1
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Who is the properly designated individual authorized to release messages for transmission in the name of the command or activity?
A
Releaser.
2
Q
Pass and Advanced
- After a message has been properly released, where is it delivered for transmission?
A
The telecommunications center (TCC).
3
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What is an important point to remember about the DTG?
A
It is assigned for identification and file purposes only and is not used to compute message processing
4
Q
Pass and Advanced
- How long are messages held in the message center file?
A
Up to 60 days.
5
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Who must minimize messages be brought to the immediate attention of?
A
The leading communications petty oificer (LPO) and the communications officer.
6
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Who is authorized to impose minimize conditions on users of naval communications systems?
A
The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), fleet commanders in chief, and area coordinators.
7
Q
Pass and Advanced
- During minimize conditions, how many words should FLASH and IMMEDIATE traffic be restricted to?
A
A maximum of 100 and 200 words.
8
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What messages have the authority of an official communication and must receive prompt attention?
A
Service messages.
9
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What topics do most service messages deal with?
A
Corrections, repetitions, broadcast reruns, and misrouted or miss sent messages.
10
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What will reduce the number of service messages required?
A
Careful attention to detail and the use of proper operating techniques by communications and crypto personnel.
11
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What does the service message number immediately follow in the message text?
A
The abbreviation ?SVC.?
12
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What does the acronym COSIR in a service message text mean?
A
?Cite Our Service in Reply.?
13
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What messages are sent to determine the reason for excessive delay or non-delivery or a message previously sent?
A
Tracer messages.
14
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When must tracer action requests be initiated?
A
As soon as the discrepancy is discovered.
15
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What type of message do ships send to establish circuits with a NCTAMS or NAVCOMTELSTA on a limited or full-time basis?
A
Termination request messages.
16
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When must a termination request message be sent to the cognizant NCTAMS?
A
At least 48 hours prior to activating the requested termination.
17
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When are communications guard shift (COMMSHIFT) messages required?
A
When a command shifts its guard from one broadcast or servicing communications center to another.
18
Q
Pass and Advanced
- Why are COMMSHIFT messages necessary?
A
Because of operational considerations or changes in the deployment schedule of a ship.
19
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What are broadcast screen requests (BSRs)?
A
Service messages to request the rerun (ZDK) or missed or garbled messages.
20
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What reports are used to advise of any situation that might cause significant disruption of tactical communications?
A
COMMSPOT reports.
21
Q
Pass and Advanced
- When must COMMSPOT reports be submitted to minimize further deterioration of the communications situation?
A
As soon as unusual communications difficulties are experienced.
22
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What is the heart of the filing system?
A
The communications center master tile.
23
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What file contains a copy of each Top Secret, SPECAT (less SIOP-ESI), and message designed for special privacy, regardless of classification?
A
Crypto center file.
24
Q
Pass and Advanced
- What file contains the master copy of all SIOP-ESI messages received by the communications center?
A
SPECAT SIOP-ESI file.
25
# Pass and Advanced
225. What does the broadcast file contain?
A copy or tiller of each message transmitted or received by the broadcast method.
26
# Pass and Advanced
226. What are the two parts of the station file?
Communications center master file and visual station file.
27
# Pass and Advanced
227. What file contains copies of all effective general messages that require retention based on the communications center?s current guard list?
General message file.
28
# Pass and Advanced
228. How are messages filed in the general message file since they are not in DTG order?
In serial number order.
29
# Pass and Advanced
229. What happens if a general message is canceled during the current year?
The message may be destroyed, but a tiller must be placed in the tile to identify and indicate the disposition of all current-year general messages.
30
# Pass and Advanced
230. Who maintains the commercial traffic file?
The commercial traffic clerk.
31
# Pass and Advanced
231. What personnel is responsible for processing outgoing and incoming messages for the embarked staff?
Flagship communications personnel.
32
# Pass and Advanced
232. What instruction can you find U.S. equivalent and foreign classifications?
The Department of the Navy (DON) Information Security Program (ISP) Regulation, SECNAVINST 5510.36 (formerly OPNAVINST 5510.1).
33
# Pass and Advanced
233. Can NATO classified messages be filed with U.S. classified messages?
No.
34
# Pass and Advanced
234. What should always be done when you remove a message from a file?
Insert a filler, or tickler, in its place.
35
# Pass and Advanced
235. What are fillers?
Locally prepared forms that identify the message by the original DTG, the message originator, information as to where the message is located, and the personal sign of the person removing the message from the file and completing the filler.
36
# Pass and Advanced
236. How are messages and fillers filed?
In ascending date-time group order.
37
# Pass and Advanced
237. How long is the broadcast file retained?
24 hours.
38
# Pass and Advanced
238. How long is the commercial traffic file retained?
12 months.
39
# Pass and Advanced
239. What time period is the cryptocenter file retained?
2 years.
40
# Pass and Advanced
240. What time period is the facsimile file retained?
60 days.
41
# Pass and Advanced
241. What time period is the TOP SECRET control log retained?
60 days.
42
# Pass and Advanced
242. What are the primary objectives of communications?
To provide for effective connectivity to support the exercise of command and the exchange of essential information; and to advise the commander of the implications of communication capabilities and limitations for the operation plan and its execution.
43
# Pass and Advanced
243. What things does a communication plan have to consider?
Reliability, security, and speed.
44
# Pass and Advanced
244. How is security usually referred to, as it pertains to communications?
In terms of communications security (COMSEC) and signal security (SIGSEC).
45
# Pass and Advanced
245. What is a security measure, as it pertains to communications, designed to protect communications systems against acceptance of false transmissions or simulations by establishing the validity of a transmission, message, or originator?
Authentication.
46
# Pass and Advanced
246. What is Radio Silence?
A condition in which all or certain radio equipment is kept inoperative (frequency band and/or types of equipment are specified).
47
# Pass and Advanced
247. What system uses electromagnetic transmissions to which equipment carried by friendly forces automatically responds?
Identification Friend or Foe (IFF).
48
# Pass and Advanced
248. What is the use of devices, operations, and techniques called, with the intent of confusing or misleading the user of a communications link or a navigation system?
Communications deception.
49
# Pass and Advanced
249. What is that division of electronic warfare (EW) involving actions taken to prevent or reduce an enemy?s effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
Electronic attack (EA).
50
# Pass and Advanced
250. Why does enemy EA concern the communications planner?
Because overcoming enemy jamming and deception imposes certain restrictions on general communications operations procedures.
51
# Pass and Advanced
251. What is that division of EW involving actions taken to ensure friendly effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum despite an enemy?s use of electronic warfare?
Electronic protection (EP)
52
# Pass and Advanced
252. In planning communications, what factors must the planner evaluate?
The performance, capabilities, and capacities of systems, facilities, and personnel.
53
# Pass and Advanced
253. What must a command initiate when it requires additions, deletions, or changes in existing Defense Communications System (DCS) circuits?
A telecommunications service request (TSR).
54
# Pass and Advanced
254. What is the authorization to start, change, or discontinue circuits, trunks, links, or systems?
The telecommunications service order (TSO).
55
# Pass and Advanced
255. What term refers to the natural vibrations that occur when a force is applied to a substance?
?Electromagnetic spectrum.?
56
# Pass and Advanced
256. When will the Department of the Navy obligate funds for equipment?
Not until a frequency allocation has been obtained.
57
# Pass and Advanced
257. Who has the responsibility of interservice frequency coordination?
The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), working through the United States Military Communications Electronics Board (USMCEB).
58
# Pass and Advanced
258. What is the process of authorizing a system or equipment to operate on a discrete frequency (or frequencies) and within a specified set of constraints?
Frequency assignment.
59
# Pass and Advanced
259. Who is the authority for using radio frequencies by Navy and Marine Corps activities within the United States and Possessions (U S&P) obtained from?
The Administrator, National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA), Washington, D.C. V
60
# Pass and Advanced
260. Who establishes overall policy for spectrum management within the Department of the Navy?
The CNO.
61
# Pass and Advanced
261. Authority for using radio frequencies by Navy and Marine Corps activities within the area of responsibility of a unified or specified commander is obtained from what source?
The Joint Chiefs of Staff through the USMCEB.
62
# Pass and Advanced
262. Within the Department of the Navy, what center authorizes frequency assignment applications and ensures all prerequisites are completed?
The Naval Electromagnetic Spectrum Center (NAVEMSCEN).
63
# Pass and Advanced
263. What is meant by the word ?caveat? when used with special-handling instructions?
A warning by authoritative orders that directs or imposes one to protect an element, usually special message traffic.
64
# Pass and Advanced
264. The marking ?Restricted Data? (RD) is applied to what data?
All data concerned with the design, manufacture, or use of nuclear weapons; also the special nuclear material used in energy production.
65
# Pass and Advanced
265. What information does the marking ?Formerly Restricted Data? (FRD) pertain to?
Defense information that has been removed from the RD category but must still be safeguarded as classified defense information
66
# Pass and Advanced
266. What message is the LIMDIS (Limited Distribution) designator applied to?
Only classified messages which, because of the subject matter, require limited distribution within the addressed activity.
67
# Pass and Advanced
267. What is the designation used on official information not requiring a security classification but which must be withheld and protected from public release?
For Official Use Only (FOUO).
68
# Pass and Advanced
268. What special designation was established to protect certain categories of unclassified messages that is identified as having potential value if subject to analysis, but does not meet the criteria for security classification during electrical transmission?
Encrypt for Transmission Only (EFTO).
69
# Pass and Advanced
269. When is EFTO not required on unclassified messages?
On those addressed exclusively among Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard commands.
70
# Pass and Advanced
270. What instruction can you find detailed information on EFTO and FOUO markings?
In Basic Operational Communications Doctrine (U), NWP 4 (NWP 6-01).
71
# Pass and Advanced
271. What is the marking for special category?
SPECAT.
72
# Pass and Advanced
272. What are the four SPECAT categories?
SPECAT, SPECAT EXCLUSIVE FOR (SEF), SPECAT Single Integrated Operational Plan- Extremely Sensitive Information (SIOP-ESI), and PSEUDO-SPECAT.
73
# Pass and Advanced
273. What SPECAT messages are always Top Secret?
SIOP-ESI.
74
# Pass and Advanced
274. What SPECAT messages are normally unclassified messages that require limited distribution?
PSEUDO-SPECAT.
75
# Pass and Advanced
275. What personnel handle SPECAT messages?
Only those who are authorized by the commanding officer in writing to view them.
76
# Pass and Advanced
276. What is the marking applied when message distribution must be limited to the named recipient? .
PERSONAL FOR.
77
# Pass and Advanced
277. What personnel may originate PERSONAL FOR messages?
Only flag officers, officers in a command status, or their designated representatives.
78
# Pass and Advanced
278. Does the United States have a security classification equivalent to NATO RESTRICTED?
No.
79
# Pass and Advanced
279. Since the United States does not have a security classification equivalent to ALLIED RESTRICTED, these messages must be handled in the same manner as what type of messages?
Confidential.
80
# Pass and Advanced
280. What is it called when during an actual or simulated emergency it becomes necessary to decrease the amount of record and/or voice communications on military telecommunications circuits?
MINIMIZE.
81
# Pass and Advanced
281. What happens to messages that will not be sent electrically during minimize periods?
They should be returned to the originator with the reason for their return.
82
# Pass and Advanced
282. What messages contain key instructions or information from high-level authority and have fr predetermined formats (pro forma).
Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) Emergency Action Messages (EAMs)
83
# Pass and Advanced
283. What SPECAT message is used only within the naval community for highly sensitive matters, high-level policy, or when politically sensitive information is to be passed only to a particular individual?
SPECAT EXCLUSIVE FOR (SEF).
84
# Pass and Advanced
284. What is the designation assigned to that group of communications and operational publications designated as part of the publication allowance for the command?
NWPL (naval warfare publications library).
85
# Pass and Advanced
285. What is the objective of central administration of naval warfare publications (NWPs)?
To ensure that these publications are correct and readily available for their intended use.
86
# Pass and Advanced
286. Who is the responsibility for managing the NWPL assigned to?
An officer or senior petty oiiicer who is responsible to the executive officer, department head, or officer.
87
# Pass and Advanced
287. What person is responsible for the overall administration and security of the NVVPL in accordance with the Naval Warfare Documentation Guide, NWPO (NWP 1-01)?
The naval warfare publications custodian (NWPC).
88
# Pass and Advanced
288. Who is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the library and maintains all records and receipts in the central file, orders all necessary publications and changes thereto, and enters all changes and amendments to publications physically held in the NWPL?
The NWPL clerk.
89
# Pass and Advanced
289. Who does the clerk report all matters of concern to?
The library custodian.
90
# Pass and Advanced
290. What is the person called that the NWPL custodian issues publications to?
Holders and short-term users.
91
# Pass and Advanced
291. What is the purpose of the custody file?
To maintain an up-to-date record of the holder and location of each publication.
92
# Pass and Advanced
292. What does the administrative file, sometimes called the transaction file, contain?
Designation letters for custodian, local allowance/inventory sheets, the directives file, responsibility acknowledgment forms, publication notice route slips, destruction records, inspection documentation letters, and copies of all correspondence pertaining to naval warfare publications.
93
# Pass and Advanced
293. How long must the material in the administrative file be retained?
2 years.
94
# Pass and Advanced
294. What is the color of the Secret classification hinder for U.S. naval warfare publications?
Red.
95
# Pass and Advanced
295. What is the color of the unclassified binder for U.S. naval warfare publications?
Blue.
96
# Pass and Advanced
296. What is the color of the Confidential classification binder for U.S. naval warfare publications?
Yellow.
97
# Pass and Advanced
297. What color is the binder of Allied/NATO publications regardless of security classification?
White.
98
# Pass and Advanced
298. Who is responsible for making changes or corrections to NWPL publications or ensuring that holders receive and make the changes in a timely manner?
The NWPL clerk.
99
# Pass and Advanced
299. When making entry of changes to NWPL publications why is red ink not used?
Because it is not visible under red night lights used aboard ship.
100
# Pass and Advanced
300. How are corrections to NWPL publications issued when the material requires rapid dissemination?
By message.
101
# Pass and Advanced
301. What does the first number of a numerical message corrections (NMCs) indicate?
The sequential number of the message correction to the original or revised publication.
102
# Pass and Advanced
302. What notice keeps all cognizant personnel informed of the changes to naval warfare publications?
A publication notice.
103
# Pass and Advanced
303. When are publication notices destroyed?
When no longer useful.
104
# Pass and Advanced
304. What should be conducted to ensure positive control of NWPL publications?
A watch-to-watch inventory.
105
# Pass and Advanced
305. What is certified by the signing of the watch-to-watch inventory by the relieving watch?
The publications were sighted, the required page checks were conducted, and that the relieving watch stander is responsible for the watch.
106
# Pass and Advanced
306. What is required if watch-to-watch inventories are not required aboard ship?
A daily inventory.
107
# Pass and Advanced
307. May naval warfare publications be extracted/reproduced for use in training or operations of U.S. forces?
Yes.
108
# Pass and Advanced
308. When new or revised publications are received what should you check for the effective status of the publication?
The Foreword and the U.S. Letter of Promulgation.
109
# Pass and Advanced
309. What series of publications provide communications instructions and procedures essential to conducting combined military operations and communications in which two or more allied nations are involved?
Allied communications 'publications (ACPs).
110
# Pass and Advanced
310. What publication was developed to coordinate and standardize communications among the U.S. military services?
Joint Army-Navy-Air Force publications (J ANAPS).
111
# Pass and Advanced
311. What publication lists the short and long titles, content of each publication, and the current edition of JANAPS and ACPs?
The Status Of Non-cryptographic JAN/IP?s and A CPS, JANAP 201.
112
# Pass and Advanced
312. What publications are the main communications publications in use by the U.S. Navy, Coast Guard, and Marine Corps?
Naval telecommunications publications (NTPS).
113
# Pass and Advanced
313. What publication is the guiding doctrine of a NCTAMS for the communications area under its jurisdiction?
Fleet telecommunications publications (FTPS).
114
# Pass and Advanced
314. What is developed by each NCTAMS to provide reference information on specific tactical communications subjects?
Communications information bulletins (CIBS).
115
# Pass and Advanced
315. What is involved with communications security (COMSEC)?
All the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from the possession and study of telecommunications relating to national security.
116
# Pass and Advanced
316. What system is designed to ensure the proper distribution, handling, and control of COMSEC material and maintains the cryptographic security of communications?
The communications security material system (CMS).
117
# Pass and Advanced
317. Where can you find procedures governing the CMS?
In Communications Security Material System (CMS) Policy and Procedures Manual, CMS 1.
118
# Pass and Advanced
318. Who assigns an account number for every command with a CMS account?
The Director, Communications Security Material System (DCMS).
119
# Pass and Advanced
319. The CMS custodian is designated in writing by what person to maintain the CMS account for the command?
The commanding officer.
120
# Pass and Advanced
320. What is a CMS local holder?
A command or activity that receives its COMSEC material support from a CMS account command.
121
# Pass and Advanced
321. What is an individual considered who requires COMSEC material to accomplish an assigned duty or who needs COMSEC material for advancement study or training purposes?
A CMS user.
122
# Pass and Advanced
322. All personnel who become involved with CMS should complete what training course?
The Personnel Qualifications Standards (PQS).
123
# Pass and Advanced
323. Why must COMSEC material be stored separately from non-COMSEC material?
Because it helps ensure separate control for COMSEC material and makes emergency destruction of COMSEC material easier.
124
# Pass and Advanced
324. When you are on duty, who is responsible for all the COMSEC material listed on the watch-to-watch inventory?
The watch supervisor.
125
# Pass and Advanced
325. What must be done each time a watch section changes?
The oncoming watch supervisor and a witness _must inventory all COMSEC material held at a watch station.
126
# Pass and Advanced
326. What report provides an audit trail for all accountable COMSEC material?
COMSEC material accounting reports.
127
# Pass and Advanced
327. What report is used to document and report the transfer of COMSEC material from one CMS account to another or one holder to another?
Transfer Report.
128
# Pass and Advanced
328. What are the three types of CMS inventories?
Fixed-cycle (FC), Special, and Combined.
129
# Pass and Advanced
329. What CMS inventory is used to ensure that all accounts satisfy the national requirements for a semiannual inventory of keymat and an annual inventory of equipment and publications?
Fixed-cycle inventory.
130
# Pass and Advanced
330. What CMS inventory satisfies the Navy requirement to conduct and document the mandatory Change of Command and Custodian inventories?
Special SF 153. `
131
# Pass and Advanced
331. What report is used to record destruction of individual, one-time keying material segments of COMSEC material?
CMS 25 One-Time Keying Material Destruction Report.
132
# Pass and Advanced
332. What report is used to record destruction of keytape segments of COMSEC keying material packaged in the ?VF? format?
CMS 25B COMSEC Keying Material Local Destruction Report.
133
# Pass and Advanced
333. When must superseded COMSEC material be destroyed?
As soon as possible after supersession.
134
# Pass and Advanced
334. When must keying material marked ?CRYPTO? be destroyed?
No later than 12 hours after supersession.
135
# Pass and Advanced
335. COMSEC material that must be destroyed in an emergency is divided into what three categories?
Keying material, COMSEC document; and COMSEC equipment.
136
# Pass and Advanced
336. In what order is keying material always destroyed?
Superseded, effective, reserve.
137
# Pass and Advanced
337. What is reserve keying material?
Keying material that will become effective within the next 30 days.
138
# Pass and Advanced
338. What type of information do COMSEC documents contain?
Information on the type of crypto equipments we use, the level of technology we have attained, and the way our COMSEC operations are organized and conducted.
139
# Pass and Advanced
339. What are the two parts of verifying the destruction of COMSEC material?
Witnessing and inspection of destroyed material.
140
# Pass and Advanced
340. What person will normally implement the emergency plan?
The commanding officer.
141
# Pass and Advanced
341. What individual is usually authorized to implement the emergency plan should the situation prevent contact with the commanding officer?
The COMSEC officer or COMSEC custodian.
142
# Pass and Advanced
342. What is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals?
Two-person integrity (TPI).
143
# Pass and Advanced
343. Can one person have sole possession of COMSEC material that requires TPI security?
No.
144
# Pass and Advanced
344. What type of material is the marking ?CRYPTO? used on?
All keying material and associated equipment to protect or authenticate national security-related information.
145
# Pass and Advanced
345. What does the term ?crypto material? refer to?
All material, such as documents, devices, or apparatus, that contain crypto information.
146
# Pass and Advanced
346. What is crypto material that supplies equipment settings and arrangements or that is used directly in the encryption and decryption process called?
Keying material.
147
# Pass and Advanced
347. Is keying material always given priority when an emergency plan is implemented?
Yes.
148
# Pass and Advanced
348. What is any failure, equipment, or operator that adversely affects the security of a crypto system called?
Crypto insecurity.
149
# Pass and Advanced
349. What is a crypto variable?
An element of a crypto system that directly affects the encryption and decryption process.
150
# Pass and Advanced
350. The crypto variables are divided into how many types?
Two.
151
# Pass and Advanced
351. Which crypto variable is the most readily and frequently changed element of a crypto system?
Primary.
152
# Pass and Advanced
352. During secure transmission, what is the function of crypto equipment?
To accept a ?plain text? tele printer or data signal containing classified information from the classified (red) patch panel and add a ?key? (randomly chosen bits generated internally), which is relayed as an encrypted signal.
153
# Pass and Advanced
353. What process is known as over-the-air rekey (OTAR) or over-the-air transfer (OTAT)?
When the new cryptosystem that uses the 128-bit electronic key (ANDVT, KY-58, KG-84A/C, and KY-7 5) is capable of obtaining new or updated key via the circuit they protect or other secure communications circuits.
154
# Pass and Advanced
354. What publications contain information on OTAR/OTAT?
The Procedures] manual for Over-the-Air Transfer (OTA T) and Over-the-Air Rekey (OTAR) and Field Generation and Over-the-Air Distribution of Tactical Electronic Key, NAG-16C/TSEC.
155
# Pass and Advanced
355. What is the security measure designed to protect a communications or command system against fraudulent transmissions or simulation?
Authentication.
156
# Pass and Advanced
356. What are the types of authentication?
Challenge and Reply and Transmission Authentication.
157
# Pass and Advanced
357. What is the procedure called that a station uses to establish its own authenticity, and the called station is not required to challenge the calling station?
Self-authentication.
158
# Pass and Advanced
358. Where can you find information on authentication?
In Communications Instructions Security (U), ACP 122.
159
# Pass and Advanced
359. What is the term used to describe four types of interference that you are likely to experience in a given situation?
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming, and Interference (MIJI).
160
# Pass and Advanced
360. What is the interception and rebroadcast of navigation signals?
Meaconing.
161
# Pass and Advanced
361. How is intrusion defined?
Any attempt by an enemy to enter U.S. or allied communications systems and simulate our traffic to confuse and deceive.
162
# Pass and Advanced
362. What is jamming?
The deliberate radiation, reradiation, or reflection of electromagnetic signals to disrupt enemy use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems.
163
# Pass and Advanced
363. What does interference usually result from?
Spurious emissions and responses or from intermodulation products.
164
# Pass and Advanced
364. What does AIS security cover?
The denial of service and the destruction of computer rooms, the loss of confidentiality, fraud, the theft of computer time as well as the computer itself.
165
# Pass and Advanced
365. What is the AIS security goal?
To take all reasonable measures to protect AIS assets.
166
# Pass and Advanced
366. What is the ultimate AIS asset?
Information.
167
# Pass and Advanced
367. What is considered environmental threats?
Heat, humidity, explosions, dust, dirt, power peaks, power failures; and natural disasters like tire, floods, hurricanes, thunderstorms, and earthquakes.
168
# Pass and Advanced
368. What are vulnerabilities caused by?
Lack of AIS security planning, poor management, disorganization, disorder, inadequate or improper procedures, open data and open door policies, undocumented software, unaware or unconcerned personnel.
169
# Pass and Advanced
369. How can you help limit the vulnerabilities?
By following established AIS security policies and procedures.
170
# Pass and Advanced
370. What causes successful attacks and adverse events?
A combination of threats, vulnerabilities, and AIS assets.
171
# Pass and Advanced
371. How are risks usually expressed?
In terms of dollars per year, the annual loss expectancy.
172
# Pass and Advanced
372. What is done once the threats and vulnerabilities are known and the likelihood and risk of a successful attack or an adverse event are determined?
A plan is developed to set up countermeasures (controls) to lessen or eliminate the vulnerabilities.
173
# Pass and Advanced
373. What are the measures called that helps to recover from a successful attack or an adverse event?
Contingency plans.
174
# Pass and Advanced
374. What is involved in risk management?
Assessing the risks, determining loss potential estimates, and selecting countermeasures appropriate to prevent, detect, minimize, and recover from successful attacks and adverse events.
175
# Pass and Advanced
375. What does the degree of success of risk management depend on?
The vulnerability of the system or activity and the effectiveness of existing countermeasures.
176
# Pass and Advanced
376. What are the five areas of consideration for the Navy?s AIS security program?
Hardware (I), data (II), human resources (III), software (IV), and communications (COMM) (V).
177
# Pass and Advanced
377. Who is the only person that can ensure that AIS security receives the support required at every level?
The commanding officer (CO). .
178
# Pass and Advanced
378. Who is responsible for taking the necessary steps to provide an adequate level of security for all AIS-related activities, automated information systems, and networks, including those developed, operated, maintained, or provided by contractors?
The CO and the AIS security staff.
179
# Pass and Advanced
379. What person does each AIS facility have whose primary duty is to serve as the single point of contact for all matters relating to AIS security at your command?
An information system security manager (ISSM).
180
# Pass and Advanced
380. What are the factors that determine the numbers and types of people assigned to the AIS security staff?
The type of activity, its size, its hardware configuration(s), types of work to be processed, etc.
181
# Pass and Advanced
381. What type of personnel may your command?s AIS security staff include?
Command security manager, information system security manager (ISSM), information system security officer (ISSO), network security officer (N SO), and terminal area security officer (T ASO).
182
# Pass and Advanced
382. What type of things does physical security deal with?
Personnel, the environment, the facility and its power supply(s), fire protection, physical access, and even the protection of software, hardware, and data files.
183
# Pass and Advanced
383. What does the degree of physical security at your installation or command depend on?
Its physical characteristics, its vulnerability within the AIS environment, and the type of data processed.
184
# Pass and Advanced
384. Minimum physical security requirements include what four basic areas your command must address?
Physical security protection, physical access controls, data tile protection, and natural disaster protection.
185
# Pass and Advanced
385. What is the reason physical access controls are implemented?
To prevent unauthorized entry to your computer facility or remote terminal areas.
186
# Pass and Advanced
386. What are the several ways physical access controls can be accomplished?
Conventional key and lock set, electronic key system, mechanical combination lock, or electronic combination lock.
187
# Pass and Advanced
387. What temperature should be maintained in the computer facility?
7 2? Fahrenheit, +/-2?.
188
# Pass and Advanced
388. What should be the humidity level of the computer facility?
55%, +/- 5%. I
189
# Pass and Advanced
389. What precautions should be taken if your equipment has been exposed to water?
Do not turn it on until it has been thoroughly checked out by qualified maintenance personnel.
190
# Pass and Advanced
390. What should be done if your system encounters power fluctuations?
The equipment should be shut down at once until the problem is corrected.
191
# Pass and Advanced
391. What are some computer systems equipped with that provides the auxiliary power for your equipment that may be required if your command?s mission dictates continuous AIS support to fulfill its obligations or if your computer system is in an area where there are frequent brownouts?
An uninterrupted power source (UPS).
192
# Pass and Advanced
392. What is one of the major elements of any command?s physical security program?
Fire protection.
193
# Pass and Advanced
393. Fire extinguishers are placed within what distance of computer equipment?
50 feet.
194
# Pass and Advanced
394. What type of fire extinguishers are used on electrical fires?
Only carbon dioxide or inert-gas Fire extinguishers.
195
# Pass and Advanced
395. How does the FIPS (Federal Information Processing Standards) PUB 39 Glossary for Computer Systems Security define data security?
As ?The protection of data from unauthorized (accidental or intentional) modification, destruction, or disclosure.?
196
# Pass and Advanced
396. In a remote terminal area, what are security requirements based upon?
The highest classification of data to be accessed through the terminals.
197
# Pass and Advanced
397. What must be done if the computer system to which your remote terminal is connected is processing classified data and your terminal is not authorized, controlled, or protected for that classification of data?
It must be disconnected.
198
# Pass and Advanced
398. What are the four security modes that provide for processing classified data?
System high, dedicated, multilevel, and controlled.
199
# Pass and Advanced
399. When is a computer system operating in the system high security mode?
When the central computer facility and all of the connected peripheral devices and remote terminals are protected in accordance with the requirements for the highest classification category and type of material then contained in the system.
200
# Pass and Advanced
400. When is a computer system operating in the dedicated security mode?
When the Central Computer facility and all of its Connected peripheral devices and remote terminals are exclusively used and controlled by specific users or group of users having a security clearance and need-to-know for the processing of a particular category(s) and type(s) of classified material.
Advancment Study (In Rate)
flashcards
Decks in class (13)
# Cards
