GI Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What 2 types of hepatitis are transmitted via fecal/oral route?

A

A and E

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2
Q

What 2 types of hepatitis are usually found together?

A

B and D

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3
Q

Which of the following profiles is consistent with immunity to hep B secondary to vaccination?

A

hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) will be negative,

anti-hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) will be positive.

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4
Q

What is the bx finding associated with Barrett esophagus?

A

Chronic GERD changes the cellular makeup of the distal esophagus from stratified squamous epithelium to columnar-lined epithelium with goblet cells and is diagnosed via endoscopy with biopsy.

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5
Q

Which type of hepatitis is associated with cirrhosis?

A

Hep C

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6
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Full thickness tear of the esophagus usually to severe vomiting

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7
Q

What is quadruple therapy for H pylori infection? When is it indicate?

A

bismuth subsalicylate 300 mg four times daily

metronidazole 250 mg four times daily

tetracycline 500 mg four times daily

omeprazole
______

recent macrolide use or increased local resistance to macrolides

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8
Q

What is the triple therapy for H pylori?

A

clarithromycin
amoxicllin (metro if allergy to PCN)
omeprazole

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9
Q

What are the 3 Ds associated with niacin (b3) deficiency?

A

dermatitis
diarrhea
dementia

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10
Q

What type of hepatitis is associated with immune complex phenomena leading to arthritis, glomerulonephritis and vasculitis?

A

Hep B

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11
Q

ascites albumin gradient is a specific test that is used for confirming the presence of ______

A

portal hypertension

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12
Q

carcinoid tumors secrete ______ and will need to be followed with _____ levels

A

serotonin

5HIAA levels

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13
Q

retrocardiac air-fluid level should make you think of what dx?

A

sliding hiatal hernia

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14
Q

Rice water diarrhea, what dx? What treatment?

A

cholera

doxy or cipro

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15
Q

What is the tx for cholera for preg pts?

A

azithro

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16
Q

What are the alarm symptoms for gastrointestinal disorders that require evaluation with esophagogastroduodenoscopy?

A

Dysphagia, odynophagia, weight loss, blood in stool, anemia, age > 40–50 years, and chronic symptoms without a diagnosis

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17
Q

Zenker diverticulum is a rare herniation of the mucosal and submucosal layers of the esophagus in the _____, a weak point defined on the sides by the bilateral _________ muscles and at the base by the _______ muscle

A

Killian triangle

inferior pharyngeal constrictor

cricopharyngeal

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18
Q

Which histopathologic term is commonly used to describe a gastric malignant cell?

A

Signet ring cell, which may also be found in other gastrointestinal, genital, and breast cancers

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19
Q

The oncologist makes a note of a positive Trousseau syndrome in the documentation. Which of the following is she referring to?

A

tender migratory thrombophlebitis

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20
Q

What is the MC type of pancreatic cancer? What is the classic presentation?

A

adenocarcinoma

painless jaundice

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21
Q

_______ is the MC cause of inherited colorectal cancer

A

Lynch syndrome

22
Q

Lynch syndrome causes predominantly ______ tumors. Describe them.

A

right-sided

adenomas tend to be larger, flatter, and more proximal; progression to carcinoma occurs more rapidly; and there is a higher risk of synchronous or metachronous colorectal cancers

23
Q

________ is required for definitive diagnosis of Lynch syndrome

A

Pathogenic germline mutations in the mismatch repair or EPCAM gene

24
Q

What is the screening recommendations for pts with Lynch syndrome?

A

perform an annual or biannual colonoscopy beginning at the earliest of the following two options: age 20–25 years or 2–5 years prior to the earliest age of colorectal cancer in the family

25
Lynch syndrome is strongly associated with cancer in what 2 organs?
colorectal and endometrial
26
_______ is a rare an inherited disorder leading to severe elevated unconjugated bilirubin
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
27
______ is a liver disease with decreased conjugation of bilirubin, leading to mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels in the serum
Gilbert syndrome normal LFTs with mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin
28
________ is impaired conjugated bilirubin excretion due to defective MRP2 transporter which leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
29
What population group should be screened for Hep C?
people aged 18-79 years old
30
Anal fissures that occur in conjunction with Crohns dz and likely to be located _______
lateral anal fissure
31
What is important to note about this xray? What is the likely dx?
likely adenocarcinoma of the colon pt is likely to present with constipation, obstructive symptoms or rectal bleeding
32
________ pathogen is associated with colon malignancy, especially right-colon cancer
Strep bovis
33
Which H2 receptor antagonist has the most SEs? including change in bowel habits, increased HA, dizziness, skin rashes, loss of libido and gynecomastia
cimetidine
34
________ is the most concerning complication of TIPS procedure
hepatic encephalopathy
35
_______ is the tx of choice for perianal fistula due to crohns
metro
36
What blood type is associated with increased gastric ulceration risk?
type A
37
_______ occurs within 2 weeks of exposure to hep A and prior to the development of antibodies
fecal shedding of HAV
38
What type of hep may be associated with immune complex conditions leading to arthritis and glomerulonephritis
hep B
39
________ causes "thumbprinting" on barium enema from the edematous mucosal fold
mesenteric ischemia
40
What lab value is considered diagnostic for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
A peritoneal fluid absolute neutrophil count > 250 cells/µL
41
What is the MOA behind acute gastroenteritis?
reduced absorption of electrolytes across the intestinal epithelium, as well as increased secretion of electrolytes due to the action of viral or bacterial toxins on sodium, potassium, chloride, and calcium channels in the intestinal wall.
42
The _______, when positive= which indicates a retrocecal location of the appendix,
psoas sign
43
Erythema and absence of rugal folds are endoscopic findings associated with what dx?
gastritis
44
The most common initial presenting symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is?
pruritis
45
_______ is the most significant risk factor for the development of pancreatic cancer
Cigarette smoking
46
______ used in the maintenance treatment of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis
Oral mesalamine
47
What gastrointestinal structure is associated with the highest mortality if it perforates?
esophagus
48
What area of the colon is most likely to be affected by ischemic colitis?
splenic flexure This portion of the colon is supplied by the marginal artery of Drummond, which is the communication point between the SMA and IMA. This area of the large intestine is prone to ischemia due to the artery’s small caliber and potential lack of vasa recta along this portion of the colon.
49
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in adult patients?
biliary tract pathology The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is biliary tract pathology (e.g., gallstones), which account for 35–75% of cases. Alcohol consumption accounts for 25–35% of cases.
50
What are the preferred IRON chelation agents?
Currently, deferasirox is the preferred iron chelator for chronic iron overload since it has been shown to be similar in efficacy to other iron chelators and is associated with better patient adherence since it is administered orally once daily.
51