MidtermTestsCombineALL Flashcards by G Holland

“Universally held values that never change,” is which foundational characteristic of quality law enforcement?

A. Values
B. Morals
C. Principles
D. Ethics

Question 1 - EXAM1

C. Principles

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A set of standards that define right from wrong,” is which foundational characteristic of quality law enforcement?

A. Values
B. Morals
C. Principles
D. Ethics

Question 2 - EXAM1

B. Morals

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According to the Six Pillars of Character, Trustworthiness is defined as:
A. Letting people know that they are important and worthy simply because they are human beings
B. Honesty, integrity, promise-keeping, loyalty, avoidance of stealing, cheating
C. Concern for others, compassion, empathy, kindness, charity
D. Concern with actions, process, and consequences that are morally right, honorable, and equitable

Question 3 - EXAM1

B. Honesty, integrity, promise-keeping, loyalty, avoidance of stealing, cheating

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Which is true regarding the Lautenberg Amendment?

A. Law Enforcement officials are prohibited from carrying firearms if they are convicted of certain misdemeanor crimes of domestic violence
B. Its prohibitions relating to domestic violence offenses apply to felony offenses
C. Its prohibitions include a government exemption for military personnel
D. The law imposes a minimum twenty year ban on the person shipping, receiving, or possessing firearms

Question 4 - EXAM1

A. Law Enforcement officials are prohibited from carrying firearms if they are convicted of certain misdemeanor crimes of domestic violence

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Regarding corruption: over time, officers can develop _ that lead to poor judgement:

A. Genuine Sympathy
B. Poor Performance
C. Bad Habits
D. Negative Attitudes

Question 5 - EXAM1

C. Bad Habits

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Which of the following are vital for the body to work efficiently, can be over consumed and have toxic levels, and may not be found in processed foods?

A. Proteins
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins/Minerals

Question 6 - EXAM1

D. Vitamins/Minerals

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A descriptor of the DISTRESS type of stress includes:
A. The body self regulates cortisol levels
B. Occurs during exposure to an intense situation
C. Happens during a positive outcome of an experience
D. Released during exercise

Question 7 - EXAM1

B. Occurs during exposure to an intense situation

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Stress that is worry about what might happen is called:

A. Chronic Stress
B. Past Stress
C. Current Stress
D. Future Stress

Question 8 - EXAM1

D. Future Stress

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**Stress can cause all of the following long term effects on the body EXCEPT: **
A. Weight Loss
B. Weakened Immune System
C. Cardiovascular Disease
D. Brain Atrophy

Question 9 - EXAM1

A. Weight Loss

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A Law Enforcement officer is 25 times more likely to die from cardiovascular disease than from the action of a suspect.

A. True
B. False

Question 10 - EXAM1

A. True

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A symptom of short term stress can include:

A. Absenteeism
B. Substance abuse problems
C. Anxiety and depression
D. All of the above are correct

Question 11 - EXAM1

D. All of the above are correct

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Positive stress management can include:

A. Meditation
B. Intermittent physical activity
C. Close connection with friends
D. All of the above are correct

Question 12 - EXAM1

D. All of the above are correct

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Which of the following is a reason for producing properly documented police reports?

A. Document events
B. Communicate police activity
C. Identify areas necessary for follow up by other entities
D. All of the above are correct

Question 13 - EXAM1

D. All of the above are correct

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A police report has which of the following uses?

A. To record officer’s daily activity for supervisors
B. As the law enforcement officer’s official court testimony
C. As a charging document
D. Both B and C are correct

Question 14 - EXAM1

D. Both B and C are correct

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A police report should ALWAYS contain conclusions from the police officer concerning the event.

A. True
B. False

Question 16 - EXAM1

B. False

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Which of the following are important identifying characteristics to note in a police report?

A. Scars, marks, tattoos
B. Race/ethnicity
C. Disability, prosthetics, amputations
D. All of the above are correct

Question 15 - EXAM1

D. All of the above are correct

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Field notes can be discoverable in court.

A. True
B. False

Question 17 - EXAM1

A. True

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When an officer is absolutely certain a suspect is guilty, the written report should include:

A. Words that reflect emotion regarding the guilt
B. A list of the officer’s assumptions on the suspect’s guilt
C. A list of the facts
D. All of the above are correct

Question 18 - EXAM1

C. A list of the facts

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Which of the following is NOT a key element/structure in a police report?

A. Record all relevant facts and strive for accuracy
B. Element headers/templates
C. Create a timeline of events
D. Use complete sentences

Question 19 - EXAM1

B. Element headers/templates

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When describing property involved in the incident, it is important to include:

A. An “accurate” value
B. A complete description
C. A sketch if a photograph is not available
D. All of the above are correct

Question 20 - EXAM1

D. All of the above are correct

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According to Tennessee v Garner, the determinative issue is whether a suspect poses a threat of death or serious physical injury. As such, the court stated that officers must:

A. Wait for a gun to be pointed at them before using deadly force
B. Officers can respond to a threat of violence, rather than the violence itself
C. Officer have to wait for the violence to start before they can respond
D. Officers cannot respond to the threat of violence first

Question 21 - EXAM1

B. Officers can respond to a threat of violence, rather than the violence itself

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**In Graham v Connor the courts made clear what the standards for determining if force was reasonable were. Regarding the actual application of force, which statement is true?
**
* A. The force must be objectively reasonable, but not the most prudent
* B. The force must be objectively unreasonable, and the most prudent
* C. The force may be objectively reasonable, and the most prudent
* D. The force used does not have to be objectively reasonable, nor the most prudent

Question 22 - EXAM1

A. The force must be objectively reasonable, but not the most prudent

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A baton, which is classified by the courts as an intermediate weapon, can be used to gently push a protestor, as well as being used to strike a protestor?

A. True
B. False

Question 23 - EXAM1

A. True

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Which of the following statements is a correct statement concerning issuance of a warning?

A. A warning must always be issued before any force is used
B. A warning may not always be feasible, in tense, uncertain, rapidly evolving situations
C. A warning is always feasible, regardless of the nature of the situation
D. A warning does not add to the reasonableness of any use of force

Question 24 - EXAM1

B. A warning may not always be feasible, in tense, uncertain, rapidly evolving situations

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**Under Due Process Rights, custody creates duty. Select the best statement related to your responsibilities to a suspect you've arrested.** * A. You can be held liable if you are aware of facts from which inference could be drawn that a substantial risk of harm exists * B. You cannot be held liable if you are indifferent to a suspect's sufficiently serious medical needs * C. Absent custody, or other special relationship, you have a constitutional duty to provide care to someone * D. You have no legal obligation to care for a suspect ## Footnote Question 25 - EXAM1

A. You can be held liable if you are aware of facts from which inference could be drawn that a substantial risk of harm exists

**If the application of deadly force is reasonable,** * A. The implement (weapon) used against the suspect is of no consequence * B. The degree of injury sustained by the suspect is a matter of importance * C. That shooting a suspect in the back is illegal * D. The weapon used is of consequence ## Footnote Question 26 - EXAM1

A. The implement (weapon) used against the suspect is of no consequence

**When confronted with a deadly force situation, what would be the correct statement?** * A. You must use subjective force and the least intrusive means available to you * B. You should use reasonable force and the least intrusive means available to you * C. You must you reasonable force and you must have exhausted other means first * D. You must use reasonable force and you do not have to exhaust other means first ## Footnote Question 27 - EXAM1

D. You must use reasonable force and you do not have to exhaust other means first

**When it comes to our memory, particularly in a high stress event, our memory is:** * A. Well attuned to remember what happened with detail and full clarity * B. We'll have gaps in our memory and may have a hard time remembering details * C. The memories will be vivid, detailed, with no missing gaps * D. We will have gaps in our memory, but we will have an easy time remembering those details ## Footnote Question 28 - EXAM1

B. We'll have gaps in our memory and may have a hard time remembering details

**Two people witness an event. One is standing to the side, one is standing to the front of the incident location. Both are interviewed. Both give conflicting details on what happened in the incident. Select the correct statement related to this problem.** * A. A witness's position may affect the quality, quantity, and accuracy of their perception of the incident * B. A witness's position should have no effect on the quality, quantity, and accuracy of their perception of the incident * C. Both witnesses were in clear view of the incident and should be able to relay similar information about what they saw * D. One witness experience looming, while the other one did not ## Footnote Question 29 - EXAM1

A. A witness's position may affect the quality, quantity, and accuracy of their perception of the incident

**Selective attention, which is also referred to as "Tunnel Vision", is:** * A. Vigilant, situational awareness * B. Focusing on a particular aspect of your environment * C. A myth, because we are able to see everything that's happening in front of us * D. The ability to see everything with absolute clarity and focus ## Footnote Question 30 - EXAM1

B. Focusing on a particular aspect of your environment

**Reasonable suspicion is defined as:** A. Evidence is highly and substantially more likely to be true than untrue B. More likely than not the suspect committed, is committing, or is about to commit a crime C. A mere hunch, speculation or guess that the suspect has committed or is committing a crime D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 1 - EXAM2:

D. None of the above are correct

**Which of the following is a right under the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution?** A. Right to ask questions B. Right to Bail C. Right to an Attorney D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 2 - EXAM2:

C. Right to an Attorney

**An officer walks up to a person at the city park and begins to casually speak with this person. This is called a(n):** A. Investigatory Stop B. Consensual Encounter C. Temporary Detention D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 3 - EXAM2

B. Consensual Encounter

**A peace officer turns on her siren to stop the car in front of her. This is called a(n):** A. Arrest B. Consensual Encounter C. Temporary Detention D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 4 - EXAM2

C. Temporary Detention

**During a consensual encounter between an officer and citizen, the required burden of proof under the 4th Amendment is:** A. Reasonable Suspicion B. Probable Cause C. Beyond a Reasonable Doubt D. The 4th Amendment does not apply ## Footnote Question 5 - EXAM2

D. The 4th Amendment does not apply

**The Fourth Amendment equivalent in the Idaho Constitution is found in:** A. Article 1, Section 17 B. Article 2, Section 7 C. Article 3, Section 19 D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 6 - EXAM2

A. Article 1, Section 17

**Examples of circumstances that MIGHT indicate a seizure even when the person felt free to leave the encounter include:** A. The use of overhead emergency lights B. The officer physically touching the person C. The presence of several officers D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 7 - EXAM2

D. All of the above are correct

**Ordinary inquiries incident to a traffic stop may include:** A. Demanding the driver's license of the driver B. Inspecting the automobile's registration and proof of insurance C. Determining whether there are outstanding warrants against the driver D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 8 - EXAM2

D. All of the above are correct

**Factors supporting a "Terry Frisk" include:** A. Bulges in suspect's clothing resembling a vape pen B. Reputation of being dangerous C. Encounter happens during the day time D. Both A and C are correct ## Footnote Question 9 - EXAM2

B. Reputation of being dangerous

**Which of the following is TRUE?** A. All statements made by a suspect while in custody requires a Miranda warning B. Handcuffs mean a person is immediately under arrest C. Application of physical force to the suspect's body is likely a seizure D. All of the above are true ## Footnote Question 10 - EXAM2

C. Application of physical force to the suspect's body is likely a seizure

**The Miranda case deals mostly with the duty of police to protect the rights of the accused as guaranteed by which constitutional amendment?** A. First Amendment B. Fourth Amendment C. Fifth Amendment D. Sixth Amendment ## Footnote Question 11 - EXAM2

C. Fifth Amendment

**Which of the following is/are warning(s) provided to suspects under Miranda?** A. The right to an attorney B. The right to be free from unreasonable search and seizure C. The right to not speak with officers D. Both A and C are correct ## Footnote Question 12 - EXAM2

D. Both A and C are correct

**Interrogation, as used in Miranda, is best defined as:** A. Direct questioning about a crime under investigation B. Indirect words or actions by an officer that could reasonably lead to an incriminating response C. General booking questions D. Both A and B are correct ## Footnote Question 13 - EXAM2

D. Both A and B are correct

**In order for Miranda to apply in police investigations:** A. A suspect must be in custody B. A suspect must be asked incriminating questions C. The person asking questions is a government agent D. All of the above are required ## Footnote Question 14 - EXAM2

D. All of the above are required

**Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Supreme Court's decision in Miranda v. Arizona?** A. A suspect must be informed of his/her Miranda rights before an in-custody interrogation B. The suspect must knowingly and intelligently waive his rights C. Miranda rights can be waived, but only in writing D. Both A and B are correct ## Footnote Question 15 - EXAM2

D. Both A and B are correct

**The "Fruit of the Poisonous Tree" doctrine refers to the exclusion of:** A. Inculpatory evidence B. Exculpatory evidence C. Legally obtained evidence D. Evidence discovered as a result of a constitutional violation ## Footnote Question 16 - EXAM2

D. Evidence discovered as a result of a constitutional violation

**This exception to the "Fruit of the Poisonous Tree" doctrine is NOT recognized in Idaho state courts:** A. Independent Source B. Inevitable Discovery C. Good Faith D. None of the above are recognized ## Footnote Question 17 - EXAM 2

C. Good Faith

**Chimel v. California introduced this 4th Amendment legal concept:** A. Abandoned Property B. The vehicle frisk C. The lunge area D. Frisks of suspicious persons ## Footnote Question 18 - EXAM2

C. The lunge area

**Weeks v. U.S. introduced this 4th Amendment legal concept:** A. The Exclusionary Rule B. The Grab Area Rule C. The Right to Counsel D. The Good Faith Rule ## Footnote Question 19 - EXAM2

A. The Exclusionary Rule

**An officer stops a person on the street that she knows to have been previously involved with drugs. The officer searches the person and pulls a bag of meth out of the person's right front pocket. The officer:** A. Has violated the person's 4th amendment rights and the evidence is subject to the exclusionary rule B. Has acted in good faith, so the exclusionary rule does not apply C. Has legal grounds to search, so the exclusionary rule does not apply D. The exclusionary rule does not apply to 4th Amendment violations ## Footnote Question 20 - EXAM2

A. Has violated the person's 4th amendment rights and the evidence is subject to the exclusionary rule

**Which of the following scenarios qualifies as a "Plain View" exception to the search warrant requirement?** A. Officer has lawful access to the location where the meth pipe is seen, because the homeowner invited the officer into the living room B. Officer has lawful right of access to the gun safe listed on a valid search warrant, but inside the safe is a drug ledger C. Officer has a search warrant to look for imitation Rolex watches, but right next to the boxes of Rolex watches are Coach handbags. It is immediately apparent the Coach handbags may be imitations as well, so the officer seizes these boxes as well D. All of the above qualify as "Plain View" ## Footnote Question 21 - EXAM2

D. All of the above qualify as "Plain View"

**The general punishment for a felony, unless otherwise stated in the specific statute, is a maximum punishment of:** A. Five years in the state prison and/or fine of $50,000 B. One year in the county jail and/or fine of $5,000 C. Five years in the county jail and/or fine of $50,000 D. Ten years in the state prison and/or fine of $50,000 ## Footnote Question 22 - EXAM2

A. Five years in the state prison and/or fine of $50,000

**Maliciously destroying jointly-owned property becomes a felony when the damages exceed?** A. $250 B. $350 C. $1,000 D. Not "Malicious Injury to Property" because it is jointly owned ## Footnote Question 23 - EXAM2

C. $1,000

**Fred willfully and unlawfully, by fire, damages an unoccupied dwelling. If proven beyond a reasonable doubt, Fred would be found guilty of:** A. First Degree Arson B. Second Degree Arson C. Third Degree Arson D. Aggravated Arson ## Footnote Question 24 - EXAM2

A. First Degree Arson

**Which of the following scenarios qualifies as committing a Grand Theft Under I.C. 18-2407?** A. Over the course of 4 days, Chuck steals 3 baseball cards worth over $50.00 B. Chuck steals a $35.00 baseball card on Monday, and a $40.00 baseball card on Tuesday C. Every month for a year, Chuck takes $100 from an unknowing supervisor at work D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 25 - EXAM2

C. Every month for a year, Chuck takes $100 from an unknowing supervisor at work

**Tired of your neighbor's $140.00 dog constantly barking at night, you kill the dog with poison. You can be charged with:** A. Burglary B. Petit Theft C. Grand Theft D. Second Degree Murder ## Footnote Question 26 - EXAM2

B. Petit Theft

**Which of the following scenarios qualifies as committing a Malicious Injury to Property Under I.C. 18-7001?** A. Not paying attention, Steve ran over his neighbor's mailbox B. Dave and Jerry split the cost of the fence between their property, but still cannot get along. In an angry spat, Dave and Jerry tear down the fence C. Upset with her husband, Becky fills their family car's gas tank with sand D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 27 - EXAM2

C. Upset with her husband, Becky fills their family car's gas tank with sand

**Which of the following scenarios qualifies as committing a Malicious Harassment Under I.C. 18-7902?** A. Angry because the Irish bar was closed, Mark maliciously breaks the Irish bar's window B. Pat spray paints the word lesbians on his neighbor's house due to their sexual orientation C. Chris throws a rock injuring Jerry, because Jerry put a Jewish sign in his field D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 28 - EXAM2

C. Chris throws a rock injuring Jerry, because Jerry put a Jewish sign in his field

**A person has been arrested when she or he has been:** A. Read the Miranda warning B. Frisked C. Stopped by a police officer D. Actual restraint or submitted to custody ## Footnote Question 29 - EXAM2

D. Actual restraint or submitted to custody

**What "manner" of arrest is authorized by law?** A. Actual restraint of the person B. Submission by the person C. A and B are correct D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 30 - EXAM2

C. A and B are correct

**In Idaho, who is allowed to serve (execute) a warrant?** A. Any peace officer directed in the warrant or certified in Idaho B. Any magistrate or district court judge C. Any county prosecutor D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 31 - EXAM2

A. Any peace officer directed in the warrant or certified in Idah

** If Ted killed Susan with malice aforethought on April 1, 2019, what would be the statute of limitations?** A. One year from the date of commission B. Five years from the date of commission C. Five years from the date of filing the charge D. There would be no statute of limitations ## Footnote Question 32 - EXAM2

D. There would be no statute of limitations

**If Wes left the state of Idaho after committing an aggravated battery on August 15, 2019, what would happen to the statute of limitations?** A. The statute is tolled until Wes returns to Idaho B. Nothing it is a felony and the statute of limitations continues to run C. The statute is tolled until Wes proves he is back In Idaho D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 33 - EXAM2

A. The statute is tolled until Wes returns to Idaho

** Which of the following is TRUE regarding Idaho State Senators and Representatives in relation to their Constitutional privilege from arrest?** A. They may be cited, but not arrested for a misdemeanor during the legislative session B. They may not be cited, nor arrested for a felony during the legislative session C. They may be arrested when traveling to the legislative session, but not returning from there D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 34 - EXAM2

A. They may be cited, but not arrested for a misdemeanor during the legislative session

**Which of the following is TRUE in regards to the statutory privilege from arrest?** A. A witness from another state under a court order to testify in an Idaho court B. A member of the Idaho National Guard while on military leave C. A legislator who has committed treason during the legislative session D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 35 - EXAM2

A. A witness from another state under a court order to testify in an Idaho court

**A possible consequence to a peace officer for making a false arrest is:** A. All evidence will be suppressed, even if it is not fruit of the poisonous tree B. The officer may be charged with a crime, but has absolute immunity from civil liability C. The officer may be disciplined by his or her employing agency D. Because of qualified immunity, the only possible consequence is a civil lawsuit ## Footnote Question 36 - EXAM2

C. The officer may be disciplined by his or her employing agency

**In which of the following scenarios is a Miranda warning required?** A. Moe is handcuffed and being questioned, about a crime, by an officer B. Larry is approached by an officer and asked if he is dealing drugs C. Curly is arrested and immediately begins to confess to the detective D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 37 - EXAM2

A. Moe is handcuffed and being questioned, about a crime, by an officer

**Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the invocation of Miranda rights?** A. An attorney may vicariously assert or invoke the suspect's right to remain silent B. A suspect may invoke her right to silence by conduct as long as it is unambiguous and unequivocal C. Once a suspect initially waives her right to counsel, she cannot later revoke this waiver D. A suspect's difficulty in understanding the language used by the officer does not impact the invocation ## Footnote Question 38 - EXAM2

B. A suspect may invoke her right to silence by conduct as long as it is unambiguous and unequivocal

**Evidence is defined as:** A. More likely than not that a suspect has committed a crime B. An out-of-court statement offered for the truth of the matter asserted C. Anything that has a tendency to prove or disprove a fact in a case D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 39 - EXAM2

C. Anything that has a tendency to prove or disprove a fact in a case

**What must all evidence be?** A. Relevant B. Competent C. Legally Obtained D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 40 - EXAM2

D. All of the above are correct

**What is the duty of law enforcement and prosecutors regarding "exculpatory" evidence?** A. Must provide it to the defense upon request B. Must provide it to the defense regardless of whether it is requested or not C. Not required to provide to the defense as they have the ability to investigate on their own D. There is no such thing as exculpatory evidence ## Footnote Question 41 - EXAM2

B. Must provide it to the defense regardless of whether it is requested or not

**Bloodstains, fingerprints and drug paraphernalia are considered what type of evidence?** A. Direct B. Tangible C. Testimonial D. Demonstrative ## Footnote Question 42 - EXAM2

B. Tangible

**An expert witness who tells the jury their opinion is considered what type of evidence?** A. Credible B. Tangible C. Testimonial D. Demonstrative ## Footnote Question 43 - EXAM2

C. Testimonial

**Applications for search warrants are usually heard in which type of court?** A. Magistrate Court B. District Court C. Court of Appeals D. Idaho Supreme Court ## Footnote Question 44 - EXAM2

A. Magistrate Court

**Cases involving felonies after the preliminary hearing or grand jury hearing are heard in which type of court?** A. Magistrate Court B. District Court C. Court of Appeals D. Idaho Supreme Court ## Footnote Question 45 - EXAM2

B. District Court

**You arrest a citizen for simple assault and are called upon to testify regarding your investigation. Which type of court will you appear at to testify at trial** ## Footnote Question 46 - EXAM2

C. Magistrate Court

**Cases involving felonies after the preliminary hearing or grand jury hearing are heard in which type of court?** ## Footnote Question 47- EXAM2

B. District Court

**You arrest a citizen for simple assault and are called upon to testify regarding your investigation. Which type of court will you appear at to testify at trial?** ## Footnote Question 48 - EXAM2

C. Magistrate Court

**You find methamphetamines when searching the pocket of a citizen and are called upon to testify about in the criminal trial. Which type of court will you appear at to testify at trial?** ## Footnote Question 47 - EXAM2

B. District Court

**Which of the following is a difference between a 'jury trial' and a 'bench trial'?** ## Footnote Question 48 - EXAM2

A. In a bench trial the judge determines both the facts and the law

**Which of the following statements regarding 'burden of proof' is TRUE?** ## Footnote Question 51 - EXAM2

C. The plaintiff's burden of proof in a civil trial is preponderance of the evidence

**The 'burden of proof' at a criminal trial is?** ## Footnote Question 52 - EXAM2

C. Beyond a Reasonable Doubt

**As a means for preparing for court, a police officer should do which of the following?** ## Footnote Question 53 - EXAM2

C. Contact the prosecutor prior to testifying regarding any questions or concerns

**Which of the following statements regarding the difference between a lay witness versus an expert witness is TRUE?** ## Footnote Question 54 - EXAM2

B. An expert witness may provide an opinion that goes to the ultimate issue to be decided

**Which of the following definitions are TRUE?** ## Footnote Question 55 - EXAM2

C. Hearsay is an out-of-court statement offered for the truth of the matter asserted

**When testifying in court, if you cannot remember the answer to a question you should:** ## Footnote EXAM2

C. Say, 'I don't remember.'

**An officer may encounter this common trial objection when testifying in court:** ## Footnote EXAM2

D. All of the above are common objections

**In most circumstances, a VIN inspection would be an example of a:** A. Criminal Call B. Non-Criminal Call C. Domestic Call D. Business Call ## Footnote Question 1 - EXAM3

B. Non-Criminal Call

**When responding to a bomb threat, officers will set up a perimeter. It is acceptable that once the area is evacuated, the officer enters the perimeter and inspects the device while calling the appropriate response team on their cell phone to describe what it looks like.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 2 - EXAM3

FALSE

**When responding to a major crime in progress, officers are permitted to exceed the posted speed limit when using their emergency equipment. According to Idaho Code 49-623, officers need to use when responding.** A. Due regard B. Immediate action C. POST approved EVOC techniques D. Peripheral vision ## Footnote Question 3 - EXAM3

A. Due regard

**How much time should an officer dedicate to locating a lost or missing child?** A. Until the child is located B. Until sent on another call from dispatch C. After you broadcast an attempt to locate D. After child is entered into NCIC ## Footnote Question 4 - EXAM3

A. Until the child is located

**When gathering information about the missing person/adult, even though it is a sensitive subject, the officer should ask if the missing person is possibly suicidal and if they have any weapons.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 5 - EXAM3

TRUE

**Missing persons/adults should be entered into ILETS.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 6 - EXAM3

FALSE

**When interviewing a victim of a robbery, the officer should attempt to obtain a suspect description, find out if there are weapons involved, what items were taken, and document the victim's demeanor.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 7 - EXAM3

TRUE

**When responding to a disturbance, upon arrival, officers should:** A. Immediately set up a command post B. Interview all witnesses together C. Separate and interview the parties involved, use contact and cover, interview all witnesses, and photograph injuries, the scene, and any evidence D. Establish a perimeter, and call for detectives to interview witnesses ## Footnote Question 8 - EXAM3

C. Separate and interview the parties involved, use contact and cover, interview all witnesses, and photograph injuries, the scene, and any evidence

**How often should an officer inspect the interior and exterior of their patrol vehicle?** A. Once a week at the beginning of the work week B. Once a week at the end of the work week C. During scheduled maintenance activities D. At the beginning and end of each shift ## Footnote Question 9 - EXAM3

D. At the beginning and end of each shift

**Concealment is best described as objects that will hide you and stop bullets.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 10 - EXAM3

FALSE

**When requesting a driver's check, what information is needed besides the first and last name?** A. Middle initial and date of birth B. Approximate height, middle initial C. City of birth, gender D. Sex, vehicle make ## Footnote Question 11 - EXAM3

A. Middle initial and date of birth

**When spelling a long name or giving a VIN number, a cadence of letters or numbers should be used.** A. Two B. Three C. Four D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 12 - EXAM3

B - Three

**What information is needed when requesting EMS to a scene?** A. Age, gender, height, weight, race, state of consciousness and breathing B. State of mind, race, gender, nature of injury, chief complaint C. State of consciousness and breathing, race, gender, nature of injury, chief complaint D. Chief complaint, race, gender, date of birth, weight, height ## Footnote Question 13 - EXAM3

C. State of consciousness and breathing, race, gender, nature of injury, chief complaint

**When an officer wants to initiate radio traffic between another officer or dispatch, they should:** A. Call the requested unit and then identify themselves B. Identify themselves and then call the requested unit C. Call the requested unit then call dispatch D. Immediately start talking to the requested unit ## Footnote Question 14 - EXAM3

A. Call the requested unit and then identify themselves

**Video interviews should be considered after other options have been eliminated.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 16 - EXAM3

TRUE

**Unlike an interrogation, the purpose of an interview is to gather information.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 15 - EXAM3

TRUE

**Themes are used to provide the suspect with a way to confess while maintaining some level of self respect.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 18 - EXAM3

TRUE

**When interviewing or interrogating a juvenile in Idaho, the parents must always be present.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 17 - EXAM3

FALSE

**An obstacle to gaining a confession in an interview that can be the hardest to overcome is:** A. Ego B. Challenge/anger C. Rationalization D. Economic ## Footnote Question 19 - EXAM3

A. Ego

**Talking too fast or too slow can increase the chance of having to repeat transmissions.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 20 - EXAM3

TRUE

**Which of the following is NOT an obstacle which prevents or inhibits communication?** A. Body language B. Age C. Lack of trust D. Bias ## Footnote Question 1 - EXAM4

B. Age

**Being under the effects of medication can prevent/inhibit communication.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 2 - EXAM4

TRUE

**What is the highest priority for law enforcement officers?** A. Enforcing the law B. Making arrests C. Protecting the public D. Staying physically and mentally fit ## Footnote Question 3 - EXAM4

C. Protecting the public

**When words and non-verbal messages don't match, people tend to believe the non-verbal message.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 4 - EXAM4

TRUE

**Being self-aware is an effective method to overcome communication obstacles.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 5 - EXAM4

TRUE

**Which of the following is a barrier to good listening?** A. Predicting what you think the individual will say B. Initially accepting the individual C. Remaining neutral D. None of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 6 - EXAM4

A. Predicting what you think the individual will say

**When trying to de-escalate a situation, the first step is to provide options with many choices to the excited subject.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 7 - EXAM4

FALSE

**Which of the following distances between people as they interact is the Law Enforcement Zone? ** A. 6" - 12" B. 12" - 24" C. 24" - 48" D. 48" - 72" ## Footnote Question 8 - EXAM4

D. 48" - 72"

**Which of the following is NOT a good use of paraphrasing?** A. Adding your own thoughts B. Clarify meaning C. Minimize misperception D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 9 - EXAM4

A. Adding your own thoughts

**As a Law Enforcement officer, which of the following is NOT a type of information we commonly convey to people?** A. Information related to the incident B. Information regarding access to resources C. Information about other related incidents D. Information about the judicial process ## Footnote Question 10 - EXAM4

C. Information about other related incidents

**Officer Smith conducts a field interview of a person. After conducting a warrant check, it was discovered that the person has a warrant out of another county 300 miles away. The officer should**: A. Because dispatch indicated there was a warrant, it is appropriate to immediately make an arrest B. Dismiss any conflicting information regarding the suspect's identity C. Advise the person that they need to respond immediately to the issuing court D. Have dispatch confirm the warrant, confirm the identity of the person who has the warrant, and confirm that the county holding the warrant will extradite ## Footnote Question 11 - EXAM4

D. Have dispatch confirm the warrant, confirm the identity of the person who has the warrant, and confirm that the county holding the warrant will extradite

**Witnesses are protected under Idaho Code. If someone intimidates a witness, it would be a violation and would be a felony if it was a civil case and a misdemeanor if it was a criminal case.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 12 - EXAM4

FALSE

**Victims have rights. The victim of an offense has the right to:** A. Be notified whenever the defendant or suspect is released or escapes from custody B. Not be notified whenever the defendant or suspect is released or escapes from custody as that violates the suspect's right to privacy C. Be notified of everything about the suspect, including where they are housed and how many visits they receive on any given day D. Be the first to testify during the court proceedings ## Footnote Question 13 - EXAM4

A. Be notified whenever the defendant or suspect is released or escapes from custody

**Disputed property in a civil dispute should:** A. Not be allowed to be removed B. Be split up 50/50, because Idaho is a community property state C. Be allowed to be removed after the officer can establish who purchased the item D. Not be handled through a court order ## Footnote Question 14 - EXAM4

A. Not be allowed to be removed

**When processing evidence, officers need to:** A. Contact the sergeant to take custody of it B. Photograph the evidence, properly package it, fill out a chain of custody, and transport it to the station to place in a temporary evidence locker. This is done while wearing gloves and any other safety equipment C. Package it, transport it to the station to place in a temporary evidence locker D. Itemize each item of property and enter the stolen items into the ICAC computer system ## Footnote Question 15 - EXAM4

B. Photograph the evidence, properly package it, fill out a chain of custody, and transport it to the station to place in a temporary evidence locker. This is done while wearing gloves and any other safety equipment

**In the colors of awareness, white means:** A. Blind Panic B. Environmentally unaware C. Alert and not ready to act D. State of alarm and ready to act ## Footnote Question 1 - EXAM5

B. Environmentally unaware

**In the colors of awareness, red means:** A. Blind panic B. State of alarm and ready to act C. Alert and not ready to act D. Taking action; as an instant action is mandatory ## Footnote Question 2 - EXAM5

D. Taking action; as an instant action is mandatory

** In the colors of awareness, black means:** A. Taking action as an instant action is mandatory B. Blind panic C. Environmentally unaware D. Alert and not ready to act ## Footnote Question 3 - EXAM5

B. Blind panic

**When handling calls, it is important for a police officer to remember that the officer should operate at the proper level of awareness relative to the danger of readiness needed.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 4 - EXAM5

TRUE

**Regarding the Reactionary Gap, TIME is best defined as:** A. Alert and not ready to act B. The period while interviewing suspects C. How far officer are from anyone at any given time in any given situations D. The period that the officers must react to stimulus and cues from anyone ## Footnote Question 5 - EXAM5

D. The period that the officers must react to stimulus and cues from anyone

**Regarding the Reactionary Gap, DISTANCE is best defined as:** A. The space between the officers and only the suspect B. The period that the officers must react to stimulus and cues from anyone C. How far officers are from anyone at any given time in any given circumstance D. The tactical positioning for an attack ## Footnote Question 6 - EXAM5

C. How far officers are from anyone at any given time in any given circumstance

**In officer safety and survival, and specifically discussing the Reactionary Gap, the golden rule is:** A. Handcuff everyone B. You are never allowed to give up and must have the will to survive C. Seek cover or disengage D. Space, time and distance must be controlled by the officers ## Footnote Question 7 - EXAM5

D. Space, time and distance must be controlled by the officers

**Space is best defined as the time that the officers must react to stimulus and cues from anyone.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 8 - EXAM5

FALSE

**Survival skills include the Scholar. This skill set is best described as:** A. The officer you want with you in a fight B. The officer who can influence others with just words C. The officer who consistently prevails in high stress situations D. The officer that has the answers about why we can do something ## Footnote Question 9 - EXAM5

D. The officer that has the answers about why we can do something

**A high number of officers are killed in the line of duty every year. When referring to the “Will to Survive,” it indicates that the first minute after arrival is the deadliest to peace officers.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 10 - EXAM5

TRUE

**As discussed in class, if you do not act in a culturally sensitive manner, what may seem appropriate to you may be deemed by someone of another culture.** A. Suitable B. Offensive C. Proper D. Both A and C are correct ## Footnote Question 11 - EXAM5

B. Offensive

**Mental illnesses are a medical condition that affects a person’s thinking, feeling, mood, ability to relate to others and disrupts daily functioning.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 12 - EXAM5

TRUE

**If illicit drugs are present in a person with a co-occurring mental disorder, it may make the de-escalation more difficult for law enforcement.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 13 - EXAM 5

TRUE

**Stigma is a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality or person.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 14 - EXAM5

TRUE

**Body language makes up what percent of communication?** A. 20% B. 55% C. 80% D. 95% ## Footnote Question 15 - EXAM5

B - 55%

**Open ended questions start with What, How or When and encourage the person to tell us more.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 16 - EXAM5

TRUE

**"Out-groups" are those we believe to be unlike us.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 17 - EXAM5

TRUE

**Stereotyping is an automatic process of the unconscious mind.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 18 - EXAM5

TRUE

**Attributes of Bias and Stereotypes include:** A. An often negative prejudgment based on characteristics that are not necessarily reasonable or logical B. Positive or negative feelings associated with individuals C. The tendency to like or dislike someone D. Generalizations about the perceived "typical" characteristics of a social category ## Footnote Question 19 - EXAM5

D. Generalizations about the perceived "typical" characteristics of a social category

**A law enforcement officer stops a young Hispanic man dressed in dark clothes and a hoodie who is walking in front of a convenience store in a high crime area. Several reports of convenience store robberies by young Hispanic men dressed in hoodies have been reported in this area. What type of profiling is the law enforcement officer using for this stop?** A. Criminal Profiling B. Bias-based profiling C. Investigative profiling D. A and C are correct ## Footnote Question 20 - EXAM5

D. A and C are correct

**Not everyone possesses both explicit and implicit biases.** A. Yes B. No ## Footnote Question 21 - EXAM5

B - NO

**A method for a law enforcement officer to slow down an encounter includes:** A. Waiting for backup B. Talking through the situation with the individual C. Taking in some observations before engaging D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 22 - EXAM5

D. All of the above are correct

**The definition of STEREOTYPE as described in class is:** A. A standardized mental picture that is held in common by members of a group and that represents an oversimplified opinion, prejudiced attitude, or uncritical judgement B. Of or relating to large groups of people classed according to common racial, national, tribal, religious, linguistic, or cultural origin or background C. The unfair or prejudicial treatment of people and groups based on characteristics such as race, gender, age, or sexual orientation D. An irrational attitude or hostility directed against an individual, a group, a race, or their supposed characteristics ## Footnote Question 23 - EXAM5

A. A standardized mental picture that is held in common by members of a group and that represents an oversimplified opinion, prejudiced attitude, or uncritical judgement

**The term NORMS in a Law Enforcement Agency is defined as:** A. An ideal we find to be important or valuable B. A set of beliefs which influences how we act in the world C. A way of life for a group of people D. A generally unwritten code of behavior which is followed by a group ## Footnote Question 24 - EXAM5

D. A generally unwritten code of behavior which is followed by a group

**What is the definition of PREJUDICE as described in class?** A. A standardized mental picture that is held in common by members of a group and that represents an oversimplified opinion, prejudiced attitude, or uncritical judgement B. The unfair or prejudicial treatment of people and groups based on characteristics such as race, gender, age, or sexual orientation C. Of or relating to large groups of people classed according to common racial, national, tribal, religious, linguistic, or cultural origin or background D. An irrational attitude or hostility directed against an individual, a group, a race, or their supposed characteristics ## Footnote Question 25 - EXAM5

D. An irrational attitude or hostility directed against an individual, a group, a race, or their supposed characteristics

**During discretionary time on patrol, officers should be in the habit of locating likely building targets that would require a building search.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 1 - EXAM6

TRUE

**An officer approaches the right side of a door threshold. Upon entry, the officer moves toward the right corner of the room. What technique has the officer used?** A. Cross B. Hook C. Limited penetration D. Alignment ## Footnote Question 2 - EXAM6

B. Hook

**You respond to a burglar alarm at a warehouse for the 4th time this week. What is a danger factor to consider when searching the building**? A. Officer complacency B. The call may cause the officer to work overtime C. Relying on the fact that alarms are not always dependable D. The call is probably another instance of an alarm nuisance call ## Footnote Question 3 - EXAM6

A. Officer complacency

**Which of the following is a principle of low light searching?** A. Move and light B. Watch for obstacles C. Align 3 things D. Watch for sudden movement ## Footnote Question 4 - EXAM6

D. Watch for sudden movement

**An obstacle is any terrain feature that impedes or diverts:** A. The object B. Cover and concealment C. Planning D. Movement ## Footnote Question 5 - EXAM6

D. Movement

**Which one of the following is an element of a building search?** A. A supervisor should always be present B. Assess the situation C. Knowledge of the building D. Containment ## Footnote Question 6 - EXAM6

D. Containment

**How should a building be numbered?** A. Start with the side facing the street as 1. Continue clockwise B. Start with the first building facing north C. Each side is given the name of the assigned perimeter officer D. In a counter-clockwise direction from the nearest intersection ## Footnote Question 7 - EXAM6

A. Start with the side facing the street as 1. Continue clockwise

**Methods to protect possible trace evidence include:** A. Collecting and bagging evidence as quickly as possible B. Using a druggist's fold C. Repeatedly handling items prior to collection D. Detailed photographic documentation ## Footnote Question 8 - EXAM6

B. Using a druggist's fold

**You are the officer in charge of evidence collection at a scene in which a shirt that is wet with blood has been discovered. The appropriate packaging steps for this item are: allow shirt to dry completely, place dry shirt into a plastic bag, seal with evidence tape, date and initial.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 10 - EXAM6

FALSE

**The LEAST effective visual examination method for locating possible trace evidence is the unaided eye.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 9 - EXAM6

TRUE

**The search warrant inventory must include the signature of one detective/officer and the signature of:** A. The suspect B. A notary public C. Another law enforcement personnel D. A judge ## Footnote Question 11 - EXAM6

C. Another law enforcement personnel

**A copy of the search warrant and the inventory of items collected should be left at the location after the execution of a search warrant.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 12 - EXAM6

TRUE

**A person found to be extracting THC through Butane Hash Oil Method is violating which Idaho Statute?** A. Trafficking in marijuana B. Manufacturing a controlled substance C. Delivery of a controlled substance D. Simple possession ## Footnote Question 13 - EXAM6

B. Manufacturing a controlled substance

**Inhalants are a banned substance under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA).** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 14 - EXAM6

FALSE

**Per Idaho Code, manufacturing a controlled substance includes the planting, cultivating, growing, and/or harvesting of marijuana.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 15 - EXAM6

TRUE

** If a Law Enforcement Officer calls a K9 unit to assist in sniffing a vehicle during a traffic stop, it is the officer's responsibility to write a report indicating the actions of the K9 that led the officer to believe that there was a positive alert by the certified dog.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 16 - EXAM6

FALSE

**If you suspect drug activity at a traffic stop, it is best to call K-9 right away due to time constraints.** A. True B. False ## Footnote Question 17 - EXAM6

TRUE

**Three types of drug testing kits are:** A. NIK, NARK AND TruNarc B. NIK, NARK AND PharmaTech C. NIK, TruNarc and Rapid Detect D. TruNarc, NARK and Oratect ## Footnote Question 18 - EXAM6

A. NIK, NARK AND TruNarc

**Which of the following drug classifications slows down the central nervous system (CNS)?** A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Anabolic steroids ## Footnote Question 19 - EXAM6

A. Depressants

**Which form of Cocaine is most commonly found in Idaho?** A. Powder Cocaine (HCL) B. Rock Cocaine (free base cocaine) C. Cocaine Sulfate (cocaine paste) D. B and C are correct ## Footnote Question 20 - EXAM6

A. Powder Cocaine (HCL)

**Common components of a clandestine laboratory used in the production of illegal drugs include:** A. Box grater B. Anhydrous ammonia C. White fuel D. B and C are correct ## Footnote Question 21 - EXAM6

D. B and C are correct

**The reaction of survivors to notifications of emergencies involving family and loved ones is complex and can include physical, emotional and _ reactions.** A. Behavioral B. Cognitive C. Psychological D. Irrational ## Footnote Question 22 - EXAM6

B. Cognitive

**Which of the following is a physical manifestation you might see in a reaction to an emergency notification?** A. Guilt B. Despair C. Confusion D. Nausea ## Footnote Question 23 - EXAM6

D. Nausea

**Which of the following is NOT an element of an emergency notification plan?** A. Method B. Location C. Concerned Parties D. Media ## Footnote Question 24 - EXAM6

D. Media

**Elements of an emergency notification plan include:** A. Making notifications in person whenever possible B. Providing accurate and useful information to the family C. Law Enforcement should provide notification in pairs when possible D. All of the above are correct ## Footnote Question 25 - EXAM6

D. All of the above are correct

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