NASM Specific Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults?

A

Family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them?
Select one:

a.
Coping responses

b.
Resisting social pressure

c.
Self-monitoring

d.
Implementation intentions

A

Answer: Coping responses

Coping responses → Clients anticipate potential barriers (like busy schedules, low motivation, or social events) and then plan strategies to overcome them. This is exactly what the question describes.

Resisting social pressure → Focuses on saying “no” or avoiding situations where others might influence unhealthy behaviors (e.g., friends pushing you to skip the gym).

Self-monitoring → Tracking behaviors (like logging workouts, food intake, or steps) to increase awareness.

Implementation intentions → Creating “if–then” plans (e.g., “If it’s raining, then I’ll do a home workout instead of running outside”). This is about linking a cue to an action, not listing barriers broadly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Select one:

a.
Stage 1 training

b.
Stage 3 training

c.
Stage 2 training

d.
Stage 4 training

A

Stage 2 Training

WHY:
Stage 1 training → Builds aerobic base. All work is performed below VT1 (comfortable, steady-state).

Stage 2 training → Introduces intervals just above VT1 (challenging but sustainable for short bouts), with recovery below VT1. This helps clients progress from basic aerobic conditioning to handling higher intensities.

Stage 3 training → Uses intervals performed around VT2 (much higher intensity, close to anaerobic threshold).

Stage 4 training → Reserved for advanced athletes; includes supramaximal intervals (beyond VT2, near maximal effort).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Select one:

a.
Stabilization Endurance Training

b.
Maximal Strength Training

c.
Muscular Development Training

d.
Strength Endurance Training
Feedback

A

Maximal Strength Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:

a.
The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy.

b.
The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity.

c.
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

d.
The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture.

A

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) describes how the body responds to stress in three stages:

Alarm reaction → The initial response to a new stressor (exercise). The body hasn’t adapted yet, so you see things like DOMS, fatigue, stiffness.

Resistance development → The body adapts, becoming more efficient and stronger (e.g., hypertrophy, improved aerobic capacity).

Exhaustion → Stress is excessive or chronic, leading to breakdown or injury (e.g., stress fracture, overtraining).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:

a.
Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac

b.
Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

c.
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

d.
Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Why not the others:
a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, suprailiac → That’s closer to the Jackson & Pollock 4-site or 7-site methods, not Durnin–Womersley.

b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, thigh → That’s part of the Jackson & Pollock 4-site (men) method.

d. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, chest → Not a recognized 4-site protocol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Select one:

a.
Maximal Strength Training

b.
Power Training

c.
Stabilization Endurance Training

d.
Strength Endurance Training

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?
Select one:

a.
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance

b.
Phase 3 Muscular Development

c.
Phase 5 Power

d.
Phase 4 Maximal Strength

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next?
Select one:

a.
Phase 2

b.
Phase 3

c.
Phase 5

d.
Phase 4

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Select one:

a.
Energy imagery

b.
Technique imagery

c.
Appearance imagery

d.
Positive self-talk

A

Appearance imagery

Technique imagery → Visualizing correct form or skill execution (e.g., picturing yourself squatting with perfect alignment).

Appearance imagery → Visualizing changes in physical appearance or health‑related outcomes (e.g., imagining yourself looking leaner, healthier, or more fit).

Energy imagery → Visualizing feelings of increased energy, vitality, or reduced fatigue.

Positive self‑talk → Not imagery at all, but verbal affirmations or motivational statements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
Select one:

a.
An RPE of 9 to 10

b.
An RPE of 5 to 6

c.
An RPE of 3 to 4

d.
An RPE of 7 to 8

A

An RPE of 5-6

Zone 1 = 2–3 RPE → easy, warm-up pace - BELOW VT1

Zone 2 = 5–6 RPE → moderate, steady state - AT OR JUST ABOVE VT1

Zone 3 = 7–8 RPE → hard, threshold - AT OR NEAR VT2

Zone 4–5 = 9–10 RPE → max effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?
Select one:

a.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

b.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible

c.
An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable

d.
An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult

A

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

WHY NOT THE OTHERS:
b. Almost impossible → That describes VT2, not VT1.

c. Comfortable → That’s below VT1, in Zone 1 (easy, conversational pace).

d. Difficult → Too vague; NASM specifically phrases VT1 as when talking becomes challenging, not fully difficult or impossible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? #42
Select one:

a.
The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

b.
The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

c.
The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

d.
The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? 54
Select one:

a.
Strength Endurance

b.
Power

c.
Stabilization Endurance

d.
Maximal Strength

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Select one:

a.
Strength and stabilization

b.
Growth and stabilization

c.
Strength and volume

d.
Growth and volume

18
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? 83
Select one:

a.
Muscular Development

b.
Strength Endurance

c.
Stabilization Endurance

d.
Maximal Strength

19
Q

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? 93
Select one:

a.
Resistance training

b.
Warm-up

c.
Activation

d.
Skill development

20
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? 94
Select one:

a.
Phase 5

b.
Phase 1

c.
Phase 3

d.
Phase 4

21
Q

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? 98
Select one:

a.
Phase 4

b.
Phase 5

c.
Phase 3

d.
Phase 2

22
Q

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process? 6
Select one:

a.
Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle

b.
Discussing the customer’s budget

c.
Discussing discounts on various personal training packages

d.
Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs

23
Q

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? 9
Select one:

a.
Coping planning

b.
Self-monitoring

c.
Action planning

d.
Enlisting social support

24
Q

A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
Select one:

a.
I want to deadlift after work.

b.
I want to deadlift once per week.

c.
I want to lift 3 times per week.

d.
I want to deadlift 300 pounds.

25
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? 15 Select one: a. Outcome expectations b. Subjective norms c. Planning d. Action self-efficacy
26
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? 17 Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Goal setting c. Action planning d. Coping planning
27
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? 48 Select one: a. Four b. Seven c. Six d. Three
28
29
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? 58 Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
30
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 2-0-2-0 b. 4-2-1-1 c. X-X-X-X d. 1-2-3-4
31
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 1 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 2
32
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 1
Zone 3 Why: Zone 1 → Very light to light intensity; you can talk comfortably in full sentences. Zone 2 → Moderate intensity; talking is possible but requires more effort. Zone 3 → Vigorous to very hard intensity; talking is limited to short, infrequent phrases (the “talk test” becomes difficult). Zone 4 → Maximal effort; talking is nearly impossible, only single words or none at all.
33
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? 76 Select one: a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization b. Power step-up c. Butt kick d. Tuck jump