1
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are important aspects of automated information system (AIS) facility management?
A
Technical administration and support.
2
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the titles of the people who perform I/O functions?
A
Control clerks, I/O control clerks, job-staging clerks, distribution clerks, or computer aids.
3
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the traits of an efficient and effective I/O control clerk?
A
Able to work on their own with a minimum of supervision; work well with other people; display tact and diplomacy; be a good communicator; use sound judgment; be logical, methodical, and persuasive; and most of all be able to respond to users? requests.
4
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When you are working as an I/O control clerk , a transmittal form should be looked over to be ensured what criteria is met before accepting a job for processing on the computer?
A
All the necessary entries are properly lilled in, that they are readable, and that any special instructions are understandable.
5
Q
Pass and Advanced
- The lower portion of the AIS service request is reserved for what use only?
A
Operations.
6
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What should be done if, while viewing the user?s request, you happen to come across a discrepancy or find something that is incomplete or unclear?
A
Bring it to the user?s attention.
7
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What should be your demeanor when bringing a discrepancy to the user of a request?
A
Tactful and diplomatic.
8
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What will serve as a continuous point of reference?
A
Job control log.
9
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the things a job control log point out?
A
When the job was submitted, the disposition of the input media, the location or the computer system to which the job was assigned, the progress (ntunber of steps) the job has already gone through, the type and amount of input submitted, and the person who accepted the job.
10
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Where is the information needed to properly prepare the user?s job for processing located?
A
In a task folder, job folder, run folder, or nm procedure.
11
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What information docs the runsheet contain?
A
The program name or names and the job or task number under which the job (or system) is to be executed or run and it indicates all of the inputs: magnetic tapes, disks, and diskettes required, depending upon the type of run or possible options the user selected.
12
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What may need to be done to determine whether a job (or system) ran successfully (to a normal EOJ) and that all processing steps were properly perl`ormed?
A
Review the computer console printout.
13
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What will provide you with the answers you are looking for when it comes to reconciling processing discrepancies in the majority of cases?
A
The computer console printout.
14
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When checking reports what should you be looking for?
A
That they were run on the proper forms (size and type), that no pages are missing and the correct number of copies were printed, and that all print is legible and lined up properly.
15
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What is done once the output is checked?
A
Package each completed copy of the report, along with any other output products and the original input, place it in the proper pickup area, and log the job out in the job control log.
16
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What action should be taken if, during the course of checking over the user?s output, you happen to come across something unusual or you find an error?
A
Pull (reject) the job immediately, bring it to the attention of your superior, and notify the user of the delay.
17
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What is the most common user support you will deal with?
A
Logistical support.
18
Q
Pass and Advanced
- _ When the user calls to submits a trouble call, what is the required information you should get?
A
User?s name, type of trouble encountered, date and time, and job being done when the trouble started.
19
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What personnel analyze job requirements (old and new) to determine the impact each job has onproduction resources?
A
Schedulers and production control coordinators.
20
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Who is responsible for keeping the AIS facility?s assembly line running as smoothly and efficiently as possible?
A
The scheduler.
21
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are the important factors of a scheduler?s job?
A
People, places, and things.
22
Q
Pass and Advanced
- How you go about scheduling work on the computer system will depend upon what two factors?
A
How the system is configured and the operating mode of the computer.
23
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What will be one of your primary jobs, as a scheduler?
A
To keep production schedules up-to-date and as accurate and complete as possible.
24
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What two factors must you, as a scheduler, be equally coneemed with in addition to making up production schedules for computer processing?
A
Precomputer processing and postcomputer processing. g
25
# Pass and Advanced
25. What is involved in precomputer processing? -
Ensuring all inputs are received on time according to prearranged schedules.
26
# Pass and Advanced
26. What is involved in postcomputer processing?
Ensuring output products are complete, accurate, and delivered to the user when promised.
27
# Pass and Advanced
27. What personnel act as liaison between the AIS facility and the user community?
Production control.
28
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28. What personnel provide processing schedules to coordinate inputs and outputs between I/0 control, data entry, computer operations, and the magnetic media library?
Scheduling personnel.
29
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29. What personnel handle all incoming work for AIS services along with all types of input media from the user?
I/O control personnel.
30
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30. What personnel reviews all completed output products from data entry and computer operations to determine their accuracy and completeness before releasing them to I./0 control personnel for further processing and distribution?
_ Quality control personnel.
31
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31. What personnel convert source documents into machine-readable form using some type of key-driven (terminal) device if this is not done by the user?
Data entry personnel.
32
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32. What are the duties of the computer operations personnel?
Receive inputs and associated nm instructions from I/O control, update schedules as the work is completed, forward output products to quality control, and transfer magnetic media to the library for further handling and processing. `
33
# Pass and Advanced
33. When the users get together with the division chief, LPO, and yourself (as scheduler), to make their requests for AIS services known for the upcoming month(s), what is the initial scheduling phase known as?
The planning phase or forecasting phase. '
34
# Pass and Advanced
34. When given a new job where there are no previous production statistics, what should you ask the user' for?
A rough time estimate of how long the job may run and if there will be input data, and if so, will it require data entry services.
35
# Pass and Advanced
35. What is one of the most apparent pieces of job-related information?
Every job has resource requirements.
36
# Pass and Advanced
36. What must you know to set aside a sufficient amount of time for processing?
How long a job will reside in memory.
37
# Pass and Advanced
37. Why is processing time normally estimated for a multi programming environment?
Because most computers today process programs/data in this fashion, and job mix alfects the overall processing time for a job.
38
# Pass and Advanced
38. What type of scheduling is often used in automated scheduling systems?
Priority scheduling.
39
# Pass and Advanced
39. What information must you know to prepare an effective schedule?
Your AIS facility?s resources: how work comes into, flows through, and leaves your facility; the capabilities and capacities of your system; and workload demands on the system.
40
# Pass and Advanced
40. Since your workload can exceed capacity, which has a direct effect on service, or, the capacity can exceed the workload, which leaves AIS resources underutilized, how do you reach a happy medium?
Ensuring that the workload demands put upon the AIS facility?s resources are balanced as much as possible and that the total resources available are kept as close to the maximum capacity as possible.
41
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41. What has a lot to do with how you prepare a schedule?
The effective use of resources.
42
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42. What information must you know to develop the monthly schedule?
The requirements of all the application systems/jobs to be run during tl1e month.
43
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43. What must be done once you have developed the monthly schedule?
Ensure that the schedule is adequate and meets the requirements.
44
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44. What are the things that might cause the monthly schedule to be changed? '
System/program errors, software testing, new/changed requirements, job conflicts, and input files not available.
45
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45. Whose job is it to adjust the schedule to accommodate the changes required?
The production control coordinator?s job, with your approval.
46
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46. If the job requires tapes or disk files as input, who will the I/0 control check with to see if these files are ready and available?
The media librarian.
47
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47. Anytime the normal work schedule is changed, how may it affect the online users?
By slowing the system response time or causing the system to be unavailable to the users.
48
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48. What are the common causes of production problems?
Application program processing errors and system downtime.
49
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49. Who should be assisting online users with processing problems?
The subsystem coordinators. -
50
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50. What are the two areas of concern to determine the causes of application program errors?
Hardware and software.
51
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51. What are the most frequent hardware problems?
Head crash, tape drive damage to a tape, and tape read/write errors.
52
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52. Who should be contacted if tape read/write errors cannot be corrected by cleaning the read/write heads?
A maintenance teclmician.
53
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53. What are the most common external environmental problems?
Loss of power, voltage spikes, and loss of air conditioning.
54
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54. How may the operator be able to recover a job completely when there was a hardware problem?
Reboot or restart the job. -
55
# Pass and Advanced
55. What are the common software problems?
Wrong tile specilied, program entered a loop, and tile not available.
56
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56. To correct software-related problems, what must the operator refer to for the corrective action to take?
The job nm folder and the program operator manual.
57
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57. What are the two topics the system downtime and non-availability can be categorized under?
Scheduled and unscheduled.
58
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58. To develop help-desk procedures, what are the several steps to keep in mind?
Logging the problem, researching the problem, fixing the problem, and analyzing the problem for possible changes to training and/or documentation.
59
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59. What is the reason the operator logs a problem?
To document its occurrence and to provide the information needed to solve the problem.
60
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60. In researching the problem, what code will you need to determine the cause?
The abort code.
61
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61. What action may have to be taken by the operator to solve the problem? _
Reboot the computer, reload a disk file, contact the programmer, or have the users restart processing.
62
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62. What are the two major categories output reports can be broken into?
Management and customer/user reports.
63
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63. What reports are usually a consolidation of information prepared for presentations and briefings?
Management reports.
64
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64. What is a problem common to many performance reporting schemes?
The amount of information you report should not exceed upper-management?s requirements.
65
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65. What are the two main items of information to include in the application software performance reports?
Average length of time any particular job remains in the system; and how long a priority job (priority 1, 2, and 3) waits to be run.
66
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66. What type of information should you include in the Hardware Utilization Reports?
The amount of system idle time, the amount of system setup time, the amount of system production time, and the amount of downtime, not only for the whole' system but also for each particular piece of equipment.
67
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67. What reports are primarily used for the AIS facility?s research?
Operating system software reports.
68
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68. How can hardware under-utilization be measured?
By excessive idle time, which can be caused by no jobs to be run or no users logged on.
69
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69. What are the most common problems that result in application software aborts?
Wrong file specified, job rim out of sequence, file corrupted, file not available, and out of free disk space.
70
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70. What type of information will the equipment inventory contain?
Manufacturer, type of equipment, model number, serial number, minor property number, location, and custodian.
71
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71. What are the three possible hardware choices?
Increase computer memory, reduce tile fragmentation, and add or change a disk drive.
72
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72. What can be done to increase a computer system?s memory?
Add memory chips or memory boards.
73
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73. What is cache memory?
A random-access memory (RAM) is a buffer that provides high-speed storage capabilities from main memory and makes this data available to the central processor with a private central processor/cache interface.
74
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74. When does tile fragmentation occur?
When you delete a file, leaving, basically, a hole in tlte information on the hard disk, or when you add information to an existing file when there is no contiguous space left next to the tile.
75
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75. What can be done to correct fragmentation?
Make a backup, reformat the hard disk, and restore your files; also run a software program referred to as a defragrnenter to reorganize the files so the data in each file is contiguous.
76
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76. What can be done to reduce the problems you may have with disk space?
Add a new disk drive or replace a disk drive with a larger drive.
77
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77. What are the operating system changes you can make?
Reconfrgure the system, change buffer sizes, and change memory addresses.
78
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78. What can you do to help reduce the chances that the system will lock up?
Change the buffer sizes.
79
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79. What can you do that results in freeing memory for the execution of production jobs?
Change memory addresses.
80
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80. What does the Critical priority in Item number' 3 of the Trouble Report/Change Proposal mean?
That you cannot work around the problem to continue operating.
81
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81. What does the Routine priority in Item number 3 of the Trouble Report/Change Proposal mean?
Correction is needed, but you can work around the problem and live with it until it is fixed.
82
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82. What are the most common trouble reports for software?
Monthly files are not being cleared at the beginning of the new month, report titles are wrong, and bad data was entered into a tile and cannot be removed through normal procedures.
83
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83. Whose responsibility is it to submit the trouble reports on system hardware problems?
The AIS facility.
84
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84. What is done after submitting a trouble report?
Coordinate with the central design activity to see if the problem can be taken care of over the phone or if it will require a technical assist.
85
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85. What are the-four major areas to consider when preparing the operational guidelines for your facility?
Future growth capabilities, backup operations, contingency plans and disaster recoveries, and emergency responses.
86
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86. What is often the most overlooked operational guideline?
Projecting future growth capabilities.
87
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87. What is one of your best sources of information when it comes time to start projecting?
Users.
88
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88. What is the most important thing to remember when projecting the future growth capabilities?
Take your time when doing the research. `
89
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89. What are the two categories of backup operations?
Normal and special saves.
90
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90. What are normal saves?
The ones worked into the monthly production schedules, which is normally done every day or night and are the most important recovery tools available to you.
91
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91. What are special saves?
The ones that need to be done before and after the implementation of a software upgrade and during monthly and yearly production runs.
92
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92. What is the most important part of disaster recover?
Having a contingency plan and current backup files.
93
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93. What should your contingency plan include?
Emergency response, backup operations, and recovery plans.
94
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94. What are the steps to be taken by you and your AIS staff when a problem occurs, such as a job aborts or the system goes down?
l) Log the problem, 2) Notify management, users, and the maintenance technicians, and 3) Adjust staffing when possible. .
95
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95. What are the major reasons for urgent change requests for application problems?
A special report needed for a meeting, last-minute corrections before starting a monthly or yearly job, and a deadline that is moved to an earlier time.
96
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96. What are the three common reasons for urgent change requests with system programs?
Special saves, changes to the operating system, and system testing by NAVMASSO.
97
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97. What is the term assigned to the entire communications effort of the Department of the Navy, both afloat and ashore? '
Naval communications.
98
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98. What system provides a unified governmental system that links together the communications facilities and components of the various Federal agencies?
The National Communications System (NCS).
99
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99. What facility always provides the interface between the NTS and DCS?
Shore communications facility.
100
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100.What agency gives operational direction to the DCS?
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
101
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101. Who approves the director of DISA functions?
The Secretary of Defense.
102
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102. What is the mission of naval communications?
To provide and maintain reliable, secure, and rapid communications, based on war requirements, to meet the needs of naval operating forces.
103
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103. Who has the operational direction and management control of the assigned elements of the NTS?
The Commander, Naval Computer and Telecommunications Command (COMNAVCOMTELCOM).
104
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104. What will communications stations that do not merge with an AIS activity become?
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Stations (NCTSS) or Naval Computer and Telecommunications Detachments (NCTDS).
105
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105. Who exercises coordination and control of all naval communications within each NAVCOMMAREA?
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Area Master Stations (NCTAMSS).
106
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106. There are how many NCTAMS?
Four. `
107
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107. What four Naval Communications Areas (NAVCOMMAREAs) is the world .divided into?
Western Pacific (WESTPAC), Eastern Pacific (EASTPAC), Atlantic (LANT), and Mediterranean (MED).
108
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108. What is the focal point for fleet communications support in NCTAMS?
Fleet telecommunications operations center (FTOC).
109
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109. What is the communications station with the primary responsibility for communications in a large specific area?
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Station (NAVCOMTELSTA).
110
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110. What Naval Telecommunications command is assigned a specialized mission?
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Detachment (NAVCOMTELDET).
111
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111. What facility provides AIS services in areas where no NARDACS are located?
Naval Data Automation Facility (NAVDAF).
112
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112. What detachments are responsible for the cryptologic and related functions of the Navy?
Naval Security Group Departments (NAVSECGRUDEPTS).
113
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113. What system has the function of providing auxiliary communications to military, civil, and/or disaster officials during periods of emergency?
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS).
114
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114. What instruction can you find detailed information about the MARS program?
` U.S. Navy-Marine Corps Military A/j"il1`ate Radio System (A/l/IRS) Communications Instructions, NTP 8.
115
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115. What is the first consideration in the management of any communications facility?
Effectiveness of naval communications.
116
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116. What must be established to determine the effectiveness of operations and service provided against customer requirements and system capability?
Standards of performance. `
117
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117. What can be determined after performance standards are established?
The control elements and manner of control.
118
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118. What areas should you establish standard of performance to measure the effectiveness of the operations and services provided by your communications facility?
Reliability, speed, security, and economy,
119
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119. What is the method recommended to overcome resistance to changes in performance standards?
Permit personnel who will be affected by the changes to participate in the organization effort.
120
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120. How is conservation of personnel resources accomplished?
By evaluating personnel requirements properly and by using available persomiel effectively through proper training and assignment.
121
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121. A lack of efficiency in a communications division is a direct reflection of the management skills of what individual?
The senior supervisor.
122
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122. What information must the supervisor know to reorganize divisional workflow and workspace layout?
What work is to be done, why the work is to be performed, when the work is to be performed, how the work is to be accomplished, where the work is to be performed, and who is responsible for completing the work.
123
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123. What are the prerequisites for the first class or chief petty officer who is required to function as a front line supervisor and manager?
Good managerial traits and supervisory abilities.
124
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124. What is a major responsibility of a supervisor?
Monitor production.
125
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125. What are the primary considerations when the office layout is being planned?
Proper How of paper and work, the physical location of workspaces, and the internal communications of the division.
126
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126. The physical layout of your office should be arranged so that paperwork will flow in what direction?
One direction through various sections with no reversals or criss-crossing.
127
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127. When should the physical layout of workspaces be reviewed?
When there is evidence of improper workflow, when there is a change in the number of personnel or office procedures, when there is a decrease or increase in the volume of work, when new equipment is ordered or is to be installed, and when there is a change in allotted space.
128
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128. What factors should be considered in evaluating an office layout?
Office congestion, personnel supervision, use of space, volume of work versus people, and office appearance.
129
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129. What does the structure of the communications organization of a command depend on?
Command size and whether the command is ship- or shore-based.
130
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130. What publication designates the types of ship that should have a communications department?
Basic Operational Communications Doctrine (U), NWP 4 (NWP 6-01).
131
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131. Who is responsible for the management of related internal communications systems aboard ship?
Communications officer (COMM officer).
132
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132. Who is in charge of the communications center?
Radio officer.
133
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133. Who is responsible to the commanding officer for stowage of CMS publications and materials, as well as the drawing, correcting, and authorized destruction?
Communications Security Material System (CMS) custodian.
134
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134. Who is responsible to the communications officer for incoming and outgoing traffic, ensuring that all messages, transmitted or received, are handled rapidly and accurately in accordance with existing regulations?
Communications watch officer (CWO).
135
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135. Who is responsible to the CWO for examining operational logs and monitoring equipment alignment and operation?
Senior watch supervisor (SWS).
136
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136. Who is responsible to the CWO and SWS for directly supervising all radiomen on watch in the message processing center?
Communications center supervisor.
137
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137. Who is responsible to the CWO for establishing and maintaining required circuits, and initiating action to restore or bypass failed equipment?
Technical control (?tech control?) supervisor.
138
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138. Who is responsible for ship and flag communications requirements?
Flag communications officer.
139
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139. When a flag officer is embarked, what personnel may be ordered to additional duty in the flag communications division?
The ship?s communications officer, communications watch officers, and enlisted communications personnel.
140
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140. Who is the contact officer for matters pertaining to the handling of ship and staff message traffic?
Ship?s communications officer.
141
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141. What directives are issued by naval commanders to subordinates for the purpose of effecting coordinated execution of an operation?
Operation orders (OPORDS). 4
142
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142. What are the three parts of an OPORD?
Heading, body, and ending.
143
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143. What are the two enclosures called that detailed information on various ship departments are contained in?
Annexes and appendixes.
144
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144. What documents are used by an organization to advise its personnel of internal routine practices?
Standard operating procedures (SOPS).
145
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145. What factors do the detail of an SOP depend upon?
State of training, the complexity of the instructions, and the size of the command,
146
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146. What is the most important part of processing messages?
Accounting for messages addressed to your guard list.
147
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147. Where are all messages logged after they have been logged in the appropriate circuit log?
Central Message Log.
148
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148. What are the entries in the Central Message Log?
Station serial number (SSN), precedence, DTG (original on a re-addressal), originator (original on a readdressal), subject, classification, time of receipt (TOR) for incoming messages or time of delivery (TOD) for outgoing messages for each message.
149
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149. Where is the Central Message Log filed?
In the communications center master file on top of the messages processed for that radio day (raday).
150
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150. What log is a chronological record of data processing operations, which may be used to reconstruct a previous or updated version of a file?
Journal logs.
151
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151. What are messages introduced into the LDMX/NAVCOMPARS system from magnetic tape considered?
Outgoing.
152
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152. What causes lower precedence messages to be interrupted and a cancel transmission (bust) sequence to be transmitted when handling automatically processed outgoing messages?
Emergency command or FLASH precedence messages.
153
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153. What are messages selected for processing based on?
Their precedence and on the order they arrived into the system.
154
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154. What system validates the message header and assigns routing indicators (RIS) for delivery as required?
The LDMX/NAVCOMPARS system.
155
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155. What type of message has two or more addressees, which may be either action or information and where each addressee is informed of all other recipients?
Multiple-Address messages.
156
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156. What type of message is destined for two or more addressees where the drafter considers it unnecessary that each addressee be informed of other addressee(s)?
Book messages.
157
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157. What type of message has a wide, predetermined, standard distribution?
General messages.
158
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158. What are address groups?
Four-letter groups assigned to represent a command, activity, or unit.
159
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159. How can four-letter groups be distinguished from Navy four-letter international radio call signs?
Address groups do not begin with the letter N.
160
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160. What commands or activities are assigned address groups?
Afloat commands (except individual ships) and shore-based commands or activities not served by their own communications facilities.
161
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161. What publications can you find address groups?
Allied Call Sign and/address Group System -Instructions and Assignments, ACP 100, and U.S. Call Sign & Address Group System Instructions & Assignments (U.S. Supplement No. 1), ACP 100 U.S. SUPP-1.
162
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162. What are the types of address groups?
Individual activity, collective, conjunctive, geographic, address indicating, and special operating.
163
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163. What address group is representative of a single command or unit, either afloat or ashore?
Individual activity.
164
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164. What address group represents two or more commands or activities?
Collective.
165
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165. What address group must have geographic address groups added to them to denote a specific command or location?
Conjunctive address groups.
166
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166. What address group is always preceded by conjunctive address groups?
Geographic address groups.
167
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167. What is the purpose of address indicating groups (AIGs)?
To increase the speed-of-traffic handling.
168
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168. When are AIGs normally created?
When particular types of message traffic become repetitive enough (at least 12 times a year) and are addressed to enough of the same addressees to warrant it.
169
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169. When will an AIG not be established?
For groups of addressees numbering fewer than 16.
170
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170. Where can you find a complete listing of A1Gs by number, cognizant authority, and purpose?
In U. S. Navy/Address Indicating Group MIG) and Collective/Address Designator (CAD) Handbook, NTP 3 SUPP-1.
171
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171. What address groups are four-letter groups that are identical in appearance to address groups?
Special operating groups (SOGS).
172
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172. Who is responsible for making the required number of copies each subscriber requires and slotting the messages into the appropriate subscriber box?
The distributor clerk.
173
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173. Why must certain messages, such as PERSONAL FOR, AMCROSS, and classified messages, be placed in envelopes for pickup by subscribers?
To prevent viewing by unauthorized personnel.
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174. How many envelopes are used for classified messages?
Two.
175
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175. What is done by the distribution clerk after reproducing and distributing a message?
The original copy is placed into a box for tiling by the tile clerk.
176
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176. What is one of the most important elements in communications?
Time.
177
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177. How many digits make up the date-time group (DTG)?
Six.
178
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178. What is used as the universal time for all messages for Greenwich mean time?
Zone suffix ZULU (Z).
179
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179. What system was developed to meet the need for worldwide time standardization?
The international Greenwich mean time (GMT) system.
180
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180. In the GMT system, how many zones is the Earth divided into?
24
181
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181. What does the military refer to Greenwich mean time (GMT) as?
ZULU time.
182
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182. What degree of longitude does each time zone extend through?
15?.
183
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183. How do you obtain Greenwich mean time when there is a zone located east of zone zero?
Subtract the zone number in which you are located from local time.
184
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184. How do you obtain Greenwich mean time when there is a zone located west of zone zero?
The zones must be added to the local zone time.
185
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185. What letters designate the eastern, or minus, zones?
A through M, with J omitted.
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186. What letters designate the western, or plus, zones?
N through Y.
187
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187. What is the designating letter for Greenwich mean time?
Z (ZULU).
188
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188. How would you convert local time into GMT if you were stationed in zone R?
Add 5 hours to the local time.
189
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189. How would you convert GMT to local time if you were stationed in zone R?
Subtract 5 hours from the GMT. `
190
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190. A ship going into what direction loses a day?
Westbound.
191
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191. What is the primary point to remember about the MIKE and YANKEE zones?
The day changes but the time remains the same.
192
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192. How many digits does the Julian date consist of?
Seven.
193
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193. What factor is the precedence based on? -
The urgency of the message.
194
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194. What is the highest precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
Priority (P).
195
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195. What category is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and which require immediate delivery to addressees?
Immediate (O).
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196. What precedence is assigned to a message that is of such urgency that it must be brief?
Flash (Z).
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197. What precedence is an EMERGENCY COMMAND PRECEDEN CE (ECP) used within the AUTODIN system?
YANKEE (Y).
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198. What is any individual called that is authorized to draft, release, and/or process electronically transmitted messages?
Message user.
199
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199. Who is the authority (command or activity) in whose name the message is sent?
Originator.
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200. Who is the person who actually composes the message?
Drafter.
Advancment Study (In Rate)
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