Part 1 Flashcards

(253 cards)

1
Q

What is Human Development

A. The study of mental illness across adulthood

B. The scientific study of processes of change and stability throughout the human lifespan

C. The analysis of childhood education systems

D. The examination of personality types in adolescence

A

B. The scientific study of processes of change and stability throughout the human lifespan

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2
Q

Human development focuses on processes of:

A. Growth and regression
B. Change and stability
C. Learning and forgetting
D. Behavior and cognition

A

B. Change and stability

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3
Q

The scientific study of human development covers which time period?

A. From birth to old age
B. From adolescence to death
C. From conception to death
D. From infancy to adulthood

A

C. From conception to death

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4
Q

Human development is described as systematic. What does systematic mean?

A. Random and flexible
B. Emotional and reactive
C. Coherent and organized
D. Gradual and biological

A

C. Coherent and organized

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5
Q

Human development is considered adaptive because it is aimed at:

A. Increasing intelligence only

B. Dealing with internal and external conditions of existence

C. Eliminating environmental stressors

D. Preventing aging

A

B. Dealing with internal and external conditions of existence

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6
Q

The concept that human development is a lifelong process that can be studied scientifically is called:

A. Cognitive adaptation
B. Behavioral continuity
C. Lifespan development
D. Evolutionary maturation

A

C. Lifespan development

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7
Q

Lifespan development includes development from:

A. Infancy to late adulthood
B. Conception to death
C. Childhood to retirement
D. Birth to adolescence

A

B. Conception to death

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8
Q

The phrase “womb to tomb” refers to:

A. Prenatal health care
B. Cultural rituals
C. Lifespan development
D. End-of-life psychology

A

C. Lifespan development

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes lifespan development?

A. A lifelong process that can be studied scientifically

B. A process limited to early childhood

C. A concept focusing only on physical growth

D. A theory explaining personality disorders

A

A. A lifelong process that can be studied scientifically

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10
Q

Human development is adaptive because it helps individuals:

A. Avoid biological changes

B. Deal with internal and external conditions

C. Remain unchanged across time

D. Focus solely on environmental influences

A

B. Deal with internal and external conditions

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the Four Goals of Human Development?

A. Describe
B. Explain
C. Evaluate
D. Predict

A

C. Evaluate

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12
Q

One of the Four Goals of Human Development is:

A. Intervene
B. Modify
C. Measure
D. Control

A

A. Intervene

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13
Q

Which goal of human development involves identifying what is happening?

A. Predict
B. Describe
C. Intervene
D. Explain

A

B. Describe

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14
Q

Which goal focuses on determining why something happens?

A. Explain
B. Predict
C. Describe
D. Intervene

A

A. Explain

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15
Q

Which goal involves anticipating future outcomes?

A. Describe
B. Intervene
C. Predict
D. Explain

A

C. Predict

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16
Q

Which goal involves taking action based on knowledge gained?

A. Explain
B. Predict
C. Describe
D. Intervene

A

D. Intervene

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17
Q

Human development includes both change and:

A. Growth
B. Stability
C. Regression
D. Adaptation

A

B. Stability

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18
Q

The study of human development is considered scientific because it:

A. Uses organized and coherent methods

B. Focuses only on biological data

C. Avoids environmental factors

D. Limits research to adulthood

A

A. Uses organized and coherent methods

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19
Q

Lifespan development emphasizes that development:

A. Stops at maturity

B. Occurs only in childhood

C. Is limited to physical growth

D. Continues throughout the entire lifespan

A

D. Continues throughout the entire lifespan

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20
Q

The entire lifespan in lifespan development begins at:

A. Birth
B. Infancy
C. Conception
D. Childhood

A

C. Conception

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21
Q

Domains of Development

Growth of the body and brain, sensory capacities, motor skills, and health

A. Physical Development
B. Cognitive Development
C. Psychosocial Development

A

A. Physical Development

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22
Q

Domains of Development

Learning, attention, memory, language, thinking, reasoning, and creativity

A. Physical Development
B. Cognitive Development
C. Psychosocial Development

A

B. Cognitive Development

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23
Q

Domains of Development

Emotions, personality, and social relationships

A. Physical Development
B. Cognitive Development
C. Psychosocial Development

A

C. Psychosocial Development

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24
Q

head to tail

A. Cephalocaudal Principle
B. Proximodistal Principle

A

A. Cephalocaudal Principle

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25
development proceeds from the head to the lower part of the trunk A. Cephalocaudal Principle B. Proximodistal Principle
A. Cephalocaudal Principle
26
near to far A. Cephalocaudal Principle B. Proximodistal Principle
B. Proximodistal Principle
27
development proceeds from parts near the center of the body to outer ones A. Cephalocaudal Principle B. Proximodistal Principle
B. Proximodistal Principle
28
Which statement best describes growth in human development? A. Growth stops after adolescence B. Growth occurs only during childhood C. Growth occurs at every period of life, from conception through very old age D. Growth occurs only when triggered by environmental changes
C. Growth occurs at every period of life, from conception through very old age
29
The capacity for adaptive reorganization of neurological, psychological, and behavioral levels is known as: A. Continuity B. Plasticity C. Developmental Change D. Integration
B. Plasticity
30
Plasticity involves adaptive reorganization at which levels? A. Cultural, economic, and political B. Emotional, spiritual, and social C. Physical, environmental, and genetic D. Neurological, psychological, and behavioral
D. Neurological, psychological, and behavioral
31
Continuity refers to: A. Sudden personality shifts during adulthood B. Stability in characteristics from one period of life to another C. The influence of environmental settings on behavior D. The interaction between maturation and socialization
B. Stability in characteristics from one period of life to another
32
Continuity also refers to a sense of sameness over time built on: A. Genetic inheritance and physical maturation B. Social approval and academic achievement C. Memories, identity, and reflected self D. Cultural expectations and environmental demands
C. Memories, identity, and reflected self
33
Developmental change involves patterns of: A. Regression and decline only B. Stability and sameness C. Growth and reorganization D. Environmental resistance
C. Growth and reorganization
34
Developmental change may be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Biological maturation B. Systematic socialization C. Self-directed striving D. Random environmental exposure
D. Random environmental exposure
35
The interactions that influence developmental change include: A. Only biological factors B. Only environmental pressures C. Only self-directed behavior D. Biological maturation, systematic socialization, and self-directed striving
D. Biological maturation, systematic socialization, and self-directed striving
36
The assumption that we need to understand the whole person is based on the idea that: A. Development occurs independently across domains B. Humans function in an integrated manner C. Behavior is random and unpredictable D. Growth is limited to psychological changes
B. Humans function in an integrated manner
37
The concept of major domains of development supports which assumption? A. Growth ends in early adulthood B. Development occurs only biologically C. Understanding the whole person is necessary D. People do not influence their own development
C. Understanding the whole person is necessary
38
Behavior must be interpreted in the context of: A. Genetic predisposition only B. Relevant settings and personal relationships C. Internal biological processes only D. Academic performance
B. Relevant settings and personal relationships
39
Humans are described as highly skilled in: A. Resisting environmental change B. Avoiding social interaction C. Maintaining rigid behavioral patterns D. Adapting to their environment
D. Adapting to their environment
40
Which of the following reflects the assumption that people contribute actively to their development? A. Development is solely determined by biology B. Development is entirely controlled by socialization C. Individuals play an active role in shaping their own growth D. Development is predetermined at birth
C. Individuals play an active role in shaping their own growth
41
Which concept emphasizes stability over time? A. Plasticity B. Developmental change C. Adaptive reorganization D. Continuity
D. Continuity
42
Which of the following best reflects developmental change? A. A stable personality trait across decades B. Patterns of growth influenced by biological maturation C. A fixed identity that never evolves D. Unchanging behavioral tendencies
B. Patterns of growth influenced by biological maturation
43
A sense of sameness over time is most closely related to: A. Environmental adaptation B. Reflected self and identity C. Biological aging D. Neurological restructuring
B. Reflected self and identity
44
The idea that development involves both stability and change is best captured by the concepts of: A. Plasticity and adaptation B. Continuity and developmental change C. Maturation and environment D. Identity and relationships
B. Continuity and developmental change
45
Which statement reflects the integrated nature of human functioning? A. Development occurs in isolated domains B. Behavior is unrelated to personal relationships C. Understanding development requires examining the whole person D. Growth only affects psychological processes
C. Understanding development requires examining the whole person
46
The role of systematic socialization in development is associated with: A. Developmental change B. Plasticity C. Continuity D. Environmental adaptation only
A. Developmental change
47
Which assumption highlights the importance of context in understanding behavior? A. Growth occurs at every period of life B. Individual lives show continuity and developmental change C. People contribute actively to their development D. Behavior must be interpreted in relevant settings and personal relationships
D. Behavior must be interpreted in relevant settings and personal relationships
48
a concept or practice that is an invention of a particular culture or society A. Social Construction B. Heredity C. Environment D. Maturation E. Behavioral Genetics
A. Social Construction
49
it consists of the inborn traits and characteristics inherited from the biological parents A. Social Construction B. Heredity C. Environment D. Maturation E. Behavioral Genetics
B. Heredity
50
totality of nonhereditary, or experiential, influences on development A. Social Construction B. Heredity C. Environment D. Maturation E. Behavioral Genetics
C. Environment
51
the unfolding of a natural sequence of physical changes and behavior pattern A. Social Construction B. Heredity C. Environment D. Maturation E. Behavioral Genetics
D. Maturation
52
scientific study of the extent to which genetic and environmental differences among people and animals are responsible for differences in their traits A. Social Construction B. Heredity C. Environment D. Maturation E. Behavioral Genetics
E. Behavioral Genetics
53
proportion of all the variability that can be linked to genetic differences among those individuals A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
A. Heritability
54
coils of DNA that consist of smaller segments called genes A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
B. Chromosomes
55
is a double-helix structure of chemicals that carries inherited instructions for the development of all cellular forms of life A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
56
small segments of DNA located in definite positions on particular chromosomes; A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
D. Genes
57
functional units of heredity A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
D. Genes
58
the “letters” of the genetic code A. Heritability B. Chromosomes C. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) D. Genes E. Bases
E. Bases
59
complete sequence of genes in the human body A. Human Genome B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. Mutation E. Autosomes
A. Human Genome
60
a process by which the non-sex cells divide in half over and over again, the DNA replicates itself, so that each newly formed cell has the same DNA structure as all the others A. Human Genome B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. Mutation E. Autosomes
B. Mitosis
61
which the sex cells undergo when they are developing—each sex cell ends up with only 23 chromosomes—one from each pair A. Human Genome B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. Mutation E. Autosomes
C. Meiosis
62
permanent alterations in genes or chromosomes that may produce harmful characteristics A. Human Genome B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. Mutation E. Autosomes
D. Mutation
63
in humans, the 22 pairs of chromosomes not related to sexual expression A. Human Genome B. Mitosis C. Meiosis D. Mutation E. Autosomes
E. Autosomes
64
Which chromosome pair determines the biological sex of an individual? A. Autosomes B. Mitochondrial chromosomes C. Sex chromosomes D. Ribosomal chromosomes
C. Sex chromosomes
65
What is the normal chromosomal combination for a female? A. XY B. XX C. YY D. XO
B. XX
66
What is the normal chromosomal combination for a male? A. XX B. XY C. YY D. XXX
B. XY
67
Which chromosome contains the gene for maleness? A. X chromosome B. Chromosome 21 C. Y chromosome D. Mitochondrial chromosome
C. Y chromosome
68
What is the name of the gene found on the Y chromosome that determines maleness? A. SRY B. BRCA C. ABO D. HBB
A. SRY
69
Alleles are best described as: A. Identical copies of chromosomes B. Two or more alternative forms of a gene that occupy the same position on paired chromosomes and affect the same trait C. Different species of genes D. Proteins that code for traits
B. Two or more alternative forms of a gene that occupy the same position on paired chromosomes and affect the same trait
70
Alleles affect: A. Different traits on separate chromosomes B. Only recessive traits C. The same trait D. Only dominant traits
C. The same trait
71
Homozygous means: A. Having one dominant and one recessive allele B. Having two different alleles for a trait C. Having no alleles D. Possessing two identical alleles for a trait
D. Possessing two identical alleles for a trait
72
Which genotype represents homozygous dominant for brown hair? A. Rr B. rr C. RR D. rR
C. RR
73
Which genotype represents homozygous recessive for red hair? A. rr B. RR C. Rr D. rR
A. rr
74
A person who inherited one allele for red hair from each parent would have which genotype? A. RR B. Rr C. rr D. rR
C. rr
75
Heterozygous means: A. Possessing two identical alleles B. Possessing differing alleles for a trait C. Having no dominant allele D. Having two recessive alleles
B. Possessing differing alleles for a trait
76
Which genotype represents a heterozygous condition? A. RR B. rr C. XX D. Rr
D. Rr
77
Which of the following is another way to write a heterozygous genotype? A. RR B. rr C. rR D. XX
C. rR
78
If an individual has one allele for red hair (r) and one allele for brown hair (R), the genotype is: A. rr B. RR C. Rr D. YY
C. Rr
79
Which of the following describes homozygous recessive? A. Two copies of the allele for brown hair B. One allele for brown hair and one for red hair C. Two identical dominant alleles D. Two identical recessive alleles
D. Two identical recessive alleles
80
Which term refers to having two copies of the allele for brown hair (RR)? A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous dominant C. Homozygous recessive D. Sex-linked
B. Homozygous dominant
81
The gene that determines maleness is specifically located on: A. The X chromosome B. Both X chromosomes C. The Y chromosome D. All chromosomes
C. The Y chromosome
82
Which of the following genotypes is NOT heterozygous? A. Rr B. rR C. RR D. One dominant and one recessive allele
C. RR
83
Sex chromosomes are described as: A. Chromosomes that determine hair color B. Pair chromosomes that determine sex C. Genes that affect multiple traits D. Alternative forms of genes
B. Pair chromosomes that determine sex
84
pattern of inheritance in which, when a child receives different alleles, only the dominant one is expressed A. Dominant Inheritance B. Recessive Inheritance C. Polygenic Inheritance D. Genotype E. Phenotype
A. Dominant Inheritance
85
pattern of inheritance in which a child receives identical recessive alleles, resulting in expression of a nondominant trait A. Dominant Inheritance B. Recessive Inheritance C. Polygenic Inheritance D. Genotype E. Phenotype
B. Recessive Inheritance
86
pattern of inheritance in which multiple genes at different sites on chromosomes affect a complex trait A. Dominant Inheritance B. Recessive Inheritance C. Polygenic Inheritance D. Genotype E. Phenotype
C. Polygenic Inheritance
87
genetic makeup of a person, containing both expressed and unexpressed characteristics A. Dominant Inheritance B. Recessive Inheritance C. Polygenic Inheritance D. Genotype E. Phenotype
D. Genotype
88
observable characteristics of a person A. Dominant Inheritance B. Recessive Inheritance C. Polygenic Inheritance D. Genotype E. Phenotype
E. Phenotype
89
Multifactorial transmission refers to: A. Traits caused entirely by genetic inheritance B. A mechanism where genes are turned on and off C. The combination of genetic and environmental factors to produce complex traits D. The study of twins raised apart
C. The combination of genetic and environmental factors to produce complex traits
90
Epigenesis is best described as: A. The attempt to breed animals for a specific trait B. A mechanism in which genes are turned off or on as needed by the developing body or when triggered by the environment C. The percentage of pairs of individuals who both display a trait D. A limited range of possible changes
B. A mechanism in which genes are turned off or on as needed by the developing body or when triggered by the environment
91
In epigenesis, chemical molecules attached to a gene: A. Destroy the gene’s DNA B. Create new genetic traits C. Prevent environmental influence D. Alter the way a cell reads the gene’s DNA
D. Alter the way a cell reads the gene’s DNA
92
Selective breeding primarily involves: A. Observing children’s environmental choices B. Attempting to breed animals for a particular trait to determine whether the trait is heritable C. Measuring concordance rates D. Studying environmental triggers of genes
B. Attempting to breed animals for a particular trait to determine whether the trait is heritable
93
Which of the following is included under selective breeding methods? A. Reaction range studies B. Canalized range studies C. Twin studies D. Gene-environment correlation
C. Twin studies
94
Which is NOT listed as part of selective breeding approaches? A. Adoption studies B. Family studies C. Twin studies D. Passive gene-environment correlation
D. Passive gene-environment correlation
95
Concordance rate refers to: A. The percentage of pairs in which both individuals display a trait if one does B. The range of possible gene expression C. Environmental reactions to genotype D. Chemical tags attached to genes
A. The percentage of pairs in which both individuals display a trait if one does
96
A reaction range is defined as: A. A fixed and unchangeable outcome B. A wide range of possibilities that might exhibit differently C. The percentage of similar traits in twins D. A specific parental influence
B. A wide range of possibilities that might exhibit differently
97
A canalized range refers to: A. Unlimited environmental influence B. A wide variety of developmental outcomes C. Limited possible changes (fixed) D. A gene turned on by environmental triggers
C. Limited possible changes (fixed)
98
Gene-environment correlation describes the idea that: A. Genes function independently of environment B. Environment has no influence on genetic expression C. Only parents influence children’s genes D. The effects of genes depend on the environment experienced, and responses to the environment depend on genes
D. The effects of genes depend on the environment experienced, and responses to the environment depend on genes
99
Passive gene-environment correlation occurs when: A. A child’s genotype evokes reactions from others B. Parents provide an environment influenced partly by their own genotypes C. Children seek environments matching their genotype D. Genes are chemically tagged
B. Parents provide an environment influenced partly by their own genotypes
100
Evocative (reactive) gene-environment correlation occurs when: A. Parents attempt selective breeding B. A child’s genotype evokes certain reactions from other people C. The environment determines genetic structure D. Genes are permanently fixed
B. A child’s genotype evokes certain reactions from other people
101
Active gene-environment correlation occurs when: A. Parents choose traits in animals B. Genes are chemically altered C. Children’s genotype influences the kinds of environments they seek D. Traits are canalized
C. Children’s genotype influences the kinds of environments they seek
102
Which concept involves chemical “tags” attached to genes? A. Epigenesis B. Concordance rate C. Reaction range D. Family studies
A. Epigenesis
103
Which concept measures how often both members of a pair share a trait? A. Passive gene-environment correlation B. Canalized range C. Concordance rate D. Active gene-environment correlation
C. Concordance rate
104
Which of the following represents a wide range of possible outcomes? A. Canalized range B. Reaction range C. Concordance rate D. Adoption study
B. Reaction range
105
Which of the following represents limited possible changes? A. Reaction range B. Twin studies C. Canalized range D. Passive gene-environment correlation
C. Canalized range
106
Adoption studies are categorized under: A. Gene-environment correlation B. Epigenesis C. Selective breeding D. Reaction range
C. Selective breeding
107
The developing body turning genes on or off when needed is an example of: A. Multifactorial transmission B. Epigenesis C. Concordance rate D. Active gene-environment correlation
B. Epigenesis
108
Multifactorial transmission involves: A. Only environmental factors B. Only genetic inheritance C. The attachment of chemical tags D. A combination of genetic and environmental factors
D. A combination of genetic and environmental factors
109
two-generational kinship, economic, and household unit consisting of one or two parents and their biological children, adopted children, or stepchildren A. Nuclear Family B. Extended Family C. Socioeconomic Status
A. Nuclear Family
110
multigenerational kinship network of parents, children, and other relatives, sometimes living together in an extended-family household A. Nuclear Family B. Extended Family C. Socioeconomic Status
B. Extended Family
111
combination of economic and social factors describing an individual or family, including income, education, and occupation A. Nuclear Family B. Extended Family C. Socioeconomic Status
C. Socioeconomic Status
112
a society’s or group’s total way of life, including its customs, traditions, laws, knowledge, beliefs, values, language, and physical products, from tools to artworks A. Culture B. Ethnic Group C. Ethnic Gloss
A. Culture
113
all of the behavior and attitudes that are learned, shared, and transmitted among members of a social group A. Culture B. Ethnic Group C. Ethnic Gloss
A. Culture
114
consists of people united by a distinctive culture, ancestry, religion, language, or national origin, all of which contribute to a sense of shared identity and shared attitudes, beliefs, and values A. Culture B. Ethnic Group C. Ethnic Gloss
B. Ethnic Group
115
overgeneralization about ethnic or cultural group that obscures differences within the group A. Culture B. Ethnic Group C. Ethnic Gloss
C. Ethnic Gloss
116
What are individual differences? A. Events that affect all members of society in identical ways B. Differences in characteristics, influences, or developmental outcomes C. Biological events limited to specific cultures D. Shared family traditions
B. Differences in characteristics, influences, or developmental outcomes
117
Which of the following is listed as a source of individual differences? A. Normative history-graded influences B. Formal schooling C. Genes D. Retirement
C. Genes
118
Shared environmental influences are best described as: A. Unique experiences that are not shared with family members B. Common experiences that work to make individuals similar C. Biological changes affecting specific age groups D. Events that occur at a similar point in history
B. Common experiences that work to make individuals similar
119
Which example represents a shared environmental influence? A. Parental favoritism B. Puberty C. Parenting style D. Retirement
C. Parenting style
120
Nonshared environmental influences refer to: A. Experiences common to most members of society B. Unique experiences not shared with other family members C. Biological events that occur with aging D. Cultural events experienced historically
B. Unique experiences not shared with other family members
121
Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence? A. Parenting style B. Formal schooling C. Menopause D. Parental favoritism
D. Parental favoritism
122
Normative influences are defined as: A. Differences in genetic inheritance B. Unique personal experiences C. Biological or environmental events that affect many or most people in similar ways, as well as events that touch only certain individuals D. Parenting practices within a household
C. Biological or environmental events that affect many or most people in similar ways, as well as events that touch only certain individuals
123
Normative age-graded influences are: A. Events experienced by a majority of people at a similar point in history B. Experiences and changes common to individuals within a specific age group C. Unique family experiences D. Genetic traits passed from parents
B. Experiences and changes common to individuals within a specific age group
124
Which of the following is an example of a normative age-graded influence? A. COVID-19 Pandemic B. Parenting style C. Parental favoritism D. Puberty
D. Puberty
125
Menopause is classified as which type of influence? A. Nonshared environmental influence B. Shared environmental influence C. Normative age-graded influence D. Normative history-graded influence
C. Normative age-graded influence
126
Formal schooling is considered a: A. Normative age-graded influence B. Nonshared environmental influence C. Genetic factor D. Normative history-graded influence
A. Normative age-graded influence
127
Retirement falls under which category? A. Shared environmental influence B. Normative history-graded influence C. Normative age-graded influence D. Nonshared environmental influence
C. Normative age-graded influence
128
Normative history-graded influences are best described as: A. Experiences unique to individuals within families B. Events experienced by a majority of people within a specific culture or society at a similar point in history C. Common parenting practices D. Age-related biological transitions
B. Events experienced by a majority of people within a specific culture or society at a similar point in history
129
Which of the following is an example of a normative history-graded influence? A. Puberty B. Parental favoritism C. COVID-19 Pandemic D. Menopause
C. COVID-19 Pandemic
130
Which category includes parenting style? A. Shared environmental influences B. Normative age-graded influences C. Normative history-graded influences D. Nonshared environmental influences
A. Shared environmental influences
131
Which category includes parental favoritism? A. Normative age-graded influences B. Shared environmental influences C. Normative history-graded influences D. Nonshared environmental influences
D. Nonshared environmental influences
132
Which of the following is NOT listed as part of individual differences? A. Genes B. Shared environmental influences C. Normative age-graded influences D. Nonshared environmental influences
C. Normative age-graded influences
133
Events that are common for individuals within a specific age group are classified as: A. Normative history-graded influences B. Shared environmental influences C. Nonshared environmental influences D. Normative age-graded influences
D. Normative age-graded influences
134
Events experienced by a majority of people in a specific culture at a similar point in history are: A. Normative history-graded influences B. Normative age-graded influences C. Nonshared environmental influences D. Genetic factors
A. Normative history-graded influences
135
Which grouping correctly matches the category with an example? A. Nonshared environmental influence – Parenting style B. Shared environmental influence – Parental favoritism C. Normative age-graded influence – Retirement D. Normative history-graded influence – Puberty
C. Normative age-graded influence – Retirement
136
group of people strongly influenced by a major historical event during their formative period A. Historical Generation B. Cohorts C. Nonnormative Influences
A. Historical Generation
137
group of people born at about the same time A. Historical Generation B. Cohorts C. Nonnormative Influences
B. Cohorts
138
unusual events that have a major impact on individual lives because they disturbed the expected sequence of the life cycle A. Historical Generation B. Cohorts C. Nonnormative Influences
C. Nonnormative Influences
139
What best defines imprinting? A. A voluntary learning process based on rewards and punishments B. An instinctive form of learning during a critical period when a young animal attaches to the first moving object it sees C. A gradual learning process occurring throughout life D. A learned behavior acquired through repeated exposure
B. An instinctive form of learning during a critical period when a young animal attaches to the first moving object it sees
140
Imprinting occurs during: A. Adolescence B. A random developmental stage C. A critical period in early development D. Late adulthood
C. A critical period in early development
141
Imprinting is described as: A. Learned and reversible B. Deliberate and temporary C. Automatic and irreversible D. Conditioned and flexible
C. Automatic and irreversible
142
In imprinting, a young animal typically forms an attachment to: A. Any stationary object B. The loudest sound it hears C. The strongest member of its group D. The first moving object it sees
D. The first moving object it sees
143
The first moving object a newly hatched duckling follows is usually: A. Its sibling B. Its mother C. A predator D. Itself
B. Its mother
144
The concept of imprinting was demonstrated by: A. Sigmund Freud B. Jean Piaget C. Konrad Lorenz D. B. F. Skinner
C. Konrad Lorenz
145
Konrad Lorenz demonstrated that ducklings will: A. Ignore moving objects B. Follow only members of their own species C. Follow the first moving object they see, regardless of species D. Follow only their biological mother
C. Follow the first moving object they see, regardless of species
146
Predisposition toward learning refers to: A. A refusal to learn new information B. A random response to environmental stimuli C. The readiness of an organism’s nervous system to acquire certain information during a brief critical period in early life D. The ability to learn equally at all ages
C. The readiness of an organism’s nervous system to acquire certain information during a brief critical period in early life
147
A critical period is best described as: A. Any time learning is possible B. A specific time when a given event, or its absence, has a specific impact on development C. A lifelong opportunity for growth D. A period of decreased sensitivity to experience
B. A specific time when a given event, or its absence, has a specific impact on development
148
If a necessary event does not occur during a critical period: A. Development continues normally B. The effect is temporary C. Development may be delayed but always recovers fully D. Normal development will not occur and abnormal patterns may be irreversible
D. Normal development will not occur and abnormal patterns may be irreversible
149
The length of a critical period is: A. Absolutely fixed B. Completely random C. Not absolutely fixed D. Identical across all species
C. Not absolutely fixed
150
A sensitive period is: A. A brief and rigid time frame B. A more extended time when an individual is particularly receptive to specific experiences C. A period in which learning is impossible D. The same as a critical period
B. A more extended time when an individual is particularly receptive to specific experiences
151
During a sensitive period: A. Development can only occur within that window B. Learning outside the period is impossible C. Optimal development occurs during the period, but development can still happen outside it D. No learning differences are observed
C. Optimal development occurs during the period, but development can still happen outside it
152
Learning outside a sensitive period: A. Cannot happen B. May require more effort or be less efficient C. Is always faster D. Results in irreversible abnormalities
B. May require more effort or be less efficient
153
Which statement best distinguishes a critical period from a sensitive period? A. Critical periods allow development at any time B. Sensitive periods are shorter than critical periods C. Critical periods are more extended and flexible D. Sensitive periods allow development outside the optimal window, though less efficiently
D. Sensitive periods allow development outside the optimal window, though less efficiently
154
Plasticity refers to: A. The inability to change behavior B. The range of modifiability of performance C. A fixed pattern of development D. A brief learning window
B. The range of modifiability of performance
155
Imprinting is most closely associated with: A. Flexible learning across the lifespan B. Random trial-and-error behavior C. Instinctive attachment during early development D. Conscious decision-making
C. Instinctive attachment during early development
156
Which situation best illustrates imprinting? A. A child learning mathematics in school B. A duckling following a moving human instead of its mother C. An adult learning a new language D. A teenager developing hobbies
B. A duckling following a moving human instead of its mother
157
The absence of necessary events during a critical period can lead to: A. Enhanced plasticity B. Optimal development C. Temporary delays only D. Irreversible abnormal patterns
D. Irreversible abnormal patterns
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A sensitive period differs from imprinting because a sensitive period: A. Is automatic and irreversible B. Occurs only in animals C. Extends over a longer time and allows later learning D. Involves attachment to the first moving object seen
C. Extends over a longer time and allows later learning
159
people create experiences for themselves and are motivated to learn about the world around them A. Active Development B. Organismic Model C. Jean Jacques Rousseau D. Reactive Development E. Mechanistic Model
A. Active Development
160
sees people as active, growing organisms that set their own development in motion A. Active Development B. Organismic Model C. Jean Jacques Rousseau D. Reactive Development E. Mechanistic Model
B. Organismic Model
161
Children are born “noble savages” who develop according to their own positive natural tendencies if not corrupted by society A. Active Development B. Organismic Model C. Jean Jacques Rousseau D. Reactive Development E. Mechanistic Model
C. Jean Jacques Rousseau
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the developing child as a hungry sponge that soaks up experiences and is shaped by this input over time A. Active Development B. Organismic Model C. Jean Jacques Rousseau D. Reactive Development E. Mechanistic Model
D. Reactive Development
163
people are like machines that react to environmental input A. Active Development B. Organismic Model C. Jean Jacques Rousseau D. Reactive Development E. Mechanistic Model
E. Mechanistic Model
164
Tabula Rasa A. John Locke B. Raymond Cattell C. John Watson D. Sigmund Freud
A. John Locke
165
Blank Slate A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
A. Tabula Rasa
166
The child developed in either positive or negative ways, depended entirely on experiences A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
A. Tabula Rasa
167
gradual and incremental A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
B. Continuous Development
168
change in number or amount, such as height, weight, or vocabulary size A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
C. Quantitative Change
169
abrupt or uneven A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
D. Discontinuous Development
170
discontinuous changes in kind, structure, or organization A. Tabula Rasa B. Continuous Development C. Quantitative Change D. Discontinuous Development E. Qualitative Change
E. Qualitative Change
171
personality traits, temperament, and other characteristics established early in life tend to persist throughout the lifespan A. Stability B. Change C. Nature D. Nurture
A. Stability
172
emphasizes the potential for individuals to evolve and alter their characteristics due to new experiences, learning, and maturation A. Stability B. Change C. Nature D. Nurture
B. Change
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emphasizes the role of genes, heredity, and biological predispositions in shaping our traits, abilities, and behaviors A. Stability B. Change C. Nature D. Nurture
C. Nature
174
highlights the influence of environmental factors, including upbringing, social relationships, culture, education, and life experiences A. Stability B. Change C. Nature D. Nurture
D. Nurture
175
Which statement best reflects the position of early experience proponents? A. Development is primarily influenced by events occurring in adulthood. B. The first few years of life are critical and can have lasting, profound effects on development. C. Individuals remain adaptable throughout their entire lives. D. Development cannot be influenced by early life events.
B. The first few years of life are critical and can have lasting, profound effects on development.
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Early experience proponents believe that early events may: A. Be easily reversed later in life. B. Have minimal influence on development. C. Set developmental trajectories that are difficult to alter. D. Only affect physical growth.
C. Set developmental trajectories that are difficult to alter.
177
Later experience proponents emphasize that development is: A. Fixed after early childhood. B. A lifelong process in which individuals remain adaptable. C. Determined solely by genetic inheritance. D. Shaped only by early family experiences.
B. A lifelong process in which individuals remain adaptable.
178
Which view highlights adaptability throughout life? A. Early experience proponents B. Biological determinists C. Environmental determinists D. Later experience proponents
D. Later experience proponents
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Which belief aligns with early experience proponents? A. Development remains flexible and changeable at all stages. B. The first few years of life are not particularly important. C. Early life events can have profound and lasting effects. D. Development is unaffected by early environmental influences.
C. Early life events can have profound and lasting effects.
180
Which statement aligns with later experience proponents? A. Early years permanently determine all aspects of development. B. Development cannot be influenced after adolescence. C. Individuals remain adaptable across their lifespan. D. Early childhood experiences are the only important influences.
C. Individuals remain adaptable across their lifespan.
181
In research, informed consent may be waived when: A. Participants request anonymity. B. The research poses no distress or harm to participants. C. The study has educational value. D. Compensation is offered.
B. The research poses no distress or harm to participants.
182
Fair compensation for research participation is: A. Prohibited under all circumstances. B. Only allowed in medical research. C. Allowed unless refused in advance. D. Required for all participants.
C. Allowed unless refused in advance.
183
Deception in research is permissible only when: A. It makes the study more interesting. B. Participants are unaware of the deception. C. The researcher prefers it over other methods. D. It is justified by significant value and no non-deceptive alternatives are possible.
D. It is justified by significant value and no non-deceptive alternatives are possible.
184
When deception is used in research, which principle must also be applied? A. Compensation B. Debriefing C. Data fabrication D. Waiving consent
B. Debriefing
185
Animals should only be used in research when: A. It is convenient for the researcher. B. It reduces research costs. C. It is the only way to further understanding or augment benefits to health and welfare. D. Human participants refuse to join.
C. It is the only way to further understanding or augment benefits to health and welfare.
186
Research procedures that adversely affect the environment should be: A. Encouraged if results are significant. B. Avoided. C. Used only in animal research. D. Reported but continued.
B. Avoided.
187
When reporting results on vulnerable groups, researchers must exercise caution to: A. Increase publicity. B. Ensure financial compensation. C. Avoid misuse of findings. D. Simplify the results.
C. Avoid misuse of findings.
188
Which of the following practices is prohibited in research? A. Fair compensation B. Debriefing C. Correcting errors D. Data fabrication
D. Data fabrication
189
If errors are discovered in published data, they should be: A. Ignored if minor. B. Corrected quickly. C. Addressed only if requested. D. Hidden to protect reputation.
B. Corrected quickly.
190
Which scenario best represents the early experience perspective? A. A person changes career paths successfully at age 50. B. A child’s early traumatic experiences influence their later emotional development. C. An adult develops new skills after retirement. D. A teenager adapts to a new culture.
B. A child’s early traumatic experiences influence their later emotional development.
191
Which scenario best represents the later experience perspective? A. Early childhood events permanently determine personality. B. The first two years of life are the sole determinants of intelligence. C. An adult adapts successfully to new life challenges. D. Early development cannot be changed.
C. An adult adapts successfully to new life challenges.
192
Deception is acceptable in research only if: A. It produces faster results. B. It guarantees participant satisfaction. C. It replaces informed consent permanently. D. It has significant value and no non-deceptive alternatives exist.
D. It has significant value and no non-deceptive alternatives exist.
193
Which condition justifies waiving informed consent? A. The research involves vulnerable groups. B. The research poses no distress or harm. C. The research is conducted in schools. D. The research includes deception.
B. The research poses no distress or harm.
194
Which of the following is consistent with ethical research reporting? A. Fabricating data to support hypotheses B. Delaying corrections of published errors C. Exercising caution when reporting results on vulnerable groups D. Ignoring environmental impact
C. Exercising caution when reporting results on vulnerable groups
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take care to do no harm or minimize harm A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence B. Fidelity & Responsibility C. Integrity D. Justice E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence
196
establish relationships of trust with those with whom they work A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence B. Fidelity & Responsibility C. Integrity D. Justice E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
B. Fidelity & Responsibility
197
promote accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence B. Fidelity & Responsibility C. Integrity D. Justice E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
C. Integrity
198
fairness and justice entitle all persons to access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology and to equal quality in the processes, procedures, and services A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence B. Fidelity & Responsibility C. Integrity D. Justice E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
D. Justice
199
respect the dignity and worth of all people, and the rights of individuals to privacy, confidentiality, and self determination A. Beneficence & Nonmaleficence B. Fidelity & Responsibility C. Integrity D. Justice E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
E. Respect for People’s Rights & Dignity
200
respect for all human beings, diversity, culture, and beliefs; privacy, fairness, and justice A. Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples B. Competent Caring for the Well Being of Persons and Peoples C. Integrity D. Professional and Scientific Responsibilities to Society
A. Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples
201
working for the benefit of individuals and communities while doing no harm A. Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples B. Competent Caring for the Well Being of Persons and Peoples C. Integrity D. Professional and Scientific Responsibilities to Society
B. Competent Caring for the Well Being of Persons and Peoples
202
honesty, truthfulness, and accuracy in all psychological activities A. Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples B. Competent Caring for the Well Being of Persons and Peoples C. Integrity D. Professional and Scientific Responsibilities to Society
C. Integrity
203
upholding ethical standards in research, practice, and education, contributing to the welfare of the community A. Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples B. Competent Caring for the Well Being of Persons and Peoples C. Integrity D. Professional and Scientific Responsibilities to Society
D. Professional and Scientific Responsibilities to Society
204
Which basic research design primarily aims to observe and record behavior? A. Experiment B. Correlational Study C. Descriptive D. Quasi-Experiment
C. Descriptive
205
Which research design focuses on the study of a certain individual or group? A. Case Study B. Ethnographic Study C. Correlational Study D. Experiment
A. Case Study
206
Which research design is especially useful in rare cases and provides in-depth information? A. Descriptive B. Experiment C. Correlational Study D. Case Study
D. Case Study
207
Which design cannot generalize to other populations and cannot make strong causal statements? A. Quasi-Experiment B. Case Study C. Correlational Study D. Experiment
B. Case Study
208
Which research design is characterized by low external validity? A. Case Study B. Experiment C. Correlational Study D. Descriptive
A. Case Study
209
Which research design seeks to describe patterns of relationships, customs, beliefs, technology, arts, and traditions that make up a society’s way of life? A. Correlational Study B. Ethnographic Study C. Quasi-Experiment D. Descriptive
B. Ethnographic Study
210
An ethnographic study is best described as a: A. Natural experiment B. Case study of the culture C. Study involving random assignment D. Manipulation of independent variables
B. Case study of the culture
211
Which research design is open to observer bias? A. Experiment B. Correlational Study C. Ethnographic Study D. Quasi-Experiment
C. Ethnographic Study
212
Which research design helps overcome cultural biases in theory and research and debunks the logic of Western-developed theories? A. Case Study B. Ethnographic Study C. Descriptive D. Experiment
B. Ethnographic Study
213
Which research design examines the relationship between two or more variables? A. Correlational Study B. Experiment C. Case Study D. Quasi-Experiment
A. Correlational Study
214
Which research design determines the strength and direction of an association but not necessarily a causal link? A. Experiment B. Descriptive C. Correlational Study D. Ethnographic Study
C. Correlational Study
215
Which research design does NOT involve random assignment? A. Experiment B. Correlational Study C. Descriptive D. Quasi-Experiment
B. Correlational Study
216
Which research design is associated with high external validity? A. Case Study B. Experiment C. Correlational Study D. Ethnographic Study
C. Correlational Study
217
Which research design is used to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables? A. Correlational Study B. Experiment C. Case Study D. Descriptive
B. Experiment
218
Which research design permits replication? A. Experiment B. Ethnographic Study C. Case Study D. Correlational Study
A. Experiment
219
Which research design involves manipulation of the independent variable? A. Descriptive B. Quasi-Experiment C. Correlational Study D. Experiment
D. Experiment
220
Which research design could encounter ethical issues due to its procedures? A. Ethnographic Study B. Experiment C. Case Study D. Correlational Study
B. Experiment
221
Which research design is characterized by high internal validity? A. Correlational Study B. Descriptive C. Experiment D. Case Study
C. Experiment
222
Which research design is also known as a natural experiment? A. Experiment B. Quasi-Experiment C. Case Study D. Correlational Study
B. Quasi-Experiment
223
In which research design are people compared after being accidentally assigned to separate groups by circumstances? A. Descriptive B. Experiment C. Quasi-Experiment D. Ethnographic Study
C. Quasi-Experiment
224
Which research design primarily focuses on observing and recording behavior without manipulating variables? A. Descriptive B. Experiment C. Quasi-Experiment D. Correlational Study
A. Descriptive
225
Which research design cannot make strong causal statements? A. Experiment B. Case Study C. Quasi-Experiment D. Ethnographic Study
B. Case Study
226
Which research design is characterized by high internal validity but may encounter ethical issues? A. Correlational Study B. Descriptive C. Case Study D. Experiment
D. Experiment
227
Which research design examines associations without manipulating variables or randomly assigning participants? A. Experiment B. Ethnographic Study C. Correlational Study D. Case Study
C. Correlational Study
228
Which developmental research design compares different age groups at a single point in time? A. Longitudinal Design B. Sequential Design C. Cross-Sectional Design D. Cohort Effect
C. Cross-Sectional Design
229
Which design is described as less time-consuming? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Sequential Design D. Cohort Analysis
A. Cross-Sectional Design
230
Which design provides immediate information about age-related differences? A. Longitudinal Design B. Sequential Design C. Cohort Effect D. Cross-Sectional Design
D. Cross-Sectional Design
231
The ability to study multiple age groups simultaneously is a feature of which design? A. Longitudinal Design B. Cross-Sectional Design C. Sequential Design D. Participant Attrition
B. Cross-Sectional Design
232
Which design cannot determine how individuals change over time? A. Sequential Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Cross-Sectional Design D. Cohort Study
C. Cross-Sectional Design
233
Cohort effects refer to differences between age groups that are due to: A. Practice effects B. Individual developmental changes C. Time-of-measurement effects D. Unique experiences of their generation
D. Unique experiences of their generation
234
Which design follows the same group of individuals over an extended period? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Sequential Design C. Longitudinal Design D. Cohort Comparison
C. Longitudinal Design
235
Which design can directly measure individual developmental changes? A. Longitudinal Design B. Cross-Sectional Design C. Sequential Design D. Cohort Effect
A. Longitudinal Design
236
Eliminating cohort effects is a strength of which design? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Sequential Design C. Longitudinal Design D. Time-of-Measurement Design
C. Longitudinal Design
237
Which design can examine the stability of traits and the impact of early experiences on later development? A. Sequential Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Cross-Sectional Design D. Cohort Analysis
B. Longitudinal Design
238
Which design is described as time-consuming and expensive? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Sequential Design C. Cohort Study D. Longitudinal Design
D. Longitudinal Design
239
Practice effect refers to: A. Participants improving naturally with age B. Differences caused by generational experiences C. Performing differently on repeated measures due to familiarity with tests D. Dropping out of a study over time
C. Performing differently on repeated measures due to familiarity with tests
240
Time-of-measurement effects are listed as a limitation of which design? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Sequential Design D. Cohort Analysis
B. Longitudinal Design
241
Participant attrition occurs when: A. Individuals perform better due to practice B. Individuals are tested at the same time C. Individuals drop out of the study over time D. Different age groups are compared
C. Individuals drop out of the study over time
242
Participant attrition may lead to: A. Immediate age-related comparisons B. A biased sample C. Elimination of cohort effects D. Separation of age and cohort effects
B. A biased sample
243
Which design combines elements of cross-sectional and longitudinal approaches? A. Sequential Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Cohort Study D. Cross-Sectional Design
A. Sequential Design
244
Which design can separate age effects from cohort effects? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Sequential Design D. Participant Attrition Model
C. Sequential Design
245
Comparing different cohorts at the same age and the same cohort at different ages is characteristic of: A. Longitudinal Design B. Sequential Design C. Cross-Sectional Design D. Cohort Effect
B. Sequential Design
246
Which design provides information about both age-related changes within individuals and age-related differences between groups? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Sequential Design C. Longitudinal Design D. Cohort Analysis
B. Sequential Design
247
Which design can be more efficient than a purely longitudinal study in terms of time and resources? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Sequential Design D. Cohort Effect Study
C. Sequential Design
248
Which design is more complex to design and analyze than cross-sectional or longitudinal studies? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Sequential Design D. Cohort Analysis
C. Sequential Design
249
Which design is still susceptible to some attrition and practice effects? A. Longitudinal Design B. Cross-Sectional Design C. Cohort Study D. Sequential Design
D. Sequential Design
250
Which design may not completely disentangle all developmental influences? A. Sequential Design B. Longitudinal Design C. Cross-Sectional Design D. Cohort Comparison
A. Sequential Design
251
Which design eliminates cohort effects because the same individuals are studied? A. Cross-Sectional Design B. Sequential Design C. Longitudinal Design D. Participant Attrition Design
C. Longitudinal Design
252
Which of the following is NOT listed as a feature of the Sequential Design? A. Separates age effects from cohort effects B. Provides information about both within-individual and between-group age differences C. Completely eliminates all developmental influences D. Can be more efficient than a purely longitudinal study
C. Completely eliminates all developmental influences
253