - 1 and 2 only
The Correct Answer is: B
To demonstrate the ankle joint space to best advantage, the plantar surface of the foot should be vertical in the AP projection of the ankle. Note that the fibula is the more distal of the two long bones of the lower leg and forms the lateral malleolus. The calcaneus is not well visualized in this projection because of superimposition with other tarsals.
A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with
A - pathology.
B - crepitus.
C - trauma.
D - metabolism.
A - pathology.
The Correct Answer is: A
Spontaneous fractures most often affect bone weakened by a pathologic condition, for example, metastatic bone disease. The spontaneous fracture occurs suddenly, without trauma. One measure of a good radiographer is his or her ability to be cautious and resourceful when examining injured or debilitated patients having pathologic or traumatic conditions such as metastatic bone disease, arthritis, or bone fractures. Crepitus refers to a crackling sound made by a body part—such as the sound of fractured ends of bones rubbing together. Metabolism refers to the numerous energy and material transformations that take place in the body and is not associated with spontaneous fractures.
All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the
A - femur.
B - tibia.
C - fibula.
D - mandible.
C - fibula.
The Correct Answer is: C
The distal femur is associated with two large condyles; the deep depression separating them is the intercondyloid fossa (Fig. A). The proximal tibia has two condyles; their superior surfaces are smooth, forming the tibial plateau. The mandible has a condyle that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone, forming the temporomandibular joint. The fibula has a proximal styloid process and a distal malleolus, but no condyle.
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
A - AP
B - Lateral
C - Acute flexion
D - AP partial flexion
B - Lateral
The Correct Answer is: B
There are three important fat pads associated with the elbow. The anterior fat pad is located just anterior to the distal humerus. The posterior fat pad is located within the olecranon fossa at the distal posterior humerus. The supinator fat pad/stripe is located at the proximal radius just anterior to the head, neck, and tuberosity. The posterior fat pad is not visible radiographically in the normal elbow. All three fat pads can be demonstrated only in the lateral projection of the elbow.
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate a vertical patellar fracture and the patellofemoral articulation?
A - AP knee
B - Lateral knee
C - Tangential patella
D - Tunnel view
C - Tangential patella
The Correct Answer is: C
In the tangential (sunrise) projection of the patella, the CR is directed parallel to the longitudinal plane of the patella, thereby demonstrating a vertical fracture and providing the best view of the patellofemoral articulation. The AP knee projection could demonstrate a vertical fracture through the superimposed femur, but it does not demonstrate the patellofemoral articulation. The tunnel view of the knee is used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa.
With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in the figure below, which of the following will be visualized?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Patellofemoral articulation
3. Tangential patella
A - 1 only
B - 1 and 2 only
C - 2 and 3 only
D - 1, 2, and 3
C - 2 and 3 only
Note the relationship between the thigh, lower leg, patella, and CR. The CR is directed parallel to the plane of the patella, thereby providing a tangential projection of the patella (i.e., patella in profile) and an unobstructed view of the patellofemoral articulation. A tunnel view is required to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa and the articulating surfaces of the tibia and femur.
What projection would demonstrate number 6?
A - PA projection
B - Lateral projection
C - AP external oblique
D - AP internal oblique
B - Lateral projection
The figure shows a posterior view of the elbow. The distal posterior humerus (number 1) is seen, as well as the proximal posterior radius (number 4) and ulna (number 3). Additional structures identified are the medial epicondyle (number 2), the olecranon fossa (number 5), olecranon process (number 6), lateral epicondyle (number 7), and radial head (number 8) The olecranon process (number 6) can best be demonstrated in the lateral projection; it can also be demonstrated in the acute flexion position. The AP internal oblique will demonstrate the coronoid process; the AP external oblique will demonstrate the radial head free of superimposition.