JSS Procedures Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

How should the ground altimetry check be performed?

A

The elevation for your current bay should be obtained from the aerodrome charts. Compare this to the altimeters set with QNH. Both PFD must be within 60’ of the elevation (more than 60 but up to 75, one sector can be flown). Maximum difference between PFDs is 20’. Maximum difference between PFD and ISIS/STBY is 100/300.

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2
Q

What is the latest point you can be established on the vertical path on approach?

A

The FAF

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3
Q

When conducting an approach in selected mode (eg FPA), what is the maximum FPA that may be flown?

A

–4°

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4
Q

What is the JQ aircraft separation guide distances?

A

10/10/1
10 mins, 10 nm, 1(000) feet

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5
Q

What are the aircraft light requirements in class G and class E airspace?

A

Landing lights ON

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6
Q

In a low visibility scenario or any situation where you cannot see the whole runway length at a non-towered aerdodrome, what can you do to ensure the runway is clear?

A

Backtrack the whole runway.

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7
Q

What are the speed limits when operating at a non-towered aerodrome?
(Arrival and departure)

A

Arrival: within 10nm max speed is clean green dot

Departure: max speed is clean green dot until above the MSA

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8
Q

What is the NADP2 technique?

A

800/800 then green dot plus 10 kts up to 3000’ HAA

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9
Q

From an AWIS, how can we determine what constitutes HEAVY rain and what performance calculation is required to land in that case?

A

2ml or greater in the last 10 mins. Must do a landing calculation for RWYCC 2.

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10
Q

When is the earliest time to obtain a QNH for an instrument approach at a CTAF?

A

15 minutes before landing

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11
Q

What is the RAISE model?

A

Relay information
Ask a question
I think we should…
Solution statement
Emergency statement

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12
Q

How is ATIS/AWIS information independently verified?

A

By listening to it separately.

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13
Q

What is the general policy for use of brake fans?

A

Departure: after pushback, if you see the wheel green arc come on, turn them on, and turn them off for takeoff.
Arrival: 5 mins or arriving on to the bay, whichever is first.

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14
Q

What is my initial landing wind/distance limits for being PF?

A

30 knots normally.
20 knots until finished 2 cyclics, 12 months line ops, and the max crosswind sim training.

Maximum 1700m LDA.

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15
Q

What reverse usage is required on WET runways?

A

Full reverse.

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16
Q

What are the sterile flight deck times (departure and arrival)?

A

Departure: last door closed until seatbelt sign off.
Arrival: transition until on the bay.

17
Q

What are the altitude limitations in RVSM airspace?

A
  • Don’t overshoot assigned altitude by more than 150’
  • Every hour, a cross check of the altimeters should have 2 within 200’
  • Any altitude reading an error of more than 300’ results in negative RVSM
  • Airbus specifies a lower difference between altimeters of as low as 130’ depending on which ones are being compared
18
Q

If required, how low below minimum manoeuvring speed can you go?

19
Q

When must the EFB be stowed?

A

From takeoff to 400’ and then 400’ to taxi speed or 400’ following a go around

20
Q

How long after APU AVAIL can you turn on APU BLEED?

21
Q

What vis and cloud ceiling must the PF be the CPT?

A

Vis within 2000m and cloud base within 200’ of minima

22
Q

What needs to happen after a broken shear pin?

A

Engineering inspection required before the aircraft can be moved. Then it needs to go back on to the bay to have engineering sign off.

23
Q

What is the lowest height you can turn after takeoff (unless following a departure procedure)?

24
Q

What is the NADP2 procedure?

A

800/800 then green dot -0/+10 up to 3000’ HAA

25
What are the thrust reduction and acceleration altitudes set to? When might you raise the acceleration altitude?
800/800 Might raise the acceleration altitudes set when: - there are speed restrictions below green dot - climb gradient exceeds 6% - wind shear or turbulence expected - local procedures specify NADP1 or higher acceleration altitude - tactically to make a crossing height etc
26
What are the thrust reduction and acceleration altitudes for approach?
VMC: 1000’/1500’ IMC: 1500’/missed approach altitude or MSA
27
What are the maximum descent rates?
Below FL200: - 5000 fpm down to 5000’ AGL - 3000 fpm down to 3000’ AGL - 2000 fpm down to 1000’ AGL -1000 fpm below 1000’ AGL
28
What slope guidance should be used for visual approaches?
1. ILS/GLS or other slope guidance 2. Otherwise from 1000’ to 300’ use PAPI 3. Below 300’ the priority is a visual approach path to the second marker
29
Is visual approach slope guidance required at an alternate/adequate airport?
No
30
Can RNP approaches be flown with AP on below the minima?
Yes if coded to the runway, visual, in FINAL APP mode, and not offset
31
What are your actions when as PM you are commanded “flight directors off”?
Turn both flight directors off, ensure SPEED mode and call “both FD off”
32
What is the stable approach criteria?
1000’ HAA: - Established on the lateral and vertical track with minimal changes to maintain - Landing configuration - Appropriate thrust - Sink rate no more than -1,000 fpm - Briefings complete 500’ HAA: - Speed -5/+10 kts - Landing checklist complete
33
When is FLAPS 3 landing generally used?
It is the preferred configuration if environment and landing performance allows. It is also recommended if wind shear is a threat.
34
If parking with flaps/slats extended, what must you make sure of?
Do not turn off the ADIRS.
35
What are the instrument approach call-outs and associated deviations?
SPEED: -5/+10 kts SINK RATE: exceeding -1,000 fpm BANK: +7.0° (30° in AR) PITCH: -2.5°/+10° LOC/GLIDE: 1/2 dot CROSSTRACK: more than 0.1 V/DEV: 1/2 dot COURSE: 1/2 dot or 2.5° (VOR), 5° (NDB) ____FT HIGH/LOW: at altitude check points
36
What are the landing call-outs and deviations?
PITCH PITCH: 7° (321), 10° (320) BANK: 7°
37
What are the go around call-outs and deviations?
BANK: 7° PITCH PITCH: +20°\less than 10° SINK RATE: if no climb