LATG 2025 > Chapter 15: Diagnostic Techniques > Flashcards

Chapter 15: Diagnostic Techniques Flashcards

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1
Q

List the 3 stages of a parasite

A

eggs, larvae, adult

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2
Q

where are adult heartworms typically found?

A

pulmonary artery and right atrium of heart

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3
Q

True or False:
Direct smear is the primary method used to detect protozoan parasites in an animal.

A

True

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4
Q

anything with a specific gravity of ____ will float in water

A

less than 1

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5
Q

what diagnostic test is based on the fact that nematode larvae will accumulate at the bottom of a funnel?

A

fecal sedimentation

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6
Q

how do you identify ectoparasites and surface pathogens in fish and aquatic amphibians?

A

take a scraping of the skin mucus, add a drop of tank water to the slide with the mucus, add cover slip and look under a microscope. Called a wet mount.

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7
Q

what is a wet mount?

A

method to identify ectoparasites and surface pathogens in fish and aquatic amphibians

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8
Q

How do you perform a cellophane tape test on a dead animal?

A

place the carcass on a black piece of paper with tape facing up around the edges of the paper.

Ectoparasites will leave the body as it cools and get trapped on the tape. stick the tape to a slide.

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9
Q

Diagnostic technique for mites?

A

skin scraping

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10
Q

Diagnostic technique for larvae?

A

fecal sedimentation

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11
Q

Diagnostic technique for eggs?

A

fecal float

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12
Q

Diagnostic technique for some species of pinworms?

A

cellophane tape test

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13
Q

What best describes blood plasma?

A

the liquid portion of un-clotted blood

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14
Q

White blood cells are called _____ in a microhematocrit?

A

Buffy layer

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15
Q

a low hematocrit could be a sign of ______?

A

Anemia

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16
Q

What is it called when you have yellow plasma?

A

jaundice

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17
Q

______ is a way to tell antibodies

A

serology

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18
Q

Complete blood count uses _______ blood

A

anticoagulated

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19
Q

A CBC is also called ______.

A

hemogram

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20
Q

What does the measurement obtained when you perform a hematocrit represent?

A

a percentage

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21
Q

What test refers to the percentage of blood occupied by cells?

A

Packed cell volume

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22
Q

what test gives information on blood cell morphology?

A

peripheral blood smear

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23
Q

Neutrophils and ______ have almost identical functions in various animal species.

A

heterophils

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24
Q

In most species, what white blood cells are the most numerous?

A

neutrophils, heterophils

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25
The presence of parasites and allergic reactions often cause an elevation in the number of which type white blood cells?
eosinophils
26
What can measuring an antibody titer give information about?
active or past infections.
27
What is the process of preserving tissue for microscopic evaluation called?
fixation
28
If body temperature is not controlled during imaging, ______ may be introduced.
artifacts
29
What imaging technique is commonly used to detect injury or disease of bones and other hard parts of the body?
X-ray
30
What imaging technique allows real-time visualization of the progress of a catheter passed from a peripheral blood vessel to the heart?
Fluroscopy
31
In what imaging technique is an x-ray beam roatated 360 degrees around the animal to allow precise location of lesions?
CT scan
32
What imaging technique uses radioactive isotopes to visualize biological processes such as blood flow and metabolism?
PET scan
33
_______ is similar to positron emission tomography because it uses radioactivity to visualize body structure but uses different _______.
SPECT, Isotopes
34
In what imaging technique are sound waves transmitted into the body and their reflections transformed into an image?
ultrasound
35
The use of ultrasound to view the heart is known as _________.
Ecocardiography
36
True or false: Infrared radiation is emitted from all objects
true
37
What imaging technique can detect subtle temperature variations?
thermography
38
In what imaging technique does a computer transform radiofrequency waves into an image of tissue?
MRI
39
What is used to cool the magnetic coil that forms the core of an MRI scanner?
Liquid Nitrogen
40
What imaging technique involves the use of molecules that produce a certain wavelength of light when exposed to ultraviolet light?
Florescence
41
Diets free of ____ should be fed to animals undergoing fluorescent imaging.
chlorophyll-free diet
42
Name 5 characteristics of a lesion that should be recorded during a necropsy.
Location, size, amount, color, distribution
43
What is the density of water?
1g/ml
44
Anything with a specific gravity _____ than 1 will sink in water.
greater than 1
45
_______ RBCs usually lose their nucleus before the enter the bloodstream, contrast to _____, ____, _____.
Mammalian Red blood cells lose their nucleus
46
a low hemoglobin concentration is indicative of ______.
anemia
47
What is a leukogram?
WBC differential, which counts the percentage of white blood cells by type.
48
Neutrophils and heterophils do what?
protect the host from infection
49
what percentage of WBC are Neutrophils/heterophils?
45%-75%
50
What are Band cells?
immature neutrophils/heterophils that make up an account of no more than 1-3% and can be indicative of the body attacking an infection
51
What are monocytes?
WBC that are macrophages. They make up 3%-5% of WBC.
52
What percentage of WBC are monocytes?
3%-5%
53
what are leukocytes?
WBC that are round and smooth. produced by lymph nodes elevation could be acute infection or leukemia (cancer)
54
What percentage of WBC are leukocytes?
25%-40%
55
What are eosinophils?
WBC that are fairly large, characterized by red staining granules within the cytoplasm. increased concentration can indicate an allergic reaction or parasites
56
what percentage of WBC are eosinophils?
2%-5%
57
What are basophils?
WBC that have large granules that stain a bluish color. They help initiate the body's immune response increased levels could indicate inflammation or chronic allergic conditions
58
What percentage of WBC are basoplils?
1%
59
What are platelets?
small cell fragments that have no nucleus and are smaller than red blood cells. They are a source of clotting factors.
60
What are thrombocytes
also known as platelets. small cell fragments that have no nucleus and are smaller than red blood cells. They are a source of clotting factors.
61
What is serum chemistry?
Also known as clinical chemistry. the study of changes in the concentrations of various biochemical substances in the serum.
62
What color tube do you usually collect blood in for serology?
red top tube because serum is usually used for these tests
63
What is serology?
the study of the serum (fluid portion of blood) for the presence or absence of antibodies.
64
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) assesses what organ(s)?
liver, heart, or skeletal muscle
65
Alanine aminotransferase assesses what organ(s)?
liver
66
Alkaline phosphatase assesses what organ(s)?
liver and/or bone
67
lipase and amylase assess what organ(s)?
pancreas
68
Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) assesses what organ(s)?
skeletal muscle
69
Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) assesses what organ(s)?
heart or liver
70
Gamma glutaryltransferase (GGT) assesses what organ(s)?
liver disease, bile duct
71
Glucose assesses what organ(s)?
pancreatic islets
72
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and Creatinine assess what organ(s)?
kidney
73
Bilirubin assesses what organ(s)?
liver
74
the ____ the titer, the more antibody is present in the serum
higher
75
The more concentrated the urine, the _____ the specific gravity will be.
more concentrated
76
In Histopathology, the amount of preservative is usually ____ times the tissue mass by volume
20 times
77
What are the advantages and disadvantages of xray?
A: fine resolution of hard structures like bone D: less detail on soft tissue. radiation exposure
78
What are the advantages and disadvantages of CT scans?
A: more detail of soft tissue, localize lesions in 3D. D: radiation exposure risk
79
What are the advantages and disadvantages of PET/SPECT?
A: can image in-vivo processes, very high resolution of soft tissue D: requires short half-life radioisotopes
80
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Ultrasound?
A: portable, good for detecting tumors/soft tissue abnormalities. Can be used intravascularly. D: poor image quality, subjective image analysis, not readily quantifiable.
81
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Thermagrophy?
A: noninvasive, repeatable, quantifiable D: low resolution, can be affected by environmental temps and animal factors
82
What are the advantages and disadvantages of MRI?
A: good contrast and tissue distinction. repeated measurements possible, no radiation D: most restrictive conditions, many safety hazards
83
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Fluorescence imaging?
A: can track metabolic processes, high sensitivity, can use multiple wavelengths for multiplex imaging. D: time sensitive, requires a chlorophyll-free diet, must have physiological support for accurate results.
84
What are the advantages and disadvantages of bioluminescence?
A: low lost and non-invasive D: requires genetic manipulation, not quantifiable.
85
Give an example of a contrast agent?
Gadolinium
86
What is a fluoroscope?
a radiograph machine that takes multiple images in real time to create a video.
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