Basic and Applied Sciences Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one:

a. Frontal

b. Sagittal

c. Dorsal

d. Transverse

A

Transverse - Horizontal is the KEY word here. If it’s horizontal abduction/adduction, think transverse. If it’s not horizontal and just abduction/adduction, think Frontal. Examples: Chest fly, reverse fly

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2
Q

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one:

a. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods

b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods c. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods d. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods

A

b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

Heavy, intense resistance training with short rest (30-60s) creates the greatest acute hormonal response.

Long rest periods reduces metabolic stress and does not cause hormonal spikes.

Low intensity won’t stress the system enough

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3
Q

Which subsystem provides both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC)?

A

Answer: b. Lateral subsystem - known to provide FRONTAL plane stability (think moving side to side)

Deep Longitudinal Subsytem - FORCE transmission along the POSTERIOR chain, think about deadlifting as you hinge + pull, your hamstrings + glutes generate force but that force is transmitted through the thoraclumbar fascia into the erector spinae allowing you to keep a rigid spine

Anterior Oblique Subsystem - Rotation and stablization of the TRANSVERSE plane. Think swinging or throwing like a soccer kick.

Posterior Oblique Subsystem - Works in the TRANSVERSE plane and its function is cross body force transfer. Think backside because of posterior. Links the lats on one side w the glutes on the opposite side through the thoracolumbar fascia. Think running, walking, rotating in the sense of rotational medicine ball throw or running as the right leg steps forward the left lat + right glute max contract together to stabilize and propel

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4
Q

MUSCLES OF THE SUBSYSTEMS

Lateral Subsystem

Deep Longitudinal Subsystem

Anterior Oblique Subsystem

Posterior Oblique Subsystem

A

Lateral Subsystem - gluteus medius, tensor fasciae latae (TFL), adductors, and contralateral quadratus lumborum (QL) (LATERAL = SIDE OF BODY)

Deep Longitudinal Subsystem - erector spinae, thoracolumbar fascia, sacrotuberous ligament, biceps femoris

Anterior Oblique Subsystem - internal/external obliques, adductors (inner thigh muscles), hip external rotators

Posterior Oblique Subsystem - latissimus dorsi, gluteus maximus, thoracolumbar fascia

Mnemonic:

DLS = “Deep Back Line” → Peroneals → Hamstrings → Erectors.

LS = “Lateral Side” → Glute med + Adductors stabilize pelvis.

AOS = “Abs + Adductors” → Front sling for rotation.

POS = “Posterior Sling” → Lat + Glute cross-body.

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5
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Anterior and posterior tibialis
c. Adductor complex
d. Upper trapezius

A

Answer: b. Anterior and posterior tibialis - help keep the foot aligned and control pronation/supination. When they’re underactive, the feet drift outward during squats or gait.

Abdominals and upper traps do not have anything to do with the lower body.

Adductor complex is underactive when it pertains to knee valgus (knees caving in), not feet turning out. And the compensation in question is about the ankle/foot, not hip adduction.

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6
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?

A

Knee varus

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7
Q

Five kinetic chain checkpoints

A

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

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8
Q

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
a. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
b. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
d. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors

A

b. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

a. Overactive upper trapezius / underactive lower trapezius - This relates to scapular elevation/dysfunction, not lumbar arching.

c. Overactive hip adductors / underactive gluteus medius- This relates to knee valgus (knees caving in), not low-back arch.

d. Overactive core stabilizers / underactive hip flexors -Doesn’t make sense — core stabilizers being “overactive” would prevent arching, not cause it.

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9
Q

What are the overactive and underactive muscles for low back arching?

A

Overactive: hip flexors, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

Underactive: gluteus maximus, hamstrings, intrinsic core stabilizers (abdominals)

Think about it! When your low back arches, the overactive muscles are pulling the pelvis and spine into extension and the underactive muscles are not stablizing the core to keep the pelvis neutral.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?
Select one:

a.
As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.

b.
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

c.
As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.

d.
As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.

A

b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases. This is because in an eccentric muscle action, the muscle LENGTHENS under tension meaning that as the velocity of the lengthening increases, the muscles can resist with a greater force.

For CONCENTRIC, it’s INVERSE. So as velocity increases, force decreases.

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11
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Select one:

a.
Isometric

b.
Eccentric

c.
Isotonic

d.
Concentric

A

Answer: d. Concentric

Concentric action = muscle shortens under tension (e.g., lifting the weight in a biceps curl). This requires the highest ATP/energy cost because cross-bridges must actively detach and reattach quickly to shorten the muscle. At a fixed resistance and over the same duration, concentric work is the most metabolically demanding. CONCENTRIC USES THE MOST ENERGY.

Eccentric action = muscle lengthens under tension (e.g., lowering the weight). Surprisingly, this uses the least energy because passive elastic components and fewer cross-bridges are needed to resist the load. THAT’S WHY YOU CAN LOWER MORE WEIGHT THAN YOU CAN LIFT/

Isometric action = muscle length stays the same (e.g., holding a plank).

Energy cost is moderate—higher than eccentric, but lower than concentric—since cross-bridges are engaged but not cycling as rapidly.

Isotonic = a general term meaning “constant tension” (includes both concentric and eccentric).

It’s not specific enough here, so it’s not the best answer.

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12
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

a.
Upper trapezius

b.
Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

c.
Gluteus maximus and medius

d.
Hip flexors

A

b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

BECAUSE with knee valgus, the overactive (tight) muscles pull the knees inward and the adductor complex (INNER THIGH) and TFL contributes to internal rotation and adduction at the hip.

Answer is NOT hip flexors because it is the overactive muscle for stuff like excessive forward lean but it is NOT the main culprit for KNEE VALGUS

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13
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:

a.
Lateral pelvic tilt

b.
Posterior pelvic tilt

c.
Medial pelvic tilt

d.
Anterior pelvic tilt

A

b. Posterior pelvic tilt

Because it’s in the sagittal plane, it has to either be Posterior or anterior pelvic tilt. It’s posterior because hamstrings are apart of the POSTERIOR chain!

If it said FRONTAL plane, it would probably be Lateral pelvic tilt because frontal is associated with adduction/abduction, side to side motion.

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14
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:

a.
Erector spinae

b.
Hip flexor

c.
Gluteus maximus

d.
Gluteus medius

A

Gluteus medius

Erector spinae and hip flexors work in the SAGITTAL plane.

Gluteus maximus is a powerful hip extensor / external rotator BUT is not the main stabilizer for frontal plane pelvic control.

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15
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
Select one:

a.
Eccentric action

b.
Concentric action

c.
Isokinetic action

d.
Isometric action

A

Concentric action

REMEMBER: Eccentric LENGTHENS the muscle fiber under tension. Concentric SHORTENS to produce force such as biceps shorten to flex the elbow (muscle is not as stretched)

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16
Q

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Select one:

a.
Feed-forward

b.
Synergist function

c.
Feedback

d.
Antagonist function

A

Feed-forward

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17
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?
Select one:

a.
Saddle

b.
Nonsynovial

c.
Synovial

d.
Nonaxial

A

Synovial - Examples: shoulder, hip, knee, elbow, wrist, ankle. If the question is about movement, synovial is almost always the answer.

Why not the others:
a. Saddle → This is a type of synovial joint (e.g., thumb CMC joint), but the question asks broadly which joints are most associated with movement.

b. Nonsynovial → These joints (like sutures in the skull) allow little to no movement.

d. Nonaxial → This describes a movement pattern (gliding joints, like carpals), not the overall category most associated with movement.

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18
Q

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Select one:

a.
Ligament

b.
Collagen

c.
Tendon

d.
Elastin

A

Ligament - connects BONE to BONE

Tendon connects MUSCLE to BONE

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19
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Select one:

a.
Abdominals

b.
Lower trapezius

c.
Upper trapezius

d.
Hip flexors

A

Lower trapezius

It says UNDERACTIVE. Read carefully.

Can eliminate hip flexors and abdominals as that is more relevant for LOWER BODY CROSSED SYNDROME.

Upper trapezius is OVERactive.

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20
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:

a.
Rectus abdominis

b.
Hip flexor complex

c.
Gastrocnemius and soleus

d.
Gluteus maximus

A

Gluteus maximus !!

For EXCESSIVE FORWARD TRUNK LEAN during the overhead squat assessment:
OVERACTIVE (tight) muscles: Hip flexor complex (iliopsoas, rectus femoris, TFL), Gastrocnemius and soleus, Abdominals (rectus abdominis)

UNDERACTIVE (weak) muscles:
Gluteus maximus (primary hip extensor), Erector spinae (spinal extensors)

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21
Q

How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:

a.
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

b.
Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips

c.
Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

d.
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine

A

Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

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22
Q

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Select one:

a.
Sagittal plane

b.
Frontal plane

c.
Horizontal plane

d.
Transverse plane

A

FRONTAL PLANE

Scoliosis is defined as a lateral curvature of the spine, which is a deviation in the frontal plane. Think about it! Scoliosis has a side to side curve when viewed from behind AND frontal is side to side. It would NOT be transverse as transverse is more associated with rotational movements!

Why not the others:
a. Sagittal plane → Deviations here would be lordosis (excessive lumbar curve) or kyphosis (excessive thoracic curve).

c. Horizontal plane → Refers to rotational movements, not the primary definition of scoliosis.

d. Transverse plane → Same as above; scoliosis may include rotation, but it’s not the defining feature.

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23
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Select one:

a.
Isokinetic

b.
Isometric

c.
Concentric

d.
Eccentric

A

Isometric
BECAUSE it’s in BETWEEN the landing (eccentric) and jumping (concentric) phase.

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24
Q

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Select one:

a.
Stretching of the antagonist muscle

b.
Stretching of the agonist muscle

c.
Transitioning of forces

d.
Shortening of the agonist muscle

A

Stretching of the agonist muscle

BECAUSE in the eccentric phase, the agonist muscle LENGTHENS (stretches) and remember based on the concept where when the agonist is active, the antagonist is relaxed!!

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25
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Gluteus medius d. Rectus abdominis
Erector spinae Can eliminate the lats and gluteus medius automatically. Do not choose the rectus abdominis because the standing cable rotation is a transverse plane movement and the rectus abdominis is not a primary part of that plane's movement.
26
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Quadratus lumborum c. Pelvic floor musculature d. Diaphragm
Transverse abdominis The transverse abdominis (TVA) is the deepest abdominal muscle, wrapping around the torso like a corset. Its primary role is to compress the abdominal contents, thereby increasing intra-abdominal pressure (IAP). WHY NOT TO CHOOSE: b. Quadratus lumborum → Provides lateral flexion and lumbar stabilization, but not the main driver of IAP. c. Pelvic floor musculature → Supports pelvic organs and contributes to core stability, but it’s not the primary muscle NASM highlights for increasing IAP. d. Diaphragm → Works with the TVA and pelvic floor during breathing and bracing, but its main role is respiration, not direct abdominal compression.
27
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 5.0 mL/kg/min b. 3.5 mL/kg/min c. 2.5 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min
3.5 mL/kg/min
28
What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue c. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength d. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue Acidosis is where something becomes MORE acidic - remember a LOWER PH means more acidic!
29
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Scalenes c. Abdominals d. Internal intercostals
Diaphragm - quiet, resting breathing is done by the diaphragm! All the other options are accessory muscles b. Scalenes → Accessory muscles of inspiration, recruited during deep or labored breathing, not quiet breathing. c. Abdominals → Active during forced expiration (e.g., blowing out hard, exercise, coughing), not quiet breathing. d. Internal intercostals → Assist with forced expiration, not normal inspiration.
30
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach? Select one: a. Sulcus b. Processes c. Bone spurs d. Depressions
Processes Why not the others: a. Sulcus → A groove in the bone that allows soft tissue (like nerves, blood vessels, or tendons) to sit in place. c. Bone spurs → Abnormal bony growths (osteophytes), usually due to degeneration or stress, not normal attachment sites. d. Depressions → Indentations in bone (like the glenoid fossa or acetabulum) where other bones articulate, not where tendons/ligaments attach.
31
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip internal rotators b. Hip flexors c. Hip extensors d. Hip abductors
Hip abductors Naturally from gravity, the thighs will naturally want to gave inwards (ADDUCT) but to prevent that, the hip abductors pull in the other direction preventing from this happening.
32
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Extension b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse
Saggital BECAUSE movements are forward/backward motions like squats, bicep curls, walking/running b. Frontal plane → Divides the body into front and back halves; movements are side-to-side (e.g., lateral raises, side lunges). d. Transverse plane → Divides the body into top and bottom halves; movements are rotational (e.g., cable rotations, trunk twists). MAKES SENSE because when you rotate, the upper body moves but the lower body doesn't move as much.
33
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Lower trapezius c. Adductor complex d. Gluteus maximus and medius
Gluteus maximus and medius The overactive muscles would be the ones pulling the knees inwards which are the hip adductors and the tensor fascia latate in the front of the body. The gluteus maximus and medius should pull and oppose this action to stabilize the femur in the frontal / transverse plane and not allow for knee valgus to occur.
34
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? 69 Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Rectus abdominis c. Diaphragm d. Sternocleidomastoid
Transverse abdominis Can automatically eliminate diaphragm and sternocleidomastoid. It's not rectus abdonminis even though it's a part of the core... It mainly works for spine flexion and does not have a direct connection to the thoracolumbar fascia. The transverse abdominis is attached to the thoracolumbar fascia!
35
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Rotatores b. Rectus abdominis c. Iliopsoas d. Latissimus dorsi
Rotatores This is located in the back along the spine between the vertebrae. It's a DEEP CORE muscle and it's the deepest layer of the back. Located BENEATH the erector spinae. We can automatically eliminate the lats and ilioposas (hip flexors). The rectus abdominis is very superficial and are known to be our "abs".
36
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis? Select one: a. Altered bone shape through the spine b. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity c. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity d. Improper muscle balance in the spine
Altered bone shape through the spine
37
What is the primary action of the multifidus? Select one: a. Regulate inspiration b. Support the contents of the pelvis c. Increase intra-abdominal pressure d. Stabilize and extend the spine
Stabilize the spine The multifidus is a muscle that runs along the vertebrae.
38
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? 89 Select one: a. Scapula and humerus b. Cranium and facial bones c. Sternum and clavicle d. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
39
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? 18 Select one: a. Fewer capillaries b. Less force production c. Larger in size d. Quick to fatigue
Less force production
40
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? 25 Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Series elastic component c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Stretch-shortening cycle
41
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? 26 Select one: a. Decreased blood flow b. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) c. Increased cardiac output d. Lower body temperature
42
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? 33 Select one: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type Ia d. Type III
43
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? 34 Select one: a. Connective tissues b. Muscle spindles c. Fascia d. Tendons
44
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? 44 Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Lower crossed syndrome d. Excessive pronation
45
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? 61 Select one: a. Pectoral group b. Gluteal complex c. Quadratus lumborum d. Obliques
Pectoral group
46
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Explosive-shortening phase c. Muscular-power phase d. Stretching phase
47
What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium c. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it d. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
48
What is the primary action of the multifidus? 78 Select one: a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure b. Regulate inspiration c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Stabilize and extend the spine
Stabilize and extend the spine The multifidus is a deep spinal stabilizer muscle that runs along the vertebral column. Its primary action is to stabilize individual spinal segments during movement, preventing excessive motion that could lead to injury. It also assists with spinal extension and contributes to postural control. This makes it a critical part of the local stabilization system of the core (alongside the transverse abdominis, pelvic floor, diaphragm, etc.). WHY NOT THE OTHERS: a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure → That’s the role of the transverse abdominis. b. Regulate inspiration → That’s the role of the diaphragm. c. Support the contents of the pelvis → That’s the role of the pelvic floor musculature.
49
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation b. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion c. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension Why not the others: a. Infraspinatus during shoulder external rotation → That’s an agonist, not antagonist. b. Serratus anterior during shoulder flexion → Assists with scapular upward rotation, so it’s a synergist, not antagonist. c. Transversus abdominis during hip extension → Provides stabilization, not an antagonist to hip extension.
50
What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere d. The Z-lines moving farther apart
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction BECAUSE the sliding filament theory focuses on HOW MUSCLES CONTRACT at the microscopic level It's actually the myosin pulling the actin towards the center of the sarcomere and the Z-lines move CLOSER togehter.
51
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Isometric d. Eccentric
Isometric
52
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Pectoralis major c. Teres major d. Latissimus dorsi
53
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Adductor complex c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors d. Abdominals
54
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? 65 Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Muscular endurance c. Stabilization d. Rate of force production
55
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? 67 Select one: a. Concentric b. Amortization c. Eccentric d. Stabilization
56
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae b. Infraspinatus and teres minor c. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris d. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
57
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum b. Multifidus c. Erector spinae d. Diaphragm
58
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? 83 Select one: a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals b. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius d. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
59
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Pectoralis major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Anterior deltoid
60