Hem Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

What is the pathophys behind anemia of chronic disease? especially _______

A

The underlying pathophysiology involves inflammatory cytokine-mediated suppression of red blood cell production through increased hepcidin production, resulting in impaired iron availability that reduces both erythropoietin production and bone marrow responsiveness to erythropoietin.

think chronic inflammatory conditions especially CKD

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2
Q

What component of a CBC with help you differentiate between iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia?

A

Red blood cell distribution width (RDW)

The RDW is usually increased in iron deficiency and within normal range in thalassemia.

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3
Q

What hem disorder can be assessed by running a ristocetin assay?

A

von willebrand

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4
Q

What test will appropriately determine the correct amount of RhoGam that should be given?

A

Kleihauer-Betke test

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5
Q

What seizure med is known to cause aplastic anemia?

A

carbamazepine

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6
Q

macrocytic anemia and caused by phenytoin, methotrexate or bactrim. What vitamin do you need to supplement?

A

folic acid

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7
Q

cobalamin is what vitamin?

A

vit B12

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8
Q

What is the treatment of choice for patients with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

A

plasmapheresis and fresh frozen plasma infusions

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9
Q

What does a positive direct Coombs test indicate?

A

strongly suggests the presence of an AUTOIMMUNE hemolytic anemia

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10
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

immunodeficiency

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11
Q

minimal change disease when seen in adults is associated with what 3 types of cancer?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma
non-Hodgkin lymphomas
leukemia

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12
Q

What should you order to confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

A

presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin on serum protein electrophoresis and bone marrow biopsy

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13
Q

What test can be done to confirm the presence of spherocytes in the blood?

A

osmotic gradient ektacytometry test, which uses a laser diffraction viscometer to increase osmolality and detect deformability of RBCs.

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14
Q

Hem A and B will have what abnormal lab finding?

A

abnormal aPTT

both part of the intrinsic pathway

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15
Q

ADAMTS13 deficiency should make you think of what dx?

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

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16
Q

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, acute kidney injury, and severe neurologic findings, should make you think of what dx?

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

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17
Q

Define a neutropenic fever

A

as a single oral temperature of 101°F or a temperature of 100.4°F sustained over a 1-hour period in a patient with a decreased absolute neutrophil count (ANC)

18
Q

define neutropenia

A

Neutropenia is defined as an ANC < 1,000–1,5000/µL, severe neutropenia is defined as an ANC measured at or expected to drop to < 500/µL, and profound neutropenia is defined as an ANC < 100/µL.

19
Q

When is the nadir in an absolute neutrophil count likely to occur after chemotherapy?

A

7-14 days after chemo

20
Q

What serum blood test helps determine the degree of hemolysis?

21
Q

What dx is Howell-Jolly bodies associated with? What does there presence signify?

A

sickle cell anemia

a damaged or absent spleen

22
Q

Which type of hemoglobin is a powerful modulator of the symptoms of sickle cell anemia?

23
Q

What is important to remember about fondaparinux?

A

subcutaneous direct-acting anticoagulant

(like Eliquis/Xarelto but subq)

24
Q

What is important to remember about enoxaparin?

A

it is a low-molecular weight heparin

do NOT use in HIT

25
Pt who experience HIT and still need anticoagulation, what 2 medications should be used?
Argatroban and bivalirudin are direct thrombin inhibitors that require intravenous administration, have a short half-life,
26
What is the underlying cause of HIT?
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is caused by IgG antibodies recognizing antigens on platelet factor 4, creating an immune complex that, when activated, alters endothelial cells, activates platelets and monocytes, and increases thrombin generation.
27
What diagnostic study should be ordered for a patient taking chloroquine who presents with a new onset of fatigue and anemia?
G6PD deficiency
28
Blood smear shows enlarged erythrocytes that have enlarged central pale areas. Some of the neutrophils have hypersegmented nuclei. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
Vit b12 deficiency
29
Why should a mixing study of patient and control plasma be performed in patients with suspected hemophilia A with prolonged PTT values?
To identify patients with acquired factor VIII deficiencies due to autoantibodies, as mixing patient and control plasma corrects the PTT in those with inherited hemophilia A but not in those with acquired deficiencies
30
Which of the following types of hemoglobin does hydroxyurea increase?
hemoglobin F
31
What 2 abx are most likely to trigger jaundice in a pt with G6PD deficiency?
**nitro <- this one is the big one them bactrim
32
laboratory findings include a median white blood count of 150,000/µL and peripheral blood showing a left-shifted myeloid series. What dx?
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
33
What translocation is CML?
a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22.
34
What is the most common hematologic manifestation in the patient with chronic alcohol use?
macrocytosis
35
What is a known complication of long-term heparin use?
osteoporosis
36
What anti-lipid agents are most effective in raising the HDL cholesterol?
niacin
37
What lab value when elevated in a pt with Non-Hodgkin lymphomas is associated with a worse prognosis?
LDH elevated above the reference range is associated with a worse prognosis
38
What type of anemia will hypersegmented neutrophils be reported on the blood smear?
vit B12 def
39
Describe wet purpura
Wet purpura is consistent with thrombocytopenia. Wet purpura refers to purpura that occurs on a mucosal surface. Patients will commonly refer to these as blood blisters. Wet purpura is a sign of more serious bleeding, as platelet counts are typically low in order for wet purpura to occur.
40
Would the platelet count, prothrombin time, and activated partial thromboplastin time be elevated, normal or low in a pt with von Willebrand disease?
all will be normal normal platelets, normal prothrombin time and normal activated partial thromboplastin time
41