Chapter 1 - Shock Flashcards

(110 cards)

1
Q

Define Shock

A
  • The cascade of events that occurs when cells or tissues are deprived of an adequate energy source due to oxygen deprivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Shock occurs as the result of what? What effects does it lead to (5)

A
  • Inadequate tissue perfusion
  • Buildup of waste products
  • Failure of energy dependent functions
  • Release of cellular enzymes
  • Accumulation of calcium
  • Accumulation of reactive oxygen species (ROS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True/False: the lack of an adequate Energy Supply leads to the build up of waste products, failure of energy dependent functions, release of cellular enzymes, and accumulation of calcium and ROS

A
  • True
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What cascades can be activated during shock (3)

A
  • Inflammatory
  • Coagulation
  • complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The 3 cascades activated during shock result in ___________ and ________.

A
  • Further cellular injury
  • Microvascular thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does shock ultimately lead too? (think cellular level) (3)

A
  • SIRS, MODS, and death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tissue perfusion is most fundamentally dependent on what?

A
  • Blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 3 factors that affect blood flow to tissues

A
  • Circulating volume
  • Cardiac pump function
  • Vasomotor tone/peripheral vascular resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name 3 things that affect stroke volume

A
  • Ventricular preload (amount of blood returning from the body and entering the heart)
  • Myocardial contractility (systolic cardiac function)
  • Ventricular afterload (force heart must overcome to push blood across the aortic and pulmonic valves into the peripheral or pulmonary vasculature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 4 things that can lead to decreased preload

A
  • Hypovolemia (hemorrhage, dehydration)
  • Decreased ventricular filling time (tachycardia)
  • Impaired ventricular relaxation
  • Decreases in vasomotor tone and vasodilation (pooling of blood in capacitance vessels)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What factor directly affects preload?

A
  • The circulating blood volume or amount of blood returning to the heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define myocardial contractility

A
  • The rate of cross-bridge cycling between actin and myosin filaments within cardiomyocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What factor(s) directly affects afterload?

A
  • Vasomotor tone or vascular resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True/False: If peripheral vascular resistance increases, afterload decreases and there is an increase in cardiac output and perfusion.

A
  • False, if resistance increases, afterload increases, decrease in CO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Shock is treated by the restoration and maintenance of what? What are the 4 ways it can be manipulated?

A
  • Cardiac Output
  • Preload
  • Afterload
  • Myocardial contractility
  • Heart rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the 3 primary types of shock

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Cardiogenic
  • Distributive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name 3 causes of hypovolemic shock

A
  • Blood loss
  • Third spacing (such as colon volvulus)
  • Severe dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define cardiogenic shock

A
  • Pump failure, occurs when the cardiac muscle cannot pump out adequate SV to maintain perfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define distributive shock

A
  • When vasomotor tone is lost. Also known as microcirculatory failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 common causes of distributive shock

A
  • Neurogenic shock
  • Septic shock
  • Anaphylactic shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True/False: fluid therapy can help treat hypovolemic and cardiogenic but not distributive shock

A
  • False, fluid therapy can worsen cardiogenic shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the 4th, ‘additional’ category of shock (ultimately a combination of the other 3 categories)? Describe it.

A
  • Obstructive shock
  • The underlying mechanism is the obstruction of ventilation or of cardiac output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 4 common causes of obstructive shock?

A
  • Tension pneumothorax (resulting in decreased venous return)
  • Pericardial tamponade
  • Diaphragmatic hernia
  • Severe abdominal distention causing vena cava obstruction (leading to inadequate ventricular filling, decreased reload, and consequently, decreased SV and CO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True/False: compensatory shock is an early phase of shock and the body is able to restore homeostasis

A
  • True
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In compensatory shock, baroreceptors and stretch receptors detect what as blood volume is depleted?
- A fall in pressure
26
Where are baroreceptors and stretch receptors located? (3)
- Carotid sinus - Right atrium - Aortic arch
27
What is autonomic traffic?
- The interplay between the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
28
In early compensatory shock, baroreceptors act to (increase/decrease) inhibition of (sympathetic/parasympathetic) tone. This (increases/decreases) inhibition of vagal activity, resulting in an (increase/decrease) in release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). This results in (vasoconstriction/vasodilation)
- Decrease - Sympathetic tone - Increases - Decrease - Vasoconstriction
29
A decrease in renal perfusion stimulates the secretion of ___________ from the juxtaglomerular cells located in the wall of the afferent arteriole. This stimulates the production of _______ which is then converted to ________.
- Renin - Angiotensin I - angiotensin II
30
Name 2 effects of angiotensin II
- Increases sympathetic tone on the peripheral vasculature - Promotes aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex
31
What is the effect of aldosterone
- Restores circulating volume by increasing renal tubular sodium and water resorption
32
True/False: vasopressin is released from the anterior pituitary in response to decreased plasma volume and results in vasoconstriction.
- False, posterior pituitary,
33
Vasopressin is released from what gland in the body?
- The posterior pituitary
34
Vasopressin is released from the __________ in response to __________ and results in _________ and _______(actions).
- Posterior pituitary - Decreased plasma volume - Vasoconstriction - Increased water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts
35
Vasopressin stimulates (increased/decreased) water reabsorption in the renal tubules
- Increased
36
Compensatory responses for shock result in what physical responses
- Increased thirst - Craving for salt
37
Name 4 clinical signs of uncompensated shock, even though blood pressure may still be maintained at this time.
- Resting tachycardia - Tachypnea - Poor peripheral pulses - Cool extremities
37
The compensatory responses for an increase in thirst and a craving for salt are mediated by what 2 things?
- The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) - A fall in Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
38
Define uncompensated aka hypodynamic shock
- When compensatory mechanisms become insufficient to maintain arterial blood pressure and perfusion of vital organs
39
Name 3 cellular consequences of decreased oxygen and accumulation of metabolic waste
- Loss of enzymatic activities - Loss of membrane pumps - Loss of midochondrial activity * Results in cellular swelling and release of intracellular calcium stores
40
Name 3 things damaged cells release in shock.
- Cytotoxic lipids - Enzymes - ROS
41
Release of cytotoxic lipids, enzymes and ROS by shock damaged cells further damages cells, the resulting inflammation causes ________ and ______ influx into the tissue, the formation of _____, and activation of the ____________ and ______ cascades.
- Inflammatory cell - Platelet - Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETS) - Arachidonic acid cascade - Complement cascade
42
Name 3 things that can increase the production (and decrease scavenging) of ROS from cells
- Mitochondrial failure - Calcium release - Reperfusion
43
Influx of inflammatory cells during uncompensated shock results in the activation of what cascades? (2)
- Arachidonic acid cascade - Complement cascade
44
What impedes blood flow to local tissues during uncompensated shock?
- formation of microthrombi and coagulopathy
45
What is the main consequence of loss of GIT function during shock? (4)
- protein loss - fluid loss - endotoxin absorption - bacterial translocation
46
Define Class I shock
- Mild blood loss, <15% of total volume - Body is capable of restoring volume deficits, may be no symptoms other than a drop in urine output
47
Define Class II shock
- 15-30% blood loss - Onset of hyperdynamic shock - Agitation or anxiety is present, compensation can normalize blood pressure, but perfusion deficits will persist
48
Define class III shock
- Profound tachycardia and tachypnea, anxiety, agitation - Urine output may cease, jugular filling and CRT are prolonged, pulses are weak, extremity temperatures are decreased, lactic acid builds up - Blood pressure will drop in spite of increasing heart rate, cardiac contractility, and total peripheral resistance
49
Define class IV shock
- Uncompensated, life-threatening hemorrhagic shock - Bradycardia, obtundation, anuria, profound hypotension, circulatory collapse, and death
50
What is the most common cause of shock in adult horses
- Hypovolemia
51
What is the purpose of fluid therapy in the treatment of shock?
- Increase circulating volume and improve tissue oxygenation
52
What determines the amount of oxygen delivered to tissues?
- DO2 = CO x CaO2 - Oxygenation = content of oxygen in the arterial blood as well as the amount of blood perfusing the tissue (cardiac output)
53
What percentage of crystalloid fluid therapy volume diffuses out of the vasculature into the interstitial space?
- 80%
54
When giving crystalloid fluids, you must give ____x the blood volume lost in order to restore blood volume
- 4-5x the lost volume
55
High volume crystalloid fluid therapy resuscitation can result in cell swelling which can trigger a __________ response
- An inflammatory response
56
Other than cellular swelling, what are 5 potential complications associated with large volume fluid resuscitation?
- Abdominal compartment syndrome - Acute respiratory distress syndrome - Congestive heart failure - Gastrointestinal motility disturbances - Dilutional coagulopathies
57
True/False: when using crystalloids for fluid resuscitation, you should administer the shock dose and the reassess the patient.
- False, give ¼ to 1/3 shock dose (30mL/kg) and reassess the patient
58
True/False: isotonic crystalloids are designed as maintenance fluids. The electrolyte composition is designed to approximate the electrolytes of the ECF.
- False, they are replacement fluids
59
Name 3 types of isotonic crystalloids
- LRS - Normosol-R - Plasmalyte
60
True/False: Due to dilutional anemia and hypoproteinemia, in cases of moderate to severe blood loss, large volumes of crystalloids alone should be used cautiously.
- False, oxygen carrying capacity will remain unchanged or become improved following fluid therapy, even if dilutional anemia occurs, thus IV crystalloid fluid therapy should never be withheld
61
Hypertonic saline has an osmoloarity about ___x that of plasma and will expand the vascular space ____x the amount infused
- 8x - 2x
62
Hypertonic saline principally pulls in volume from what space?
- Intracellular space (not the interstitial space)
63
Why is the intracellular fluid extraction function of hypertonic saline particularly beneficial in the shock state?
- In the shock state, endothelial cell volume rises with the loss of membrane pump function. The decrease in endothelial cell volume increases capillary diameter and improves perfusion
64
What is the recommended dose of hypertonic saline?
- 2-4mL/kg (1-2L for a 500kg horse)
65
What is the mechanism of action of colloids?
- They exert oncotic pressure that opposes the hydrostatic pressure and helps retain water in the intravascular space
66
What is the oncotic pressure of normal equine plasma?
- 20mmHg
67
Name 3 natural colloids
- Plasma - Whole blood - Bovine albumin
68
What are the advantages of natural colloids? (5)
- Provide protein (such as albumin) - Antibodies - Critical clotting factors - Antithrombin 3 - Other plasma constituents
69
Name 2 synthetic colloids
- Hetastarch - Dextrans
70
What is the colloid oncotic pressure of hetastarch?
- Average 480kDa (30-2300 kDa)
71
Name 2 risks of giving hetastarch
- Increase in cutaneous bleeding time/spontaneous bleeding - Kidney damage
72
By what 2 major mechanisms does the elimination of HES occur?
- Renal excretion - Extravasation
73
Larger HES molecules are degraded over time by __________
- α-amylase
74
True/False: the effects of hetastarch can be confirmed by an increase in total protein
- False, COP must be measured directly, TP will be artificially diluted
75
What type of molecules are in hetastarch?
- Amylopectin molecules
76
The effects of hetastarch can last up to _____
- 120 hours
77
What are the benefits of whole blood transfusion as a replacement fluid for shock patients? (4)
- Oxygen carrying capacity - Colloid oncotic support - Platelets - Coagulation factors
78
The percent blood volume of an adult horse is ____% of total body weight
- 7-9% (8%)
79
What side effects of large volume resuscitation fluids can be prevented by using whole blood instead?(3)
- dilutional anemia - dilutional coagulopathy - dilutional hypoproteinemia
80
In situations where bleeding is uncontrolled, why should normalization of blood pressure not be the goal in fluid resuscitation?
- It may promote continued bleeding (permissive hypotension - >65 MAP vs. >90 MAP)
81
Name 3 vasopressors that can be used in horses
- Dobutamine - Norepinephrine - Vasopressin
82
What is the method of action of dobutamine? (3)
- β1-agonist (strong) - β2-agonist (weak) - α-adrenoreceptor affinity (weak)
83
What is the method of action of norepinephrine? (2)
- β1-agonist - α-adrenoreceptor affinity
84
What PE parameters may be monitored to assess improvement in cardiac output? (7)
- heart rate - CRT - Jugular venous fill - Extremity temperature - Pulse pressure - Urine output - Mentation
85
What PE parameters would suggest that a shocky patient has continued blood loss or decompensation is occurring? (5)
- Continued tachycardia - Poor pulse pressure - CRT - Poor jugular fill - Deteriorating mentation
86
What 2 conditions (other than hypovolemic shock) can result in a prolonged CRT?
- Endotoxemia - Sepsis
87
3 things that Central Venous Pressure evaluates?
- Cardiac function - Blood volume - Vascular resistance/tone
88
What is the normal Central venous pressure (CVP) in a standing horse?
- 7-12mmHg
89
True/False: using a jugular catheter to measure CVP will result in a falsely elevated CVP
- True (should be placed at level of heart base or point of shoulder)
90
True/False: CVP can be low with hypovolemia or cardiogenic shock. CVP can be elevated due to distributive shock
- False, CVP can be low with hypovolemia or distributive shock. Cardiogenic shock results in an elevated CVP
91
True/False: the normal urine output of a horse is 0.5mL/kg/hour
- False, 1 mL/kg/h is normal
92
What is the normal urine output of a horse?
- 1mL/kg/h
93
Production of urine less than ____ mL/kg/h suggests significant volume depletion.
- 0.5mL/kg/h
94
During shock, blood pressure does not consistently fall below normal until blood volume is profoundly decreased (_____% or more)
- 30%
95
L-lactate is the end product of the anaerobic metabolism of what?
- Glucose
96
What is Type A hyperlactatemia?
- Inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissues causing increased lactate
97
What is Type B hyperlactatemia?
- Hyperlactemia that develops in spite of appropriate tissue oxygenation
97
What conditions can cause Type B hyperlactatemia? (5)
- Hepatic dysfunction (impaired clearance) - Pyruvate dehydrogenase inhibition - Catecholamine surges - Sepsis - SIRS
98
What is the normal oxygen extraction ratio of blood?
- 20-30% - (can increase up to 50-60% in event of decreased perfusion)
99
True/False: the oxygen extraction ratio can increase up to 50-60% in response to decreased perfusion
- True
100
What are predictors of survival in patients treated for shock? (4)
- Rapid control of hemorrhage - Restoration of perfusion - Normalization of blood gas values - Prevention of dilutional coagulopathy
101
What are the 2 phases of the metabolic response to trauma or injury?
- ebb phase - flow phase
102
When does the flow phase of metabolic response to injury start?
- Once perfusion is restored, lasts over the next few days to weeks
103
True/False: the flow phase physiologic response to trauma occurs during the first several hours after injury and the ebb phase occurs in the days to weeks after injury
- False. Ebb phase, then flow phase
104
True/False: the catabolic period of the flow phase mimics clinical signs of shock and the anabolic period is a return to homeostasis.
- True
105
What initiates the stress response to trauma? (7)
- pain - tissue injury - hypovolemia - acidosis - shock - hypothermia - psychological responses
106
What stimulates the sympathoadrenal axis in the event of trauma? (5)
- Direct input from nerves - Hypovolemia - Acidosis - Shock - Psychological responses (fear, pain, anxiety)
107
What 4 substances trigger the release of cortisol in trauma and shock?
- Arginine vasopressin (AVP) - Angiotensin II - Norepinephrine - Endotoxin
108
Cell membrane injury results in the activation of ____________ and production of ______
- The arachidonic acid cascade - Cytokines