FCOM Abbreviations & Acronyms Flashcards

Question

ADIRS

Answer 1

Air Data Inertial Reference System

Answer 2

Air Data Inertial Reference Unit

Answer 3

Airborne Data Loading Unit

Answer 4

Airborne Data Module ## Footnote * The ADIRS contains five ADMs, which convert pneumatic data from PITOT and STAT probes into numerical data for the three ADIRUs.

Answer 5

Air Data Reference ## Footnote The part of the ADIRU which supplies barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, AOA, temperature and overspeed warnings.

Answer 6

Automatic Dependent Surveillance

Answer 7

Autonomous Distress Tracking ## Footnote * Functions autonomously to detect situations of distress (e.g. unusual aircraft attitude, loss of thrust, excessive cabin altitude with no emergency descent, etc.) and trigger a distress signal * Autonomously stops this signal when the situation of distress ends. * Automatically triggers an emergency and a distress signal in the case of impact * The flight crew can also force the emission of the emergency and distress signal by setting the ELT selector to ON * The ADT function includes the following: (1 An ELT connected to the DMCs 2 An ELT overhead panel 3 An antenna on top of the fuselage)

Answer 8

All Engines Operative

Answer 9

Avionic Equipment Ventilation Controller

Answer 10

Auxiliary Fuel Management Computer

Answer 11

Auxiliary Fuel Management System

Answer 12

Auto Flight System

Answer 13

Aircraft Integrated Data System ## Footnote * Used to monitor various aircraft system parameters in order to make maintenance easier and to allow formulating operational recommendations. * Can generate system reports * Can be programmed using the MCDUs * May send automatic reports via ACARS * Consists of a Data Managements Unit (DMU)

Answer 14

Autonomous Integrity Monitoring Extrapolation

Answer 15

Attendant Indication Panel

Answer 16

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

Answer 17

Actual Landing Distance

Answer 18

Altimeter Setting Monitor

Answer 19

Acceptable Means of Compliance ## Footnote * AMCs are non-binding standards adopted by EASA to illustrate means to establish compliance with the Basic Regulation and its Implementing Rules.

Answer 20

Airline Modifiable Information ## Footnote * One of the main FMGC databases (AKA FM Airline Configuration file) that contains FM values related to the airlines OpSpecs * e.g. Airline policy values: THR RED altitude, ACC altitude, EO ACC altitude, PERF factor, IDLE factor. Fuel policy values: Fuel for taxi, % of route reserve, maximum and minimum values of route reserve, etc. AOC functions customization.

Answer 21

Aircraft Maintenance Manual

Answer 22

Audio Management Unit ## Footnote The AMU manages * Communication transmission/reception of all the radio communication and radio navigation facilities * Internal communication

Answer 23

Airline Operational Control

Answer 24

Approach Stabilization Monitor

Answer 25

Asymmetry Position Pick-off Unit ## Footnote * APPUs measure asymmetry between the left and right wings and provide that information to the SFCCs

Answer 26

Auxiliary Power Unit

Answer 27

Authorization Required

Answer 28

Aeronautical Radio Incorporated ## Footnote * ARINC is a private company that works closely with the FAA and the FCC to establish standards for aviation communication and navigation.

Answer 29

Aircraft Registration Number

Answer 30

Airport ## Footnote * The ARPT Optional Data Display PB displays airports that are not part of the flight plan on the ND via a magenta star and ICAO code

Answer 31

Automatic Retraction System

Answer 32

Automatic Terminal Information System

Answer 33

Aeronautical Telecommunications Network

Answer 34

Airborne Traffic Situational Awareness

Answer 35

Air Traffic Service Unit

Answer 36

Back Course

Answer 37

Braking Action Computation Function ## Footnote * Complements the Runway Overrun Protection System (ROPS) * Allows the aircraft to measure braking efficiency during landing, improving awareness of runway conditions * The flight crew can use this information to accurately assess if the current runway condition is as expected or has changed. * The crew can share this information by radio with air traffic controllers, who can in return use it to provide the most up-to-date runway conditions to incoming aircraft, leading to more accurate landing distance computation.

Answer 38

Buffer Air Check Valve | PRO-ABN-ENG P 163/516 ## Footnote The buffer air system (Buffer Air Shut Off Valve (BASOV) or Buffer Air Check Valve (BACV)) ensures engine bearing cooling, sealing, and pressurization.

Answer 39

Barometric

Answer 40

Battery Charge Limiter ## Footnote * Each battery has an associated Battery Charge Limiter (BCL). * The BCL monitors battery charging and controls its battery contactor.

Answer 41

Beat Frequency Oscillator ## Footnote Used to create an audio frequency signal from Morse code radiotelegraphy (CW) transmissions to make them audible.

Answer 42

Built-In Test Equipment

Answer 43

Bleed Monitoring Computer

Answer 44

Back-up Power Supply

Answer 45

Brake and Steering Control Unit

Answer 46

Burner Staging Valve

Answer 47

Bus Tie Contactor

Answer 48

Bleed Temperature Sensor

Answer 49

Back-up Speed Scale ## Footnote * Provides safe airspeed guidance to fly when normal airspeed indications have failed or are unreliable * Not detailed enough to follow ATC clearances * Also activates Backup Altitude Scale based on GPS (amber dashes cover the last two digits of the altitude); accurate only to the hundreds place * Activates on both PFD's when either pilot selects the BKUP SPD/ALT P/B * Based on angle of attack (AOA) and depends on the flap/slat configuration. * Reversible.

Answer 50

Circuit Breaker

Answer 51

Captain, Capture

Answer 52

Calibrated Airspeed

Answer 53

Cursor Control Device ## Footnote * Provides mouse-like control for the On-Board Airport Navigation System (OANS)

Answer 54

Continuous Descent Approach

Answer 55

Configuration Deviation List

Answer 56

Cockpit Door Locking System

Answer 57

Continuous Descent Operations

Answer 58

Cockpit Door Surveillance System

Answer 59

Control Display Unit (generic for MCDU)

Answer 60

Cost of Fuel

Answer 61

Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit

Answer 62

Centralized Fault Display System

Answer 63

Cost Index

Answer 64

Cabin Intercommunication Data System

Answer 65

Cabin Intercommunication Data System - Smoke Detection Function

Answer 66

Cabin Information Network System

Answer 67

Climb, Checklist

Answer 68

Crewmember 1 (left seat)

Answer 69

Crewmember 2 (right seat)

Answer 70

Constant Mach Segment

Answer 71

Company Route

Answer 72

Communication

Answer 73

Conditioning

Answer 74

Configuration

Answer 75

Continuous

Answer 76

Control Panel

Answer 77

Cabin Pressure Controller

Answer 78

Closest Point of Approach

Answer 79

Controller-Pilot Datalink Communication

Answer 80

Continuous Repetitive Chime

Answer 81

Conditioned Service Air System

Answer 82

Constraint ## Footnote * The CSTR Optional Data Display PB displays altitude constraints on the ND

Answer 83

Cost of Time

Answer 84

Control Panel

Answer 85

Cockpit Voice Recorder ## Footnote * Records all the communications and sounds in the flight deck on a continuous tape that maintains the last two hours of recording * Includes all cockpit conversations, radio communications, intercom and PA announcements as well as all aural warnings in the cockpit

Answer 86

Drift Angle ## Footnote Drift Angle is the angle between the heading of an aircraft and the track over the ground.

Answer 87

Double Annular Combustor ## Footnote A Double Annular Combustor is a type of combustion chamber used in jet engines.

Answer 88

Datalink Automatic Terminal Information Service ## Footnote D-ATIS provides pilots with automatic updates of terminal information through data link.

Answer 89

Digital Backup Speed ## Footnote Digital Backup Speed refers to a secondary method for displaying airspeed in aircraft systems.

Answer 90

Doors Control and Monitoring System ## Footnote DCMS is a system that oversees the operation and status of aircraft doors.

Answer 91

Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator ## Footnote * Provides a compass display, DME displays, and navigation information for the VOR system * The compass is driven by ADIRU 1, but ADIRU 3 can supply the signal when the ATT HDG Selector is selected to CAPT 3

Answer 92

Deceleration ## Footnote Deceleration is the process of reducing speed or velocity.

Answer 93

Destination

Answer 94

Detection, Detector

Answer 95

Digital Flight Data Recorder ## Footnote * Stores data from the FDIMU in a fireproof and shockproof container with an underwater locator beacon * Can store data for the last 25 hours of operation

Answer 96

Disconnect

Answer 97

Data Loading Selector Unit ## Footnote * Used to update databases * High serial numbers

Answer 98

Display Management Computer

Answer 99

Data Management Unit | LOW SERIAL NUMBERS ONLY! ## Footnote 2 DMUs make up the Aircraft Integrated Data System (AIDS)

Answer 100

Descent Profile Optimization ## Footnote Computes a descent profile to decrease the idle thrust margins in descent and the speed margins in approach to reduce fuel burn in descent phase. With DPO, the computed vertical profile is steeper. The T/D is reached later. Before the final approach, the deceleration level-off is shorter.

Answer 101

Distance To Go

Answer 102

Derated Takeoff

Answer 103

Display Unit, Documentary Unit

Answer 104

Engine/Warning Display ## Footnote The E/WD is divided into three sections, one on the top, and two on the bottom. The top section displays the primary engine parameters, and also the current thrust mode, fuel indications, and the position of the slats and flaps.

Answer 105

European Union Aviation Safety Agency

Answer 106

Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring ## Footnote * Provides a display of engine and system parameters, and also provides various levels of alerts and memos to the flight crew * Consist of an upper and lower DU, and the ECAM control panel * The upper DU is the Engine/Warning Display (E/WD). The lower DU is the System Display (SD)

Answer 107

Electronic Control Box (APU)

Answer 108

Engine Condition Monitoring

Answer 109

Economic ## Footnote * If a "managed" target speed from the FMGS is in the ECON speed range, a magenta double bar is the target on the PFD

Answer 110

ECAM Control Panel

Answer 111

Engine Control Unit

Answer 112

Engine-Driven Pump

Answer 113

Electronic Engine Computer ## Footnote A computer system (part of the FADEC) designed for fuel-flow regulation of an engine, thrust management of an engine and interface with flight crew–alert systems throughout normal flight operations.

Answer 114

Electronic Flight Folder

Answer 115

Electronic Flight Instruments System

Answer 116

Enhanced Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit

Answer 117

Estimated Fuel On Board

Answer 118

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System ## Footnote * The EGPWS functions as a predictive system and helps to avoid controlled flight into terrain * The EGPWS provides more descriptive aural and visual alerts than the standard GPWS, and can issue alerts for flight toward a vertical cliff * Whether a Terrain Caution or Terrain Warning occurs, the flight crew must immediately respond to the alert without attempting to determine whether or not the alert is valid. * Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with an Enhanced GPWS alert. Inform ATC as soon as possible of the situation.

Answer 119

Exhaust Gas Temperature

Answer 120

Electronic Instrument System ## Footnote * Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) acquire data from the Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and Spoiler Elevator Computers (SECs) and sends it to the Electronic Instrument System (EIS).

Answer 121

Engine Interface Unit

Answer 122

Engine Interface and Vibration Monitoring Unit

Answer 123

Elevator Aileron Computer ## Footnote * There are two Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) that provide Elevator/Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control and Aileron control * The forward or aft movement of the side stick commands a pitch rate signal to one ELAC. For a given airspeed, the signal moves the elevators to a position, that corresponds to the pitch rate commanded by the amount of side stick deflection. As airspeed varies, control effectiveness varies directly so control surface deflection requirement varies indirectly. * Similarly, the lateral movement of the side stick commands a roll rate signal to the other ELAC. For a given airspeed, the signal moves the ailerons to a position, that corresponds to the roll rate commanded by the amount of side stick deflection. If control effectiveness is low and/or rate command is high, the ELAC will send a signal to the SECs to augment the roll rate commanded.

Answer 124

Emergency Locator Transmitter

Answer 125

Emergency ## Footnote EMER is a standard abbreviation used in aviation.

Answer 126

Emergency Generator ## Footnote EMER GEN refers to a backup power source used during emergencies.

Answer 127

Engine ## Footnote ENG is commonly used to denote the aircraft engine.

Answer 128

En-Route ## Footnote ENR indicates the phase of flight when the aircraft is traveling to its destination.

Answer 129

Engine-Out ## Footnote EO refers to a situation where one engine of a multi-engine aircraft has failed.

Answer 130

Engine-Out Standard Instrument Departure ## Footnote EOSID is a procedure for departing when an engine failure occurs.

Answer 131

Estimated Position Error ## Footnote * This value is continuously computed by the FMGS, and is an estimate of the accuracy of the computed FM position. * Its value is directly related to the current navigation mode. For example: the accuracy would be highest for the IRS/GPS mode, and lowest for the IRS ONLY mode.

Answer 132

Engine Pressure Ratio ## Footnote EPR is a performance measurement for jet engines.

Answer 133

Emergency Power Unit, Estimated Position Uncertainty ## Footnote EPU may refer to both an emergency power source and a measure of position uncertainty.

Answer 134

Extended Twin Operations ## Footnote ETOPS allows twin-engine aircraft to fly long distances from airports, considering engine reliability.

Answer 135

Equal Time Point ## Footnote ETP is the point during flight where it is equally distant from two alternate airports.

Answer 136

Estimated Time of Takeoff

Answer 137

Evacuation

Answer 138

Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit

Answer 139

Engine/Warning Display

Answer 140

External Power

Answer 141

The minimum speed at which flaps can be retracted safely.

Answer 142

Flight Control

Answer 143

First Officer

Answer 144

Flight Augmentation Computer ## Footnote * There are two Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) that provide Rudder control (along with the rudder peddals) * The FAC automatically controls yaw damping and turn coordination, so no manual rudder input is normally required by the pilot * Rudder Trim is available through the FAC by use of the RUD TRIM switch on the pedestal * The FAC also provides Rudder Limit and Reactive Windshear Guidance * FAC 1 normally controls yaw inputs.

Answer 145

Full Authority Digital Engine Control System

Answer 146

Future Air Navigation System

Answer 147

* Flight Attendant Panel * Forward Attendant Panel * Final Approach Point

Answer 148

Final Approach Segment

Answer 149

Flight Control Data Concentrator ## Footnote * Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) acquire data from the Elevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) and Spoiler Elevator Computers (SECs) and sends it to the Electronic Instrument System (EIS)

Answer 150

Flight Crew Techniques Manual

Answer 151

Flight Control Unit

Answer 152

Flight Director

Answer 153

Fan Drive Gear System

Answer 154

Flight Data Interface and Management Unit ## Footnote * Collects and processes parameters from the SDACs, DMCs, FWCs, FCDCs, BSCU, the DFDR event pushbutton, the GND CTL pushbutton and the Clock * Stores the mandatory flight parameters in the DFDR. The DFDR can store at least the last 25 hours of operating data * The DFDR stores this data in a fireproof and shockproof container with an underwater locator beacon.

Answer 155

Flight Data Interface Unit

Answer 156

Final Descent Point

Answer 157

Flight Data Recorder

Answer 158

Fire Detection Unit

Answer 159

Final End Point

Answer 160

Flight Guidance

Answer 161

FLS Glide Slope

Answer 162

Factored In-Flight Landing Distance

Answer 163

FLS Localizer

Answer 164

Flap Load Relief Function

Answer 165

FMS Landing System

Answer 166

Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit | * Controls center tank to wing tank fuel transfer

Answer 167

Flexible Takeoff

Answer 168

Flight Management

Answer 169

Flight Mode Annunciator

Answer 170

Flight Management Computer | Generic term for flight managment computers ## Footnote * Pilots interact with FMCs through the MCDU

Answer 171

Flight Management and Guidance Computer ## Footnote * The FMGC provides auto-tuning and is the basic method for tuning Navaids * The three tuning modes are: Automatic, Manual, and Back-up (Remote)

Answer 172

Flight Management and Guidance System | Describes the overall FMG system, including both FMGCs and the MCDU ## Footnote * Autotunes navigation signals to compute aircraft position and provides navigation along a lateral route as loaded by the flight crew * Can provide Flight Director guidance, ND route and waypoint displays, and can also provide autopilot control to follow the computed route

Answer 173

Flight Management System

Answer 174

Fuel Metering Valve

Answer 175

Fuel On Board

Answer 176

Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger

Answer 177

Figure Of Merit

Answer 178

Flight Path Angle ## Footnote * The FPA is shown by the "bird's" indication above or below the horizon reference

Answer 179

Flight Path Director ## Footnote * FPD roll guidance will be commanded by presenting an angular rotation of the FPD * Pitch guidance will be commanded by presenting a vertical displacement of the FPD * The presentation is with respect to the surface of the Earth * Proper response to both commands will be when the Flight Path Vector is superimposed on the Flight Path Director (FPD).

Answer 180

Flight Plan

Answer 181

Feedback Position Pick-off Unit ## Footnote * Feedback Position Pick-off Units (FPPUs) provide position feedback information to the SFCC.

Answer 182

Flight Path Vector ## Footnote AKA "the bird"

Answer 183

Fuel Quantity

Answer 184

Fuel Quantity Indication

Answer 185

Fuel Quantity Indication Computer

Answer 186

Fuel Quantity and Management System

Answer 187

Fuel Return Valve

Answer 188

Fuel Tank Inerting System

Answer 189

Flight Warning Computer

Answer 190

Flight Warning System ## Footnote * The FSW generates warings or cautionsi when a failure occurs, which are dispayed on the E/WD

Answer 191

Glideslope

Answer 192

Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit

Answer 193

Ground Based Augmentation System

Answer 194

Ground Collision Avoidance System

Answer 195

Ground Clutter Suppression

Answer 196

Generator Control Unit

Answer 197

Group of Documentary Unit

Answer 198

General Electric

Answer 199

Ground Earth Station

Answer 200

Generator Line Contactor

Answer 201

GBAS Landing System, GNSS Landing System

Answer 202

Greenwich Mean Time

Answer 203

Ground Temperature

Answer 204

Global Navigation Satellite System

Answer 205

Ground Power Control Unit

Answer 206

Global Positioning and Inertial Reference System

Answer 207

Global Positioning System

Answer 208

GPS Sensor Unit

Answer 209

Ground Power Unit

Answer 210

Ground Proximity Warning System ## Footnote * Detects unacceptable descent rates and closure with terrain * Operates based upon Radio Altitude, Barometric Altitude, and Glide Slope information * Processes the data from RA 1, ADIRS 1, ILS 1, FMGC 1, LGCIU 1 * Activates alerts when airplane at RA altitudes between 30 ft AGL - 2450 ft AGL

Answer 211

Ground Speed

Answer 212

Global System for Mobile Communication

Answer 213

Gross Weight

Answer 214

Hydraulic Control Unit or HUD Combiner Unit

Answer 215

Head Up Display

Answer 216

High Frequency

Answer 217

Holding Pattern with a Manual Termination

Answer 218

Hydrau-Mechanical Unit

Answer 219

High Pressure

Answer 220

Hectopascal

Answer 221

High Pressure Compressor

Answer 222

Harmonized Primary Flight Display

Answer 223

High Pressure Shut-off Valve

Answer 224

High Pressure Turbine

Answer 225

High Pressure Valve

Answer 226

Head Up Display Computer

Answer 227

Input or Intercept Profile

Answer 228

Indicated Airspeed

Answer 229

Identification

Answer 230

Integrated Drive Generator

Answer 231

In Flight Entertainment

Answer 232

Integrated Fuel Pump and Control ## Footnote * On the new A320neo, the FADEC controls the Integrated Fuel Pump and Control (IFPC) that regulates the fuel flow to the engines. * The IFPC doesn't change the operation of the flight crew, but it combines fuel pump and fuel control functions into a single unit to reduce the number of components installed on the Main Gearbox.

Answer 233

Inert Gas Generation System

Answer 234

Inlet Guide Vanes

Answer 235

Initialization

Answer 236

Inoperative

Answer 237

Interphone, Internal, Integrated, Interior

Answer 238

Intermediate Pressure

Answer 239

Instrumentation Position Pick-off Unit ## Footnote * An Instrumentation Position Pick-off Unit (IPPU) sends the position information to the ECAM

Answer 240

Inertial Reference

Answer 241

Inertial Reference System

Answer 242

Integrated Standby Instrument System ## Footnote * The ISIS displays airspeed, mach, aircraft attitude, landing system information, altitude, barometric pressure and bugs.

Answer 243

In-Seat Power Supply System

Answer 244

In-Seat Power Supply Unit

Answer 245

In-Trail Procedure

Answer 246

Lateral Deviation ## Footnote Refers to the lateral difference from a desired flight path.

Answer 247

Landing Gear ## Footnote The system of components that allows an aircraft to land and take off.

Answer 248

Load Alleviation Function ## Footnote A function designed to manage and reduce loads on an aircraft.

Answer 249

Lateral, Latitude ## Footnote Indicates a direction or measurement in relation to the side of an aircraft.

Answer 250

LAT REV ## Footnote Refers to updates or changes related to lateral measurements or positions.

Answer 251

Lavatory ## Footnote A facility on an aircraft for personal hygiene.

Answer 252

Liquid Crystal Display ## Footnote A type of screen technology used for displays.

Answer 253

Landing Distance Available, Localizer Directional Aid ## Footnote Refers to both the distance available for landing and an aid for directional guidance.

Answer 254

Landing ## Footnote The act of bringing an aircraft down to the ground.

Answer 255

Laptop Docking Station ## Footnote A device that connects a laptop to additional peripherals.

Answer 256

Light Emitting Diode ## Footnote A semiconductor light source that emits light when current flows through it.

Answer 257

List of Effective Documentary Units

Answer 258

List of Effective Operations Engineering Bulletins

Answer 259

Landing Gear Control Interface Unit

Answer 260

Limitation

Answer 261

Latitude/Longitude

Answer 262

Lateral Navigation

Answer 263

Low Pressure, Localizer Performance

Answer 264

Low Pressure Compressor

Answer 265

Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance

Answer 266

Line Replaceable Unit

Answer 267

Loudspeaker

Answer 268

Line Select Key

Answer 269

Level Change

Answer 270

Landing Weight

Answer 271

Mean Aerodynamic Chord

Answer 272

Maintenance

Answer 273

Multipurpose Control and Display Unit

Answer 274

Maximum Continuous Thrust

Answer 275

Main Deck Cargo Door

Answer 276

Multifunction Disk Drive Unit

Answer 277

Minimum Equipment List

Answer 278

Multi-Functional Runway Light

Answer 279

Main Gearbox

Answer 280

Main Landing Gear

Answer 281

Microwave Landing System

Answer 282

Maximum Landing Weight

Answer 283

Middle Marker

Answer 284

Master Minimum Equipment List

Answer 285

Mach Maximum Operational

Answer 286

Multi Mode Receiver ## Footnote * Each MMR processes data from its integrated GPS reciever and provides information to the ADIRS * The MMR operates in five modes, which are indicated on the GPS MONITOR Page of the MCDU * The modes are Initialization mode, Acquisition mode, Navigation mode, Altitude Aiding mode, and Fault mode * MMR also recieves data from the ILS recievers

Answer 287

Mach number

Answer 288

Modification

Answer 289

Minimum Off Route Altitude

Answer 290

Modification Proposal

Answer 291

Map Reference Point

Answer 292

Manufacturer Serial Number

Answer 293

Maximum Takeoff Weight

Answer 294

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

Answer 295

Low Pressure Rotor Speed (in %) ## Footnote Refers to the rotational speed of the low-pressure turbine in an engine.

Answer 296

High Pressure Rotor Speed (in %) ## Footnote Refers to the rotational speed of the high-pressure turbine in an engine.

Answer 297

Engine Nacelle Anti-Ice ## Footnote A system used to prevent ice formation on the engine nacelle.

Answer 298

Number ## Footnote A term used to denote a numeric value or identifier.

Answer 299

Non Computed Data ## Footnote Data that is not derived from calculations but is provided directly.

Answer 300

Navigation Display ## Footnote A cockpit display that shows navigational information to the pilot.

Answer 301

Not Applicable ## Footnote Used to indicate that a certain data point or category does not apply.

Answer 302

Low Pressure Rotor Speed (in %) ## Footnote Refers to the rotational speed of the low-pressure turbine in an engine.

Answer 303

High Pressure Rotor Speed (in %) ## Footnote Refers to the rotational speed of the high-pressure turbine in an engine.

Answer 304

Engine Nacelle Anti-Ice ## Footnote A system used to prevent ice formation on the engine nacelle.

Answer 305

Navigation Aid ## Footnote Devices that provide information to pilots for navigation.

Answer 306

Number ## Footnote A term used to denote a numeric value or identifier.

Answer 307

Non Computed Data ## Footnote Data that is not derived from calculations but is provided directly.

Answer 308

Navigation Display ## Footnote A cockpit display that shows navigational information to the pilot.

Answer 309

On-board Airport Navigation System ## Footnote * System installed on the A321 to provide improved SA in the airport environment

Answer 310

Oceanic Clearance ## Footnote A clearance given for operations over oceanic airspace.

Answer 311

Operations Engineering Bulletin ## Footnote A bulletin related to operational engineering aspects.

Answer 312

One Engine Inoperative ## Footnote Refers to a condition where one engine of the aircraft is not operational.

Answer 313

Outflow Valve ## Footnote A valve that allows outflow of air or fluids in a system.

Answer 314

Onboard Information Terminal ## Footnote A terminal used for displaying information onboard an aircraft.

Answer 315

OPS Library Browser ## Footnote A tool used to browse operational documentation.

Answer 316

Open ## Footnote A status indicating that a system or component is not closed.

Answer 317

Opposite ## Footnote Refers to a position or direction that is directly across from another.

Answer 318

Operations ## Footnote Refers to the overall activities involved in operating an aircraft.

Answer 319

Optimum ## Footnote Refers to the most favorable conditions or levels for operation.

Answer 320

Overhead ## Footnote Refers to components or systems located above the normal operating area.

Answer 321

Overheat ## Footnote A condition where a component exceeds its maximum allowable temperature.

Answer 322

Override ## Footnote A command or action that takes precedence over normal operation.

Answer 323

Oxygen ## Footnote A gas essential for breathing, especially at high altitudes.

Answer 324

Part Number

Answer 325

Path Attenuation Compensation

Answer 326

Performance-Based Communication and Surveillance

Answer 327

Portable Breathing Equipment

Answer 328

Performance Based Navigation ## Footnote * RNAV and RNP System requriements (PBN concept) are defined in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, and functionality

Answer 329

Place/Bearing/Distance waypoint

Answer 330

Place Bearing/Place Bearing waypoint ## Footnote * not in nav database * entered using reference waypoint name and bearing from waypoint, then second reference waypoint name and bearing (e.g., intersection of two radials, non-published intersection)

Answer 331

Power Control Unit ## Footnote * The Slats and Flaps are each driven by a Power Control Unit (PCU) that consists of two independent hydraulic motors coupled by a differential gearbox. * The hydraulic motors for the Slats use green and blue hydraulic power, while the hydraulic motors for the Flaps use green and yellow hydraulic power. * If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the affected Slats or Flaps will operate at half speed.

Answer 332

Portable Electronic Device

Answer 333

Performance

Answer 334

Passenger Entertainment System

Answer 335

Pilot Flying

Answer 336

Porous Friction Course

Answer 337

Primary Flight Display

Answer 338

Probes Heat Computer ## Footnote * Three independent Probe Heat Computers (PHCs) automatically control and monitor the Captain's probes; the F/O's probes; and the STBY probes. The PHCs also protect against overheating and indicate faults when they are detected.

Answer 339

Pilot Metering Valve

Answer 340

Pressure Off Brake ## Footnote * Slat and Flap motors are equipped with POBs that lock the gearbox when the slat or flap surfaces have either reached the commanded position, or when hydraulic power fails

Answer 341

Present Position

Answer 342

Position Pick-off Unit

Answer 343

Pre-recorded Announcement and Music

Answer 344

Prediction

Answer 345

Pressure, Pressurization

Answer 346

Protection

Answer 347

Pressure Regulating and Shut-Off Valve ## Footnote * On the NEO, the Nacelle Anti Ice NAI operation is provided by two in-line pressure regulating and shut-off valves (PRSOV) * Each valve is electrically controlled and pneumatically operated, and both valves must be open to provide bleed air to the engine nacelle * If the system detects a leak or a duct burst, both valves are commanded to close. If an electrical failure occurs, both valves are fail-safe opened.

Answer 348

Pressure Regulating Valve

Answer 349

Proximity Switch Control Unit

Answer 350

Push To Talk

Answer 351

Paravisual Indicator

Answer 352

Potable Water Indication Panel

Answer 353

Predictive Windshear System ## Footnote * A Predictive Windshear Detection system (PWS) provides detection of windshear in front of the aircraft - during the takeoff and landing phases of flight * The Predictive Windshear System operates automatically and is transparent to the flight crew unless a windshear event occurs. * For the PWS to operate, you must have the PWS switch in AUTO, be at an altitude below 2,300' AGL, and the transponder must be selected to ON or AUTO, with either engine running. * Although the PWS is operational below 2,300' AGL, no advisories are provided to the crew above 1,500' AGL, nor below 50' AGL.

Answer 354

Potable Water Service Panel

Answer 355

Quick Access Recorder ## Footnote * The QAR stores the same data as the DFDR, but the QAR is more accessible for the maintenance crew.

Answer 356

Quantity Calculation Control Unit ## Footnote A unit used to manage and calculate quantities in various systems.

Answer 357

Field Elevation Atmosphere Pressure ## Footnote The atmospheric pressure at the airfield elevation.

Answer 358

Runway Heading ## Footnote The magnetic heading of a runway, expressed in degrees.

Answer 359

Sea Level Atmosphere Pressure ## Footnote The atmospheric pressure at sea level, used for altimeter settings.

Answer 360

Quick Reference Handbook ## Footnote A manual that provides essential information and procedures for flight operations.

Answer 361

Quart (US) ## Footnote A unit of volume measurement in the US customary system.

Answer 362

Quantity ## Footnote A term used to specify the amount or number of items.

Answer 363

Radio Altimeter ## Footnote * With the aircraft above 100’ RA, if the glide slope deviation exceeds 1 dot for 2 seconds, the glide slope scale flashes. A 1 dot deviation on the glide slope represents +/- 0.4 degrees * With the aircraft above 15’ RA, if the localizer deviation exceeds ¼ dot for 2 seconds, the localizer scale flashes. A 1 dot deviation on the localizer represents +/- 0.8 degrees

Answer 364

Resolution Advisory ## Footnote * A filled red square appears and a specific aural alert sounds when TCAS delivers a Resolution Advisory (RA). * An RA is provided when the intruders time to the CPA is approximately 25 to 35 seconds. * An RA provides specific visual and aural guidance to vertically maneuver your aircraft to avoid a collision. * You are authorized and required to deviate from an ATC vertical clearance for an RA. * Some RA's are "corrective" and some are "preventive". * A "corrective" RA requires a vertical maneuver by the crew. * A "preventive" RA requires the crew to maintain the current vertical speed.

Answer 365

Runway Awareness and Advisory System ## Footnote A system designed to enhance situational awareness regarding runway conditions.

Answer 366

Rotor Active Clearance Control ## Footnote A system that manages rotor clearance in rotorcraft.

Answer 367

Radio ## Footnote * The VOR course is selected on the NAV RAD page of the MCDU

Answer 368

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring ## Footnote A system that ensures the integrity of satellite signals.

Answer 369

Ram Air Turbine ## Footnote A device that generates power from airflow during flight.

Answer 370

Rudder and Brake Pedal Unit ## Footnote A component that houses the rudder and brake controls in an aircraft.

Answer 371

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix ## Footnote A tool used to assess runway conditions for safety.

Answer 372

Runway Condition Degradation Function ## Footnote A function that describes how runway conditions may deteriorate over time.

Answer 373

Required Communication Performance ## Footnote Standards for communication in aviation operations.

Answer 374

Rear Centre Tank ## Footnote A fuel tank located at the rear of an aircraft.

Answer 375

Reactive ## Footnote Pertaining to a system that responds to changes or inputs.

Answer 376

Recommended ## Footnote Suggesting a course of action that is advisable.

Answer 377

REF ## Footnote Often used to denote a point of reference in aviation.

Answer 378

Release ## Footnote The act of allowing something to be free or available.

Answer 379

Request, Require, Required ## Footnote Terms used to indicate necessity or demand.

Answer 380

Reverse ## Footnote The action of moving backward or in the opposite direction.

Answer 381

Radio Frequency ## Footnote The frequency range of electromagnetic radiation used for communications.

Answer 382

Runway Field Clearance Floor ## Footnote The minimum altitude for operations over a runway field.

Answer 383

Right-Hand ## Footnote Directional term indicating the right side.

Answer 384

Required Landing Distance ## Footnote The distance required for an aircraft to land safely.

Answer 385

Radio Magnetic Indicator ## Footnote A navigation instrument that shows the direction to a radio beacon.

Answer 386

Radio Management Panel ## Footnote * The primary purpose of the RMP is to manage and tune the communication radios * The secondary purpose of the RMP is to manage the tuning and setting of STBY NAV if tuning and setting the NAVAIDS through the FMGS is not available (Backup ILS and VOR tuning is available on the RMP when manual and autotune are inoperative)

Answer 387

Area Navigation ## Footnote * PBN specification that does not require performance monitoring and alterting

Answer 388

Range ## Footnote The distance over which something can operate or be effective.

Answer 389

Required Navigation Performance ## Footnote * RNP specification that requires performance monitoring and alerting

Answer 390

Runway Overrun Protection ## Footnote The Runway Overrun Protection function operates from touchdown until the aircraft comes to a stop.

Answer 391

Runway Overrun Prevention System ## Footnote * ROPS is composed of two functions: Runway Overrun Warning (ROW) and Runway Overrun Protection (ROP) * Both ROW and ROP functions perform real-time DRY runway and WET runway landing distance computations, and compare their results to a runway information database. Here you see a list of the factors considered * If it ever becomes necessary to inhibit the ROPS, the only action required will be to select the TERR switch, on the GPWS panel, to OFF

Answer 392

Runway Overrun Warning ## Footnote * The Runway Overrun Warning function arms at 500 feet AGL and functions until touchdown. * It takes actual aircraft position and runway data and computes wet and dry runway landing distances. Its assumptions are, maximum manual braking, no reverser use on dry runways but maximum reverser use on wet runways.

Answer 393

Residual Pressure Control Unit ## Footnote A component involved in managing pressure within aircraft systems.

Answer 394

Repellent ## Footnote Typically refers to substances used to deter unwanted elements.

Answer 395

Repeating, Reporting ## Footnote A process involving the continuous reporting of data.

Answer 396

Required ## Footnote Indicates something that is mandatory or essential.

Answer 397

Required Surveillance Performance ## Footnote Standards set for monitoring and ensuring safety in aviation.

Answer 398

Reserves ## Footnote Refers to backup resources or supplies.

Answer 399

Reservoir ## Footnote A storage area for fluids, often used in hydraulic systems.

Answer 400

Required Time of Arrival ## Footnote * MCDU performance function (in the VERT REV page) that allows the pilot to select desired arrival time for a given waypoint

Answer 401

Rejected Takeoff

Answer 402

Regulatory Takeoff Weight ## Footnote The maximum weight allowed for an aircraft to take off safely.

Answer 403

Rudder ## Footnote A control surface used to steer an aircraft.

Answer 404

Runway Condition Code ## Footnote A code used to indicate the condition of the runway surface.

Answer 405

Minimum speed for slats to retract safely. ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining aircraft performance during flight transitions.

Answer 406

Step Climb. ## Footnote A procedure where an aircraft climbs to a higher altitude in stages.

Answer 407

Step Descent, Shut Down. ## Footnote This indicates a controlled descent process followed by the shutdown of engines.

Answer 408

Slats/Flaps. ## Footnote * There are 5 Slat surfaces on the leading edge of each wing and 2 Flap sections on the trailing edge * The flap lever, located on the right side of the pedestal, operates the slats and flaps. The flap lever has the following positions: 0, 1, 2, 3 and FULL.

Answer 409

Special Aircrew and Aircraft Authorization Required.

Answer 410

Single Annular Chamber. ## Footnote This is a type of chamber design used in various aircraft systems.

Answer 411

System Address Label. ## Footnote This is used to identify a specific system within an aircraft.

Answer 412

Static Air Temperature. ## Footnote This is the temperature of the air surrounding an aircraft at a specific altitude.

Answer 413

Satellite Communication. ## Footnote This technology enables communication via satellites.

Answer 414

Starter Air Valve. ## Footnote This component is used to control airflow to the engine starter.

Answer 415

Service Bulletin. ## Footnote This is a document issued to inform about maintenance or operational changes.

Answer 416

Satellite Based Augmentation System. ## Footnote This enhances the accuracy of satellite navigation systems.

Answer 417

Single Chime. ## Footnote This typically indicates a single alert or signal within the aircraft systems.

Answer 418

Split Control Unit/Servo Valve Assembly. ## Footnote This is a component used in aircraft control systems.

Answer 419

System Display. ## Footnote This is the interface that shows critical information to the flight crew.

Answer 420

System Data Acquisition Concentrator. ## Footnote This system collects and processes data from various aircraft sensors.

Answer 421

Smoke Detection Control Unit. ## Footnote This system monitors for smoke and fire within an aircraft.

Answer 422

Smoke Detection Function, Simplified Directional Facility ## Footnote SDF is used in fire detection systems to identify smoke presence.

Answer 423

SDU ## Footnote SDU is involved in processing satellite data.

Answer 424

Spoiler Elevator Computer ## Footnote * There are three SECs that provide Spoiler control, and two of the SECs also provide a back-up source for Elevator/Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control.

Answer 425

Selector ## Footnote SEL is a device used to choose between different options or settings.

Answer 426

Selective Calling

Answer 427

Slat/Flap Control Computer ## Footnote * The two SFCCs provide the electrical signals to electrically controlled hydraulic actuators that position the slats and flaps * Each SFCC has two channels, one for the slats and one for the flaps. Each channel can drive its associated surfaces * The flap lever, located on the right side of the pedestal, operates the slats and flaps. The flap lever has the following positions: 0, 1, 2, 3 and FULL.

Answer 428

Slip Indicator ## Footnote SI helps pilots understand the aircraft's orientation in relation to the flight path.

Answer 429

Standard Instrument Departure ## Footnote SID is a predetermined route for aircraft to follow after takeoff.

Answer 430

SBAS Landing System ## Footnote SLS enhances the accuracy of landing approaches using satellite-based augmentation.

Answer 431

Standard Operating Procedure ## Footnote SOP outlines the steps to be followed during specific operations.

Answer 432

Speed ## Footnote SPD is a critical parameter for the operation of an aircraft.

Answer 433

Speed Limit ## Footnote SPD LIM refers to the maximum allowable speed for an aircraft.

Answer 434

Spoiler ## Footnote * There are 5 spoiler panels on each wing. They are controlled by SECs 1, 2, and 3 * The four outboard panels (2, 3, 4, and, 5) are for roll augmentation to assist roll commands * During flight, the 3 center panels on each wing (2, 3, and 4) can be deployed as Speedbrakes by pushing the SPEEDBRAKE handle down and pulling it aft

Answer 435

Squawk ## Footnote SQWK is a term used for the transponder code assigned to an aircraft.

Answer 436

Speed Reference System ## Footnote * SRS is the normal pitch mode for takeoff. It provides pitch guidance until another pitch mode is active * The takeoff speed target is V2, or the current speed if it is higher but no more than V2 +15 * Normal SRS will also limit the pitch to +18° causing the aircraft to accelerate to a speed greater than V2 + 10 Note: an active windshear warning will allow the SRS guidance to increase pitch to +22.5°. * The magenta triangle indicates V2 in all cases. * The GO Around speed target is VAPP, or the current speed if higher, limited to VLS +15 kt

Answer 437

Standard Terminal Arrival Route ## Footnote STAR is a predefined route for aircraft to follow when approaching an airport.

Answer 438

Static ## Footnote STAT can indicate a state of being stationary or unchanging.

Answer 439

Static Inverter ## Footnote STAT INV converts direct current to alternating current in aircraft systems.

Answer 440

Standby ## Footnote STBY indicates a mode where systems are ready for activation.

Answer 441

Standard ## Footnote STD refers to established norms or guidelines in aviation.

Answer 442

Steering ## Footnote STRG involves controlling the direction of the aircraft.

Answer 443

Status ## Footnote STS provides information about the current state of a system.

Answer 444

Surface Alerting Function ## Footnote SURF-A alerts pilots to surface-related issues.

Answer 445

Surveillance ## Footnote SURV encompasses monitoring and tracking of aircraft.

Answer 446

sw ## Footnote sw is a component that controls electrical circuits.

Answer 447

Switching ## Footnote SWTG involves changing from one state to another in systems.

Answer 448

System ## Footnote SYS refers to a set of interconnected components working together.

Answer 449

Top of Climb ## Footnote Refers to the altitude at which an aircraft reaches its maximum climb performance.

Answer 450

Top of Descent ## Footnote Indicates the altitude at which an aircraft begins its descent towards landing.

Answer 451

Takeoff ## Footnote The phase of flight where an aircraft leaves the ground.

Answer 452

Traffic and Terrain Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote A system designed to prevent mid-air collisions and terrain impacts.

Answer 453

Traffic and Terrain Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote Similar to T2CAS, it enhances safety by providing alerts for traffic and terrain.

Answer 454

Traffic Adivsory ## Footnote * Denoted by an amber circle on the ND and an aural alert * Provided when the intruders time to the CPA is approximately 35 to 45 seconds * Does not provide guidance, but only alerts the crew to attempt to visually locate the intruder * Crews are not authorized to deviate from an ATC vertical clearance for a TA.

Answer 455

Temporary Abnormal Behavior ## Footnote A designation for aircraft systems exhibiting unusual behavior that is not permanent.

Answer 456

Taxiing Aid Camera ## Footnote A camera system used to assist pilots during taxi operations.

Answer 457

Tactical Air Navigation ## Footnote A navigation system that provides distance and bearing information to pilots.

Answer 458

Terrain Awareness Display ## Footnote * EGPWS visual alerts are provided by a Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) that paints density dot patterns of green, amber, or red on the ND in all modes except PLAN. * Each color and the dot density identifies the threat level of the terrain * The TAD does not display in the PLAN mode * If the PLAN mode is active when a TAD alert occurs, the message "TERR: CHANGE MODE" appears on the PLAN display in red or amber to match the level of the TAD alert

Answer 459

True Air Speed

Answer 460

Total Air Temperature ## Footnote * If temperature is measured by means of a sensor positioned in the airflow, kinetic heating will result, raising the temperature measured above the OAT. * The temperature measured in this way is known as the Total Air Temperature (TAT) and is used in ADCs to calculate True Airspeed (TAS). Careful design and siting of the TAT probe is necessary to ensure accurate measurement of TAT.

Answer 461

Time to intercept

Answer 462

Terrain Awareness and Warning System

Answer 463

To Be Determined

Answer 464

Transient Bleed Valve

Answer 465

Turbine Cooling Air

Answer 466

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote * TCAS II provides vertical separation Traffic Advisories or Resolution Advisories, but not horizontal * TCAS operates on the principle of delivered and received transponder signals. * The surveillance boundary range is anywhere from 30 to 100 nautical miles horizontally and 9,900ft above and below

Answer 467

Turbine Case Cooling

Answer 468

Terrain Clearance Floor ## Footnote * Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) Alerts are installed to prevent landing short of the runway. * The EGPWS creates a computerized "floor" on approach to these runways for which the aircraft should not fly below during the descent for landing. * If the aircraft penetrates this "floor", the GPWS light illuminates and the aural alert "TOO LOW TERRAIN, TOO LOW TERRAIN" sounds.

Answer 469

Thrust Control Malfunction

Answer 470

Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation ## Footnote * The FADEC has a feature called Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA) * This feature protects against uncontrollable high thrust during critical phases of flight * In flight, if excessive thrust is detected, TCMA initiates a fuel flow reduction. * On the ground if excessive thrust is detected, TCMA will shut down the engine.

Answer 471

Temporary Documentary Unit

Answer 472

Temperature

Answer 473

Flexible Temperature

Answer 474

Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer ## Footnote * THS control is provided by the ELACS, and backup control is provided by two of the SECs * The pitch control surfaces are two elevators and a Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) controlled by ELAC 2. * The THS is automatically positioned by ELAC 2 to allow the elevators to return to neutral after a change in pitch attitude, the THS can also be manually trimmed using the Pitch Trim Wheel. * If ELAC 2 is not controlling pitch (when there is a computer or hydraulic failures), the system shifts pitch control to ELAC 1. If neither ELAC1 nor ELAC2 is available, the system shifts pitch control either to SEC1 or to SEC2, (depending on the status of the associated circuits). * Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time, if either the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning. Mechanical control from the pitch trim wheel has priority over electrical control.

Answer 475

Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer Actuator

Answer 476

Tank, Track

Answer 477

Throttle Lever Angle

Answer 478

Taxiway Landing Monitor

Answer 479

Travel Limitation Unit

Answer 480

Table of Contents

Answer 481

Takeoff Distance

Answer 482

Takeoff Distance Available

Answer 483

Takeoff - Go-Around

Answer 484

Takeoff Run

Answer 485

Takeoff Run Available

Answer 486

Takeoff Surveillance

Answer 487

Takeoff Weight

Answer 488

Turn Point

Answer 489

Tire Pressure Indicating System

Answer 490

Transformer Rectifier

Answer 491

Traffic ## Footnote TRAF is commonly used in aviation and transportation contexts.

Answer 492

Transition ## Footnote TRANS may refer to a change or phase in various processes.

Answer 493

Flat Rating Temperature ## Footnote TREF is often used in engineering and environmental studies.

Answer 494

TRK ## Footnote TRK is used in navigation and mapping.

Answer 495

Tropopause ## Footnote The tropopause is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere in the atmosphere.

Answer 496

Transformer Rectifier Unit ## Footnote TRUs are used in power supply systems.

Answer 497

Travel ## Footnote TRV is often used in contexts related to journeys or trips.

Answer 498

Trouble Shooting Manual ## Footnote TSMs are essential for diagnosing and fixing issues in systems.

Answer 499

Time to Go ## Footnote TTG is often used in scheduling and operational contexts.

Answer 500

TVMC ## Footnote TVMC is relevant in aviation performance calculations.

Answer 501

Taxiway ## Footnote TWYs are paths for aircraft to move on the ground.

Answer 502

Unlock ## Footnote UNLK is often used in technology and security contexts to indicate the action of unlocking a device or feature.

Answer 503

Up, Upper ## Footnote UP is commonly used in navigation or orientation to indicate direction or position.

Answer 504

Universal Serial Bus ## Footnote USB is a standard for connecting peripherals to a computer or other devices.

Answer 505

Universal Coordinated Time ## Footnote UTC is the time standard that is the basis for civil timekeeping worldwide.

Answer 506

Vertical Deviation ## Footnote Refers to the difference between the actual altitude and the desired altitude.

Answer 507

Vertical Speed ## Footnote Indicates the rate of altitude change in feet per minute.

Answer 508

Decision Speed ## Footnote The speed at which a pilot must decide whether to continue takeoff or abort.

Answer 509

Takeoff Safety Speed ## Footnote The minimum speed at which an aircraft can safely climb after takeoff.

Answer 510

Approach Speed ## Footnote * The VAPP symbol is a function of present aircraft GW and wind. * VAPP is shown on the speed tape by a magenta triangle; If it is off scale, it is represented in digital format in the lower speed scale margin.

Answer 511

Alpha Protection Speed ## Footnote * The speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection becomes active in Normal Law * The top of the black and amber strip that indicates V(aPROT)

Answer 512

Variable Bypass Valve ## Footnote A component that helps control airflow in engines.

Answer 513

Calibrated airspeed ## Footnote The indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error.

Answer 514

Vertical Deviation ## Footnote * The magenta VDEV symbol indicates the aircraft vertical position in relation to the FMGC desired vertical profile * The symbol range is +/- 500 feet and can be referenced to the barometric altitude scale * If VDEV is above 500 feet, the symbol displays at the range limit and the actual VDEV value can be found on the PROG page of the MCDU.

Answer 515

VHF Datalink ## Footnote A communication system that allows data transmission between aircraft and ground stations.

Answer 516

Vertical ## Footnote Used to describe a direction or position related to altitude.

Answer 517

Vertical Revision ## Footnote Indicates an update or change in vertical data or navigation.

Answer 518

Maximum Speed for each Flap configuration

Answer 519

Final Takeoff Speed ## Footnote The speed at which the aircraft is fully configured for takeoff.

Answer 520

Vibration ## Footnote Refers to oscillations that can affect aircraft performance.

Answer 521

Vertical Intersection Point ## Footnote A designated point where vertical flight paths intersect.

Answer 522

Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed ## Footnote The highest speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended.

Answer 523

Lowest Selectable Speed ## Footnote * The lowest selectable speed with autothrust on * Provides an appropriate margin to stall speed * Represented on the speed tape by the top of the amber strip

Answer 524

Maneuvering Speed ## Footnote The speed at which an aircraft can be safely maneuvered without stalling.

Answer 525

Maximum Allowable Speed ## Footnote Refers to the highest speed that an aircraft is permitted to operate.

Answer 526

Visual Meteorological Conditions ## Footnote Conditions under which pilots can operate an aircraft with visual reference to the ground.

Answer 527

Minimum Control Speed in the Air ## Footnote The minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled in flight with one engine inoperative.

Answer 528

Minimum Control Speed on Ground ## Footnote The minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled on the ground with one engine inoperative.

Answer 529

Minimum Control Speed at Landing ## Footnote The minimum speed at which the aircraft can be controlled during landing with one engine inoperative.

Answer 530

Minimum Operating Speed ## Footnote The lowest speed at which the aircraft can be safely operated.

Answer 531

Maximum Operating Speed ## Footnote The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown.

Answer 532

Minimum Unstick Speed ## Footnote The minimum speed at which an aircraft can safely lift off from the ground.

Answer 533

Vertical Navigation ## Footnote A system that allows pilots to manage the vertical profile of the flight.

Answer 534

VHF Omnidirectional Range ## Footnote A type of radio navigation system for aircraft.

Answer 535

VOR-DME ## Footnote VOR with Distance Measuring Equipment, which provides both direction and distance information.

Answer 536

Rotation Speed ## Footnote The speed at which the aircraft is rotated for takeoff.

Answer 537

Landing Reference Speed ## Footnote The reference speed used for landing calculations.

Answer 538

Reference Stalling Speed ## Footnote The speed at which an aircraft is at risk of stalling.

Answer 539

Stall Speed at 1g load factor ## Footnote The stall speed of an aircraft when it is experiencing a load factor of 1g.

Answer 540

Vacuum System Controller ## Footnote A system that manages the vacuum pressure in aircraft systems.

Answer 541

Vertical Speed Indicator ## Footnote An instrument that indicates whether the aircraft is climbing or descending.

Answer 542

Variable Stator Vane ## Footnote A component in some engines that helps optimize airflow.

Answer 543

Stall Warning Speed ## Footnote * Displayed on the speed tape by the top of a red and black strip (in Pitch Alternate or Pitch Direct law)

Answer 544

Visual Unit, Virtual Unit ## Footnote Refers to units used for visual displays in aircraft systems.

Answer 545

Wind Shear

Answer 546

Wing Anti-Ice

Answer 547

Weight and Balance Computer

Answer 548

Weight and Balance System

Answer 549

Warning Display

Answer 550

Window Heat Computer ## Footnote * Two independent Window Heat Computers (WHCs), one on each side, automatically regulate the system, protect it against overheating, and indicate faults.

Answer 551

Windshield

Answer 552

Wing Tip Brake ## Footnote * The Slats and Flaps are equipped with WTBs that will stop their operation when certain conditions have been detected * Conditions include asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway, or uncommanded movement * When a WTB is activated, the associated slat or flap cannot be operated for the remainder of the flight. * Note: If only a Flap WTB is on, the Slats will still operate; or, if only a Slat WTB is on, the Flaps will still operate.

Answer 553

Weather Radar

Answer 554

Transfer ## Footnote * E.G. Used for ECAM/ND XFR control

Answer 555

x Landing System (e.g. ILS, GLS, ...) ## Footnote XLS is used to denote various landing systems such as Instrument Landing System (ILS) and Ground-Based Landing System (GLS) that assist aircraft during landing.

Answer 556

Transponder ## Footnote XPDR is an abbreviation for transponder, which is a device used in aviation to transmit information about an aircraft's position and altitude.

Answer 557

Transponder ## Footnote XPNDR is an alternative abbreviation for transponder, similar to XPDR.

Answer 558

Crosstrack Error ## Footnote XTK indicates the lateral deviation of an aircraft from its intended flight path.

Answer 559

Zero Fuel Center of Gravity

Answer 560

Zero Fuel Weight

Answer 561

Zero Fuel Weight Center of Gravity field

FCOM Abbreviations & Acronyms Flashcards

(698 cards)