Part 2 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

focuses on unconscious emotions and drives

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Learning
C. Cognitive
D. Contextual
E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

A. Psychoanalytic

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studies observable behavior

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Learning
C. Cognitive
D. Contextual
E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

B. Learning

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analyzes thought processes

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Learning
C. Cognitive
D. Contextual
E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

C. Cognitive

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emphasizes the impact of the historical, social, and cultural context

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Learning
C. Cognitive
D. Contextual
E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

D. Contextual

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considers evolutionary and biological underpinnings of behavior

A. Psychoanalytic
B. Learning
C. Cognitive
D. Contextual
E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

E. Evolutionary/Sociobiological

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psychic energy or sexual drive that motivates human behavior and shifts its focus to different erogenous zones during each stage

A. Libido
B. Erogenous Zones
C. Fixation

A. Libido

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specific areas of the body that are the primary source of pleasure during each stage

A. Libido
B. Erogenous Zones
C. Fixation

B. Erogenous Zones

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an arrest in development that can show up in adult personality

A. Libido
B. Erogenous Zones
C. Fixation

C. Fixation

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What best defines a theory?

A. A collection of unrelated opinions about behavior

B. A set of logically related concepts or statements that describe, explain development, and predict behavior under certain conditions

C. A broad philosophical worldview

D. A single explanation for a specific phenomenon

B. A set of logically related concepts or statements that describe, explain development, and predict behavior under certain conditions

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Which of the following is a characteristic that makes a theory useful?

A. It must avoid generating research

B. It should remain unchangeable over time

C. It generates research

D. It relies solely on speculation

C. It generates research

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A useful theory must be falsifiable. This means that it:

A. Cannot be tested

B. Must always be proven correct

C. Is based only on opinions

D. Can be tested and potentially disproven

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Which function of theory involves arranging and structuring information meaningfully?

A. Organizing data
B. Eliminating hypotheses
C. Ignoring inconsistencies
D. Avoiding predictions

A. Organizing data

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A theory that guides action primarily helps to:

A. Limit scientific investigation

B. Provide direction for practical application

C. Eliminate internal consistency

D. Replace research with speculation

B. Provide direction for practical application

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Internal consistency in a theory means that the theory:

A. Contains contradictory statements

B. Changes constantly

C. Has logically compatible components

D. Avoids organizing data

C. Has logically compatible components

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Parsimony in theory refers to:

A. Explaining phenomena in the simplest adequate way

B. Adding as many concepts as possible

C. Avoiding predictions

D. Ignoring falsifiability

A. Explaining phenomena in the simplest adequate way

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How does philosophy relate to theory?

A. Philosophy is narrower than theory

B. Philosophy is broader than theory

C. Philosophy and theory are identical

D. Philosophy is unrelated to theory

B. Philosophy is broader than theory

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Speculations differ from theories because speculations are:

A. Logically organized systems
B. Broad frameworks for research
C. Single and isolated ideas
D. Internally consistent systems

C. Single and isolated ideas

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A hypothesis is best described as:

A. A broad philosophical system
B. A taxonomy
C. A complete theory
D. A possible explanation used to predict research outcomes

D. A possible explanation used to predict research outcomes

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Compared to a theory, a hypothesis is:

A. Broader
B. Narrower
C. More complex
D. Less testable

B. Narrower

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Which statement best describes a taxonomy?

A. It is automatically a theory

B. It cannot change over time

C. It does not constitute a theory but can evolve into one

D. It is broader than philosophy

C. It does not constitute a theory but can evolve into one

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In science, theory provides fertile ground for producing:

A. Unrelated speculations
B. Philosophical doctrines
C. Testable hypotheses
D. Emotional conflicts

C. Testable hypotheses

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The Psychosexual Theory was developed by:

A. Erik Erikson
B. Jean Piaget
C. Sigmund Freud
D. John Watson

C. Sigmund Freud

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In the Psychosexual Theory, humans are born with:

A. No innate drives

B. Innate biologically based drives such as hunger, sex, and aggression

C. Only learned behaviors

D. Fully developed moral reasoning

B. Innate biologically based drives such as hunger, sex, and aggression

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Early experiences in Psychosexual Theory are important because they:

A. Have no effect on later functioning

B. Shape later functioning

C. Replace biological drives

D. Eliminate unconscious motives

B. Shape later functioning

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Pleasure Principles A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

A. Id (“It”)

It seeks immediate gratification of all desires, wants, and needs, regardless of social norms or consequences A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

A. Id (“It”)

Reality Principle A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

B. Ego (“I”)

Striving to satisfy the id's desires in realistic and socially appropriate ways A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

B. Ego (“I”)

Morality Principle A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

C. Superego (“over-I”)

Internalized moral standards and ideals that we acquire from our parents, society, and other authority figures A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

C. Superego (“over-I”)

It acts as our conscience, providing guidelines for making judgments and instilling feelings of guilt and pride A. Id (“It”) B. Ego (“I”) C. Superego (“over-I”)

C. Superego (“over-I”)

birth to 12-18 months A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

A. Oral Stage

12–18 months to 3 years A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

B. Anal Stage

3 to 6 years A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

C. Phallic Stage

6 years to puberty A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

D. Latency Stage

Puberty onwards A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

E. Genital Stage

Stage in development governed by the id A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

A. Oral Stage

Erogenous Zone: Mouth (sucking, biting, feeding) A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

A. Oral Stage

Fixations: might manifest as nail-biting, smoking, overeating, or excessive talking A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

A. Oral Stage

Ego develops gradually A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

B. Anal Stage

Erogenous Zone: Anus (bowel and bladder elimination) A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

B. Anal Stage

Superego gradually develops and marked by libido A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

C. Phallic Stage

Erogenous Zone: Genitals A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

C. Phallic Stage

Children become aware of their genitals and the differences between sexes A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

C. Phallic Stage

Fixations: can lead to difficulties in relationships, excessive masculinity or femininity, or sexual anxieties in adulthood A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

C. Phallic Stage

Sexual urges are repressed as children focus on developing social skills, hobbies, and schoolwork A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

D. Latency Stage

Libido is dormant or suppressed A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

D. Latency Stage

Libido redevelops, energy shifts to heterosexual relationships A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

E. Genital Stage

Individuals seek to satisfy their sexual desires in socially acceptable ways A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

E. Genital Stage

Successful navigation of previous stages is believed to lead to a well adjusted adult capable of healthy relationships A. Oral Stage B. Anal Stage C. Phallic Stage D. Latency Stage E. Genital Stage

E. Genital Stage

sucking phase A. Oral Receptive B. Oral Sadistic

A. Oral Receptive

Biting phase A. Oral Receptive B. Oral Sadistic

B. Oral Sadistic

Under gratification A. Oral Passive B. Oral Aggressive

A. Oral Passive

over gratification A. Oral Passive B. Oral Aggressive

B. Oral Aggressive

trusting and dependent A. Oral Passive B. Oral Aggressive

A. Oral Passive

dominating, hostile, and verbally abusive A. Oral Passive B. Oral Aggressive

B. Oral Aggressive

obsessive neatness, orderliness, and control A. Anal-Retentive B. Anal-Expulsive

A. Anal-Retentive

messiness, rebelliousness, and disorganization A. Anal-Retentive B. Anal-Expulsive

B. Anal-Expulsive

Anal Triad stubbornness A. obstinacy B. orderliness C. parsimony

A. obstinacy

Anal Triad Cleanliness A. obstinacy B. orderliness C. parsimony

B. orderliness

Anal Triad Stinginess A. obstinacy B. orderliness C. parsimony

C. parsimony

boys develop sexual attachment to their mothers A. Oedipus Complex B. Castration Anxiety C. Female Oedipus Complex D. Penis Envy

A. Oedipus Complex

a fear of losing one’s genitals as punishment for incestuous feelings toward the mother and murderous feelings toward the father A. Oedipus Complex B. Castration Anxiety C. Female Oedipus Complex D. Penis Envy

B. Castration Anxiety

girls develop sexual attachment to their fathers A. Oedipus Complex B. Castration Anxiety C. Female Oedipus Complex D. Penis Envy

C. Female Oedipus Complex

Electra Complex A. Oedipus Complex B. Castration Anxiety C. Female Oedipus Complex D. Penis Envy

C. Female Oedipus Complex

female children experience profound distress upon realizing they do not have a penis A. Oedipus Complex B. Castration Anxiety C. Female Oedipus Complex D. Penis Envy

D. Penis Envy

Unconsciously pushing threatening or unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and memories out of awareness A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

A. Repression

a person who experienced childhood abuse may have no conscious memory of the events A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

A. Repression

Reverting to an earlier stage of development in response to stress or anxiety A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

B. Regression

a adult throwing a temper tantrum when they don’t get their way A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

B. Regression

Redirecting unacceptable urges or emotions onto a less threatening target A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

C. Displacement

being angry at your boss but yelling at your spouse or children instead A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

C. Displacement

Creating false but seemingly plausible excuses to justify unacceptable behavior or feelings A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

D. Rationalization

a student who cheated on an exam saying "the teacher didn't teach the material, so I had to adapt" A. Repression B. Regression C. Displacement D. Rationalization

D. Rationalization

Refusing to accept reality or facts that are unpleasant or threatening A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

A. Denial

an alcoholic insisting they don’t have a drinking problem despite clear evidence A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

A. Denial

Attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

B. Projection

someone who is secretly angry with a friend constantly accuses the friend of being angry with them A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

B. Projection

Channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable and even admirable behaviors A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

C. Sublimation

aggressive urges being channeled into competitive sports or artistic expression A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

C. Sublimation

Behaving in a way that is the opposite of one’s true unconscious feelings A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

D. Reaction-Formation

someone with unconscious homosexual urges becoming vehemently homophobic A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction-Formation

D. Reaction-Formation

Erikson modified and extended whose theory? A. Carl Jung’s theory B. B.F. Skinner’s theory C. Sigmund Freud’s theory D. Jean Piaget’s theory

C. Sigmund Freud’s theory

Erikson emphasized the influence of ______ on the developing personality. A. Genetics B. Society C. Intelligence D. Instincts

B. Society

Psychosocial theory focuses on the socially and culturally influenced development of the: A. Id B. Superego C. Subconscious D. Ego

D. Ego

In psychosocial theory, the ego is also referred to as the: A. Instinct B. Self C. Drive D. Impulse

B. Self

A crisis in Erikson’s theory is best described as: A. A medical emergency B. A minor inconvenience C. A major psychosocial challenge D. A genetic disorder

C. A major psychosocial challenge

A crisis is particularly important: A. At a specific time in development B. Only during adulthood C. Only during infancy D. After retirement

A. At a specific time in development

A crisis will remain an issue: A. Only during childhood B. Throughout the rest of life to some degree C. Until adolescence D. Only in old age

B. Throughout the rest of life to some degree

The successful outcome of each stage in Erikson’s theory is called a: A. Defense mechanism B. Reflex C. Virtue D. Habit

C. Virtue

A virtue can also be described as a: A. Weakness B. Strength C. Disorder D. Fear

B. Strength

Core pathology refers to: A. A positive developmental trait B. A stage of physical growth C. A type of intelligence D. A negative trait or pattern of behavior

D. A negative trait or pattern of behavior

Core pathology can hinder a person’s: A. Financial stability B. Physical strength C. Development and well-being D. Career choice

C. Development and well-being

Erikson’s theory places importance on which of the following influences? A. Biological maturation alone B. Environmental toxins C. Social and cultural factors D. Reflex conditioning

C. Social and cultural factors

The process of development in Erikson’s theory is described as being influenced by: A. Social and cultural factors B. Only unconscious drives C. Only genetic inheritance D. Only early childhood events

A. Social and cultural factors

Which term refers to a negative behavioral pattern that can interfere with well-being? A. Virtue B. Crisis C. Instinct D. Core pathology

D. Core pathology

Which of the following best defines virtue in psychosocial theory? A. A temporary emotional state B. A successful outcome that reflects strength C. A biological trait D. A learned reflex

B. A successful outcome that reflects strength

In Erikson’s theory, personality development is strongly shaped by: A. Social experiences B. Reflexes C. Hormones only D. Physical growth only

A. Social experiences

A crisis in psychosocial theory is considered: A. Unimportant B. A random event C. A major psychosocial challenge at a specific time D. A permanent disorder

C. A major psychosocial challenge at a specific time

The ego development described in psychosocial theory is influenced by: A. Cultural context B. Muscle growth C. Dietary habits D. Weather conditions

A. Cultural context

Which outcome results from successfully resolving a psychosocial stage? A. Core pathology B. Virtue C. Crisis D. Conflict avoidance

B. Virtue

Which of the following is NOT identified as part of Erikson’s psychosocial theory? A. Crisis B. Virtue C. Core pathology D. Classical conditioning

D. Classical conditioning

Withdrawal A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

A. Infancy

Compulsion A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

B. Toddlerhood

Inhibition A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

C. Early Childhood

Inertia A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

D. Middle and Late Childhood

Role Repudiation A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

A. Adolescence

Exclusivity A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

B. Young Adulthood

Rejectivity A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

C. Middle Adulthood

Disdain A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

D. Late Adulthood

Trust vs. Mistrust A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

A. Infancy

Hope A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

A. Infancy

Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

B. Toddlerhood

Will A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

B. Toddlerhood

Initiative vs. Guilt A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

C. Early Childhood

Purpose A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

C. Early Childhood

Industry vs Inferiority A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

D. Middle and Late Childhood

Competence A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early Childhood D. Middle and Late Childhood

D. Middle and Late Childhood

Identity vs. Role Confusion A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

A. Adolescence

Fidelity A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

A. Adolescence

Intimacy vs. Isolation A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

B. Young Adulthood

Love A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

B. Young Adulthood

Generativity vs. Stagnation A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

C. Middle Adulthood

Care A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

C. Middle Adulthood

Integrity vs. Despair A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

D. Late Adulthood

Wisdom A. Adolescence B. Young Adulthood C. Middle Adulthood D. Late Adulthood

D. Late Adulthood

Children’s cognitive development advances through: A. A continuous process with no clear stages B. A single stage of gradual improvement C. A series of four stages involving qualitatively distinct mental operations D. Two stages focused only on memory and language

C. A series of four stages involving qualitatively distinct mental operations

Intelligence is viewed as: A. A fixed trait determined at birth B. A process that helps an organism adapt to its environment C. The ability to memorize facts quickly D. A measure of academic achievement

B. A process that helps an organism adapt to its environment

Constructivism emphasizes that children: A. Passively absorb information from adults B. Learn only through reinforcement C. Develop understanding through genetic programming alone D. Actively construct new understandings of the world based on their experiences

D. Actively construct new understandings of the world based on their experiences

Schemes are best described as: A. Random behaviors without structure B. Organized patterns of thought and behavior used in particular situations C. Emotional reactions to unfamiliar events D. Temporary memory traces

B. Organized patterns of thought and behavior used in particular situations

Organization refers to the tendency to: A. Memorize information exactly as presented B. Adjust behavior only when forced C. Create categories or systems of knowledge D. Imitate others without understanding

C. Create categories or systems of knowledge

Adaptation involves: A. Ignoring unfamiliar information B. Repeating behaviors without change C. Memorizing environmental stimuli D. Handling new information in light of what is already known

D. Handling new information in light of what is already known

Which of the following is a component of adaptation? A. Conditioning B. Assimilation C. Reinforcement D. Reflection

B. Assimilation

Assimilation occurs when children: A. Reject new information completely B. Adjust their cognitive structures to match new information C. Incorporate new information into existing cognitive structures D. Forget previously learned material

C. Incorporate new information into existing cognitive structures

Accommodation refers to: A. Taking new information and fitting it into existing cognitive structures without change B. Ignoring conflicting observations C. Adjusting one’s cognitive structures to fit new information D. Organizing information into categories

C. Adjusting one’s cognitive structures to fit new information

Equilibration reflects the idea that children: A. Prefer confusion over understanding B. Want what they understand of the world to match what they observe C. Avoid new experiences D. Rely solely on prior knowledge

B. Want what they understand of the world to match what they observe

The three interrelated cognitive processes include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Organization B. Adaptation C. Reinforcement D. Equilibration

C. Reinforcement

Which process explains the creation of categories or systems of knowledge? A. Accommodation B. Organization C. Equilibration D. Assimilation

B. Organization

When children adjust their thinking because new information does not fit, they are engaging in: A. Assimilation B. Organization C. Accommodation D. Equilibration

C. Accommodation

When children incorporate new experiences into their current understanding without changing it, they are using: A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Equilibration D. Organization

A. Assimilation

The desire to maintain consistency between understanding and observation is known as: A. Adaptation B. Organization C. Equilibration D. Assimilation

C. Equilibration

Adaptation consists specifically of: A. Organization and equilibration B. Assimilation and accommodation C. Schemes and categories D. Observation and imitation

B. Assimilation and accommodation

In this framework, cognitive development is characterized by: A. Random and unrelated changes B. A single pattern of mental operations C. Four stages with qualitatively distinct mental operations D. Continuous quantitative growth only

C. Four stages with qualitatively distinct mental operations

Organized patterns of thought and behavior used in specific situations are called: A. Equilibrations B. Adaptations C. Accommodations D. Schemes

D. Schemes

The process of handling new information based on existing knowledge is: A. Adaptation B. Organization C. Equilibration D. Categorization

A. Adaptation

The tendency to form systems of knowledge supports which broader cognitive process? A. Equilibration B. Adaptation C. Organization D. Accommodation

C. Organization

birth to 2 years old A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

A. Sensorimotor Stage

infants learn about themselves and their world through their developing sensory and motor activity A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

A. Sensorimotor Stage

2 to 7 years old A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

B. Preoperational Stage

characterized by an expansion in the use of symbolic thought. However, children are not yet fully ready to engage in logical mental operation A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

B. Preoperational Stage

7 to 11 years old A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

they can think logically because they can take multiple aspects of a situation into account. However, their thinking is still limited to real situations in the here and now A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

the highest level of cognitive development, when they move away from their reliance on concrete, real-world stimuli and develop the capacity for abstract thought A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

11 through adulthood A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

an infant learns to reproduce events originally discovered by chance A. Circular Reactions B. Representational Ability C. Object Permanence D. Dual Representation Hypothesis

A. Circular Reactions

Stage Attainment: Object Permanence A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

A. Sensorimotor Stage

the ability to mentally represent objects and actions in memory, largely through symbols such as words, numbers, and mental picture A. Circular Reactions B. Representational Ability C. Object Permanence D. Dual Representation Hypothesis

B. Representational Ability

the realization that something continues to exist when out of sight A. Circular Reactions B. Representational Ability C. Object Permanence D. Dual Representation Hypothesis

C. Object Permanence

children under age of 3 have difficulty grasping spatial relationships because of the indeed to keep more than one mental representation in mind at the same time A. Circular Reactions B. Representational Ability C. Object Permanence D. Dual Representation Hypothesis

D. Dual Representation Hypothesis

Birth to 1 month A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

A. Use of Reflexes

Infants exercise their informed reflexes and gain some control over them A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

A. Use of Reflexes

Repeat pleasurable behaviors that first occur by chance (such as thumbsucking) A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

1 to 4 months A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

B. Primary Circular Reactions

Become more interested in the environment; they repeat actions that bring interesting results and prolong interesting experiences A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

C. Secondary Circular Reactions

4 to 8 months A. Use of Reflexes B. Primary Circular Reactions C. Secondary Circular Reactions

C. Secondary Circular Reactions

Coordinate previously learned schemes and use previously learned behaviors to attain their goals A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

8 to 12 months A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes

Toddlers show curiosity and experimentation A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

12 to 18 months A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

Trial and error A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

B. Tertiary Circular Reactions

18 to 24 months A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

C. Mental Coordination

They can think about events and anticipate their consequences without always resorting to action A. Coordination of Secondary Schemes B. Tertiary Circular Reactions C. Mental Coordination

C. Mental Coordination

2 to 4 years old A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

A. Symbolic Function

being able to think about something in the absence of sensory or motor cues A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

A. Symbolic Function

children imitate an action at some point after having observed it A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

B. Deferred Imitation

also called fantasy play, dramatic play, or imaginary play, in which play is involving imaginary people and situations A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

C. Pretend Play

4 to 7 years old A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

D. Intuitive Thought

begin to use primitive reasoning and want to know the answers to all sort of questions A. Symbolic Function B. Deferred Imitation C. Pretend Play D. Intuitive Thought

D. Intuitive Thought

tendency mentally link particular phenomena, whether or not there is logically a causal relationship A. Transduction B. Identities C. Animism D. Artificialism

A. Transduction

people and many things are basically the same even if they change in outward form, size, or appearance A. Transduction B. Identities C. Animism D. Artificialism

B. Identities

attribute life to objects that are not alive A. Transduction B. Identities C. Animism D. Artificialism

C. Animism

the belief that natural phenomena are created by humans, while transductive reasoning is a type of logic where children link unrelated events to draw conclusions A. Transduction B. Identities C. Animism D. Artificialism

D. Artificialism

tendency to focus on one aspects of a situation and neglect others A. Centration B. Decenter C. Irreversibility D. Egocentrism E. Conservation

A. Centration

think about several aspects of a situation at one time A. Centration B. Decenter C. Irreversibility D. Egocentrism E. Conservation

B. Decenter

failure to understand that an action can go in two or more directions A. Centration B. Decenter C. Irreversibility D. Egocentrism E. Conservation

C. Irreversibility

assume everyone else thinks, perceives and feels as they do A. Centration B. Decenter C. Irreversibility D. Egocentrism E. Conservation

D. Egocentrism

two objects that are equal remain so if their appearance is altered, as long as nothing is added or taken away A. Centration B. Decenter C. Irreversibility D. Egocentrism E. Conservation

E. Conservation

Stage Attainment: Theory of Mind A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

B. Preoperational Stage

Stage Attainment: Conservation A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

allows to interpret maps and navigate environment A. Spatial Concepts B. Causality C. Seriation

A. Spatial Concepts

makes judgment about cause and effects A. Spatial Concepts B. Causality C. Seriation

B. Causality

arranging objects in a series according to one or more dimensions A. Spatial Concepts B. Causality C. Seriation

C. Seriation

Understanding the relationship between two objects by knowing the relationship of each to a third object (if a

A. Transitive Inferences

193

the ability to see the relationship between a whole and its parts, and to understand the categories within a whole A. Transitive Inferences B. Class Inclusion C. Inductive Reasoning D. Conservation

B. Class Inclusion

194

type of logical reasoning that moves from particular observation about members of a class to general conclusion about that class A. Transitive Inferences B. Class Inclusion C. Inductive Reasoning D. Conservation

C. Inductive Reasoning

195

understand the principles of identity, reversibility, and can now decenter A. Transitive Inferences B. Class Inclusion C. Inductive Reasoning D. Conservation

D. Conservation

196

Stage Attainment: Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning A. Sensorimotor Stage B. Preoperational Stage C. Concrete Operational Stage D. Formal Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

197

type of logical reasoning that moves from a general premise about a class to a conclusion about a particular member or member of the class A. Deductive Reasoning B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model

A. Deductive Reasoning

198

involves a methodical, scientific approach to problem solving, and it characterizes formal operational thinking A. Deductive Reasoning B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model

B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning

199

decision making is influenced by two cognitive systems: verbatim analytical and gist-institutional which operated in parallel A. Deductive Reasoning B. Hypothetical-Deductive Reasoning C. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model

C. Fuzzy-Trace Theory Dual-Process Model

200

David Elkind A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism B. Self-Consciousness C. Imaginary Audience D. Personal Fable

A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism

201

The new way of thinking of adolescents, the way they look at themselves and their world, is as unfamiliar to them as their reshaped bodies, and they sometimes feel just awkward in its use A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism B. Self-Consciousness C. Imaginary Audience D. Personal Fable

A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism

202

adolescents can think about thinking their own and the other people’s thoughts A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism B. Self-Consciousness C. Imaginary Audience D. Personal Fable

B. Self-Consciousness

203

a conceptualized “observer” who is concerned with a young person’s thoughts and behavior as he or she is A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism B. Self-Consciousness C. Imaginary Audience D. Personal Fable

C. Imaginary Audience

204

belief that they are special, their experience in unique, and they are not subject to the rules that govern the rest of the world A. Adolescent’s Egocentrism B. Self-Consciousness C. Imaginary Audience D. Personal Fable

D. Personal Fable

205

As children attain higher cognitive levels, they become capable of: A. Ignoring moral issues entirely B. Memorizing rules without understanding them C. More complex reasoning about moral issues D. Avoiding social interactions

C. More complex reasoning about moral issues

206

Kohlberg placed too much emphasis on: A. Moral behavior over moral thought B. Moral thought over moral behavior C. Emotional development D. Cultural traditions

B. Moral thought over moral behavior

207

In the Cosmic Stage, individuals consider the effects of their actions on: A. Their family only B. The legal system C. Their peer group D. The universe as a whole

D. The universe as a whole

208

Carol Gilligan argued that Kohlberg’s theory was: A. Scientifically inaccurate B. Too complex for children C. Sexist and oriented toward values more important to men D. Focused too much on emotions

C. Sexist and oriented toward values more important to men

209

Gilligan stated that men tend to view morality in terms of: A. Caring and empathy B. Justice and fairness C. Social harmony D. Religious obedience

B. Justice and fairness

210

According to Gilligan, women tend to prioritize which values more highly than justice? A. Authority and obedience B. Independence and autonomy C. Tradition and loyalty D. Caring and avoiding harm

D. Caring and avoiding harm

211

In Piaget’s Heteronomous Morality stage, children see rules as: A. Flexible guidelines B. Social agreements C. Absolute and unchangeable D. Suggestions created by peers

C. Absolute and unchangeable

212

Heteronomous Morality typically occurs between approximately: A. 2–4 years B. 5–9 years C. 9–12 years D. 13–18 years

B. 5–9 years

213

The belief that punishment will happen immediately after a rule is broken is known as: A. Moral relativism B. Social contract theory C. Immanent justice D. Ethical autonomy

C. Immanent justice

214

Moral realism refers to the belief that: A. Morality is determined by intentions B. Morality is objective and resides in the rules themselves C. Morality depends on cultural context D. Morality is based on emotional responses

B. Morality is objective and resides in the rules themselves

215

In Heteronomous Morality, children believe morality resides in: A. Intentions and agreements B. Cultural traditions C. Personal opinions D. The rules themselves

D. The rules themselves

216

Autonomous Morality typically begins at approximately: A. 3–4 years B. 5–7 years C. 9/10 years and older D. 15 years and older

C. 9/10 years and older

217

In Autonomous Morality, rules are viewed as: A. Absolute truths B. Social agreements created by people C. Divine commands D. Biological instincts

B. Social agreements created by people

218

Children in the Autonomous Morality stage focus primarily on: A. Consequences only B. Rewards and punishments C. Intentions as well as consequences D. Immediate authority approval

C. Intentions as well as consequences

219

Autonomous Morality involves a rejection of: A. Moral relativism B. Immanent justice C. Social agreements D. Intentions

B. Immanent justice

220

Moral relativism is the understanding that moral rules are: A. Absolute and universal B. Determined by punishment C. Fixed by authority figures D. Relative to specific situations and cultural contexts

D. Relative to specific situations and cultural contexts

221

In Heteronomous Morality, children view justice and rules as: A. Controlled by people B. Negotiable between peers C. Unchangeable properties of the world D. Dependent on cultural context

C. Unchangeable properties of the world

222

In Autonomous Morality, children become aware that rules and laws are: A. Natural laws B. Created by people C. Unrelated to society D. Enforced automatically by the universe

D. Enforced automatically by the universe

223

Which stage includes the concept of moral realism? A. Autonomous Morality B. Cosmic Stage C. Heteronomous Morality D. Moral Relativism

C. Heteronomous Morality

224

Which perspective emphasizes caring and avoiding harm as higher goals than justice? A. Kohlberg’s theory B. Piaget’s theory C. Moral realism D. Carol Gilligan’s perspective

D. Carol Gilligan’s perspective

225

Kohlberg’s critics argue that his theory does not sufficiently emphasize: A. Justice B. Fairness C. Moral behavior D. Logical reasoning

C. Moral behavior

226

In the Cosmic Stage, individuals expand moral consideration beyond other people to include: A. Legal authorities B. Cultural norms C. Personal emotions D. The universe as a whole

D. The universe as a whole

227

Birth to 9 years old A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

A. Preconventional Morality

228

they obey rules to avoid punishment or reap rewards, or they act out of self-interest A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

A. Preconventional Morality

229

Obedience and Punishment Orientation A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

A. Preconventional Morality

230

Individualism and Exchange A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

A. Preconventional Morality

231

9 to 20 years old A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

B. Conventional Morality

232

individuals internalize societal norms and value maintaining social order A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

B. Conventional Morality

233

Interpersonal Accord and Conformity A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

B. Conventional Morality

234

Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

B. Conventional Morality

235

20 onwards A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

C. Postconventional Morality

236

recognize conflicts between moral standards and make their own judgments on the basis of principles of right, fairness, and justice A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

C. Postconventional Morality

237

Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

C. Postconventional Morality

238

Universal Ethical Principles A. Preconventional Morality B. Conventional Morality C. Postconventional Morality

C. Postconventional Morality

239

children obey rules to avoid punishment A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation B. Individualism and Exchange C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation

240

children conform rules out of self interest and consideration for what others can do for them A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation B. Individualism and Exchange C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

B. Individualism and Exchange

241

(Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation) A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation B. Individualism and Exchange C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

242

want to please and help others, can judge the intentions of others, and develop their own ideas of what a good person is A. Obedience and Punishment Orientation B. Individualism and Exchange C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

C. Interpersonal Accord and Conformity

243

Law and Order Morality A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation B. Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation C. Universal Ethical Principles

A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation

244

it is their duty to uphold the law A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation B. Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation C. Universal Ethical Principles

A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation

245

laws are created for the greater good but can be changed through democratic processes if they infringe on individual rights A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation B. Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation C. Universal Ethical Principles

B. Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation

246

based on internalized universal principles of justice, equality, and human rights A. Authority and Social-Order Maintaining Orientation B. Social Contract and Individual Rights Orientation C. Universal Ethical Principles

C. Universal Ethical Principles

247

Bioecological Systems Theory identifies how many levels of environmental influence? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

C. Five

248

In Bioecological Systems Theory, the child is described as: A. A passive outcome of development B. An active shaper of development C. Entirely controlled by culture D. Independent of environmental influence

B. An active shaper of development

249

To understand development, the child must be viewed within: A. Genetic influences only B. A single primary environment C. Classroom interactions only D. Multiple surrounding environments

D. Multiple surrounding environments

250

The microsystem refers to the child’s: A. Cultural belief system B. Historical timeline C. Everyday environment such as home or school D. National political structure

C. Everyday environment such as home or school

251

Which characteristic best defines the microsystem? A. Indirect influence on the child B. Direct contact with the child C. Historical life transitions D. Cultural ideologies

B. Direct contact with the child

252

The mesosystem involves: A. Interaction between child microsystems B. Political and economic systems C. Long-term developmental potential D. Events beyond the child’s lifetime

A. Interaction between child microsystems

253

A parent-teacher conference is an example of: A. Microsystem B. Exosystem C. Mesosystem D. Chronosystem

C. Mesosystem

254

The exosystem includes: A. Direct peer interactions B. Interactions between a microsystem and an outside institution C. Cultural belief systems D. Independent skill mastery

B. Interactions between a microsystem and an outside institution

255

In the exosystem, the child: A. Is directly involved in all interactions B. Controls external institutions C. Is not involved but is still affected D. Is unaware of developmental influence

C. Is not involved but is still affected

256

Which of the following belongs to the exosystem? A. Neighborhood playgroup B. Parent’s employment C. Classroom discussion D. Child’s personal beliefs

B. Parent’s employment

257

The macrosystem refers to: A. Interactions between peer groups B. Major life transitions C. Family routines D. Overarching cultural patterns

D. Overarching cultural patterns

258

Dominant beliefs, ideologies, and economic systems are part of the: A. Mesosystem B. Microsystem C. Macrosystem D. ZPD

C. Macrosystem

259

The chronosystem represents: A. Cultural ideology B. Interaction of peer groups C. The dimension of time D. Direct contact settings

C. The dimension of time

260

Major life transitions and historical events belong to the: A. Exosystem B. Chronosystem C. Microsystem D. ZAD

B. Chronosystem

261

Nonnormative events are included in the: A. Chronosystem B. Mesosystem C. Macrosystem D. ZDD

A. Chronosystem

262

Sociocultural Theory states that cognitive development is shaped by: A. Biological inheritance alone B. Sociocultural context C. Independent exploration only D. Political institutions

B. Sociocultural context

263

Cognitive development grows out of children’s interaction with: A. The natural environment B. Media only C. Genetic predisposition D. Members of the culture

D. Members of the culture

264

Scaffolding refers to: A. Permanent instructional control B. Independent practice without guidance C. Temporary support within the ZPD D. Cultural belief systems

C. Temporary support within the ZPD

265

The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is the gap between: A. Cultural and political systems B. Home and school environments C. What a learner can do independently and with assistance D. Past and future life events

C. What a learner can do independently and with assistance

266

The ZPD represents: A. Completed development B. The potential for learning and growth C. Cultural ideology D. Historical transitions

B. The potential for learning and growth

267

Learning within the ZPD is facilitated by interaction with a: A. Peer of equal knowledge B. Political institution C. More knowledgeable other (MKO) D. Historical event

C. More knowledgeable other (MKO)

268

The Zone of Actual Development (ZAD) refers to: A. Skills beyond immediate reach B. Broader cultural influence C. Historical life events D. Current independent capabilities

D. Current independent capabilities

269

The Zone of Distal Development (ZDD) describes: A. Interaction between microsystems B. Skills beyond immediate reach or long-term potential C. Direct daily environment D. Temporary instructional support

B. Skills beyond immediate reach or long-term potential

270

The ZDD may also include: A. Parent-teacher conferences B. Family employment C. Broader cultural influences on development D. Independent task mastery

C. Broader cultural influences on development

271

Which system focuses on interaction between the family and peer group? A. Mesosystem B. Macrosystem C. Exosystem D. Chronosystem

A. Mesosystem

272

Reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver, each of whom contributes to the quality of relationships A. Attachment B. Strange Situation C. Stranger Anxiety

A. Attachment

273

designed to assess attachment patterns between infant and adult A. Attachment B. Strange Situation C. Stranger Anxiety

B. Strange Situation

274

wariness of a person he/she does not know A. Attachment B. Strange Situation C. Stranger Anxiety

C. Stranger Anxiety

275

crying when caregiver leaves A. Separation Protest B. Mutual Regulation C. Social Referencing

A. Separation Protest

276

the ability of both infant and caregiver to respond appropriately and sensitively to each other’s mental and emotional states A. Separation Protest B. Mutual Regulation C. Social Referencing

B. Mutual Regulation

277

seeking emotional information to guide behavior A. Separation Protest B. Mutual Regulation C. Social Referencing

C. Social Referencing

278

Generally become visibly upset when their caregivers leave and are happy when their parents return. When frightened, these children will seek comfort from the parent or caregiver A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

A. Secure Attachment

279

Parenting Style: sensitive and responsive A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

A. Secure Attachment

280

Might not reject attention from a parent, but neither do they seek out comfort or contact. Children with an avoidant attachment show no preference between a parent and a complete stranger A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment

281

Parenting Style: inconsistent, often unresponsive A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment

282

Tend to be extremely suspicious of strangers. These children display considerable distress when separated from a parent or caregiver but do not seem reassured or comforted by the parent’s return A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment

283

Parenting Style: rejecting unresponsive, or intrusive-overly stimulating A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment

284

Show a lack of clear attachment behavior. Their actions and responses to caregivers are often a mix of behaviors, including avoidance or resistance A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

285

Parenting Style: frightened and frightening A. Secure Attachment B. Avoidant (Insecure) Attachment C. Ambivalent (Resistant) Attachment D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

D. Disorganized-Disoriented Attachment

286

Stage 1 of Attachment Development A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

A. birth to 3 months

287

Stage 2 of Attachment Development A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

B. 3 to 6 months

288

Stage 3 of Attachment Development A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

C. 6 to 9 months

289

Stage 4 of Attachment Development A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

D. 9 to 12 months

290

Stage 5 of Attachment Development A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

E. 12 months and older

291

infants uses sucking, rooting, grasping, smiling, etc., to maintain closeness with caregivers A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

A. birth to 3 months

292

more responsive to familiar figures than to strangers A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

B. 3 to 6 months

293

infants seeks physical proximity and contact with objects of attachment A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

C. 6 to 9 months

294

infants form internal mental representation of object of attachment, including expectations about caregiver’s typical responses to signals of distress A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

D. 9 to 12 months

295

child uses variety of behaviors to influence behavior of the objects of attachment ways that will satisfy needs for safety and closeness A. birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 9 months D. 9 to 12 months E. 12 months and older

E. 12 months and older

296

The Attachment Behavior System is best described as: A. A cognitive process that develops during adolescence B. A complex set of reflexes and signaling behaviors that bring about caregiving responses from adults C. A learned behavioral pattern shaped primarily by peers D. A motor development milestone

B. A complex set of reflexes and signaling behaviors that bring about caregiving responses from adults

297

The attachment system is activated when: A. The child is exploring independently B. The child feels completely secure C. The child is frightened or separated from the mother D. The child achieves motor milestones

C. The child is frightened or separated from the mother

298

When the attachment system is activated, the child primarily seeks: A. Increased independence B. Proximity or physical closeness to the mother C. Interaction with unfamiliar adults D. New environmental stimuli

B. Proximity or physical closeness to the mother

299

The child’s motivation within the attachment system is to attain: A. Cognitive mastery B. Physical strength C. Social dominance D. A sense of security

D. A sense of security

300

When the child feels secure: A. The exploratory system is deactivated B. The attachment system remains highly active C. The attachment system is deactivated and the exploratory system is turned on D. Separation anxiety begins

C. The attachment system is deactivated and the exploratory system is turned on

301

Attachment is described as a: A. Secondary learned behavior B. Primary drive C. Social preference D. Temporary developmental stag

B. Primary drive

302

The Principle of Monotropy refers to the need to: A. Attach equally to multiple caregivers B. Avoid dependence on caregivers C. Form attachment to one significant person D. Develop self-concept early

C. Form attachment to one significant person

303

The Internal Working Model of Attachment develops through: A. Genetic predisposition alone B. Motor exploration C. Formal teaching D. Repeated attachment experiences

D. Repeated attachment experiences

304

The Internal Working Model leads the child to develop expectations about: A. Peer relationships B. The availability and responsiveness of the mother C. Academic performance D. Physical coordination

B. The availability and responsiveness of the mother

305

Separation anxiety is defined as: A. Fear of strangers B. Anger toward siblings C. Distress when a familiar caregiver leaves D. Refusal to explore new environments

C. Distress when a familiar caregiver leaves

306

During the protest stage of separation anxiety, the infant: A. Becomes quiet and passive B. Shows emotional detachment C. Cries and resists soothing from others D. Displays independence

C. Cries and resists soothing from others

307

The despair stage of separation anxiety is characterized by: A. Increased exploration B. Quiet, sad, passive, and apathetic behavior C. Clinging and tantrums D. Immediate recovery

B. Quiet, sad, passive, and apathetic behavior

308

During the detachment stage, infants: A. Intensify crying B. Become emotionally detached from other people C. Show heightened curiosity D. Demonstrate secure exploration

B. Become emotionally detached from other people

309

Psychological birth in Separation-Individuation Theory focuses on: A. Biological maturation B. Language development C. Independence from total dependence to relative independence D. Peer attachment

C. Independence from total dependence to relative independence

310

Psychological birth occurs within: A. The first 12 months B. The first 36 months C. The first 5 years D. Adolescence

B. The first 36 months

311

Successful completion of early developmental stages results in: A. Increased dependence B. Separation and individuation C. Emotional detachment D. Regression

B. Separation and individuation

312

Separation refers to: A. Physical distance from caregivers B. Emotional rejection C. Internal process of mental separation D. Social withdrawal

C. Internal process of mental separation

313

Individuation involves: A. Developing self-concept B. Avoiding caregivers C. Motor skill mastery D. Language acquisition

A. Developing self-concept

314

During the Normal Autistic Phase (0–1 month), the infant: A. Is highly socially engaged B. Shows little social engagement C. Actively explores caregivers D. Demonstrates object constancy

D. Demonstrates object constancy

315

The primary goal of the Normal Autistic Phase is to: A. Develop motor skills B. Achieve a state of equilibrium C. Form peer attachments D. Establish object constancy

B. Achieve a state of equilibrium

316

In the Normal Autistic Phase, the infant: A. Understands needs are satisfied externally B. Is highly aware of the mother C. Lacks understanding that need satisfaction may come from an external source D. Engages in customs inspection

C. Lacks understanding that need satisfaction may come from an external source

317

During the Normal Symbiotic Phase (1–5 months), the child: A. Has a strong sense of individuality B. Gains awareness of caregivers but has no sense of individuality C. Shows detachment D. Develops object constancy

B. Gains awareness of caregivers but has no sense of individuality

318

In the Normal Symbiotic Phase, the mother is acknowledged as: A. A separate individual B. The main source of need-satisfaction C. A temporary caregiver D. A peer figure

B. The main source of need-satisfaction

319

The Separation-Individuation Phase occurs approximately between: A. 0–5 months B. 1–12 months C. 5–24+ months D. 24–36 months

C. 5–24+ months

320

During Differentiation (5–10 months), infants: A. Become less interested in the external world B. Show increased exploration of the mother’s face and body C. Demonstrate object constancy D. Avoid physical distancing

B. Show increased exploration of the mother’s face and body

321

The term “customs inspection” refers to: A. The infant’s clinging behavior B. Motor skill development C. Exploration of the mother’s face and body D. Emotional detachment

C. Exploration of the mother’s face and body

322

During Practicing (10–16 months), infants experience: A. Sadness and apathy B. Fear of independence C. Exhilaration and relative obliviousness to minor dangers D. Complete detachment

C. Exhilaration and relative obliviousness to minor dangers

323

In the Practicing subphase, the mother functions as a: A. Disciplinarian B. Secure base for emotional refueling C. Peer companion D. Distant observer

B. Secure base for emotional refueling

324

Rapprochement (16–24 months) is marked by: A. Complete independence B. Growing need for the mother to share experiences C. Lack of awareness of separateness D. Emotional detachment

B. Growing need for the mother to share experiences

325

Behaviors seen during Rapprochement may include: A. Quiet passivity B. Reduced interaction C. Clinging behavior and temper tantrums D. Complete self-sufficiency

C. Clinging behavior and temper tantrums

326

Object Constancy (24+ months) involves understanding that: A. The mother disappears when out of sight B. The mother exists only during interaction C. The mother exists as a separate individual even when not physically present D. The mother is part of the self

C. The mother exists as a separate individual even when not physically present

327

Object Constancy allows the child to: A. Eliminate separation anxiety entirely B. Internalize a mental representation of the mother that provides comfort and security C. Avoid forming attachments D. Re-enter the Normal Autistic Phase

B. Internalize a mental representation of the mother that provides comfort and security

328

Proposed that the achievement of a stable sense of identity involves two key dimensions: Crisis & commitment A. James Watson B. James Moriarty C. James Taylor D. James Marcia

D. James Marcia

329

actively considering various options and beliefs A. Crisis B. Commitment

A. Crisis

330

making a firm decision and adhering to a particular path A. Crisis B. Commitment

B. Commitment

331

Low Exploration, Low Commitment A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

A. Identity Diffusion

332

Individuals in this status have not actively explored different options and have not made any firm commitments regarding their identity in areas like occupation, ideology, and relationships A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

A. Identity Diffusion

333

Low Exploration, High Commitment A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

B. Identity Foreclosure

334

These individuals have made commitments without actively exploring alternatives. Their identities are often based on the beliefs and values of their parents, family, or community, which they have accepted without question A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

B. Identity Foreclosure

335

High Exploration, Low Commitment A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

C. Identity Moratorium

336

Individuals in moratorium are actively exploring various options, roles, and beliefs but have not yet made firm commitments A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

C. Identity Moratorium

337

This is often experienced as a period of questioning, searching, and trying out different possibilities A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

C. Identity Moratorium

338

High Exploration, High Commitment A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

D. Identity Achievement

339

Individuals in this status have gone through a period of exploration, considered different options, and have now made firm commitments to a particular identity A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

D. Identity Achievement

340

They have a strong sense of self, are clear about their values and goals, and feel a sense of purpose A. Identity Diffusion B. Identity Foreclosure C. Identity Moratorium D. Identity Achievement

D. Identity Achievement

341

What does MAMA stand for? A. Mora–Achieve–Mora–Achieve B. Moratorium–Achievement–Moratorium–Achievement C. Mora–Achie–Mora–Achie D. Mora–Achievement–Mora–Foreclosure

C. Mora–Achie–Mora–Achie

342

The MAMA Cycle is described as what type of pattern? A. A regression model B. A progression C. A classification system D. A personality scale

B. A progression

343

The progression in the MAMA Cycle often begins with which of the following? A. Achievement B. Moratorium C. Mora D. Diffusion or foreclosure

D. Diffusion or foreclosure

344

After diffusion or foreclosure, the progression moves to: A. Achievement B. Mora C. Moratorium D. Diffusion

C. Moratorium

345

The ideal final stage of the progression is: A. Foreclosure B. Diffusion C. Moratorium D. Achievement

D. Achievement

346

Which sequence best represents the typical movement described in the MAMA Cycle? A. Achievement → Moratorium → Diffusion B. Diffusion or Foreclosure → Moratorium → Achievement C. Moratorium → Diffusion → Foreclosure D. Mora → Diffusion → Mora

B. Diffusion or Foreclosure → Moratorium → Achievement

347

Which of the following stages is identified as an ideal endpoint? A. Moratorium B. Foreclosure C. Achievement D. Diffusion

C. Achievement

348

In the MAMA Cycle, diffusion and foreclosure are positioned: A. As the final stages B. As possible starting points C. As identical to achievement D. As interchangeable with moratorium

B. As possible starting points

349

Which pair of stages is mentioned together as part of the initial movement in the progression? A. Moratorium and Achievement B. Mora and Achie C. Diffusion and Foreclosure D. Achievement and Diffusion

C. Diffusion and Foreclosure

350

The progression ideally moves toward which stage after moratorium? A. Foreclosure B. Achievement C. Diffusion D. Mora

B. Achievement

351

The structure Mora–Achie–Mora–Achie represents: A. A fixed linear path without variation B. A repeating pattern C. A single-stage model D. An unrelated acronym

B. A repeating pattern

352

Which of the following stages is NOT mentioned as part of the progression? A. Diffusion B. Foreclosure C. Integration D. Achievement

C. Integration

Part 2 Flashcards

(353 cards)