Part 4 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

Q

seeing oneself as a sexual being, recognizing one’s sexual orientation, and forming romantic or sexual attachments

A. Sexual Identity
B. Sexual Orientation
C. Heterosexual
D. Homosexual

A

A. Sexual Identity

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Q

focus of consistent sexual, romantic, and affectionate interest, either heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual

A. Sexual Identity
B. Sexual Orientation
C. Heterosexual
D. Homosexual

A

B. Sexual Orientation

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Q

sexually attracted to persons of the other sex both sexes

A. Sexual Identity
B. Sexual Orientation
C. Heterosexual
D. Homosexual

A

C. Heterosexual

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Q

sexually attracted to persons of the same sex

A. Sexual Identity
B. Sexual Orientation
C. Heterosexual
D. Homosexual

A

D. Homosexual

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Q

sexually attracted to both sex

A. Bisexual
B. Transgender
C. Transexual
D. Genderqueer

A

A. Bisexual

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Q

individuals whose biological sex at birth and gender identity are not the same

A. Bisexual
B. Transgender
C. Transexual
D. Genderqueer

A

B. Transgender

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Q

people who seek medical assistance to permanently transition to their preferred gender

A. Bisexual
B. Transgender
C. Transexual
D. Genderqueer

A

C. Transexual

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Q

a wide range of variable identities that may be neither fully male nor fully female

A. Bisexual
B. Transgender
C. Transexual
D. Genderqueer

A

D. Genderqueer

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Q

time out, from developmental pressures and allows young people the freedom to experiment with various roles and lifestyles

A. Moratorium
B. Recentering
C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood
D. During Emerging Adulthood
E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

A

A. Moratorium

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Q

the process that underlies the shift to an adult identity

A. Moratorium
B. Recentering
C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood
D. During Emerging Adulthood
E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

A

B. Recentering

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Q

the individual is still embedded in the family of origin, but expectations for self-reliance and self-directedness begin to increase

A. Moratorium
B. Recentering
C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood
D. During Emerging Adulthood
E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

A

C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood

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Q

remains connected to but no longer embedded within the family of origin and/or still not financially capable but no longer lives in the family’s home

A. Moratorium
B. Recentering
C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood
D. During Emerging Adulthood
E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

A

D. During Emerging Adulthood

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Q

independence from the family of origin and commitment to a career, a partner, and possibly children

A. Moratorium
B. Recentering
C. The Beginning of the Emerging Adulthood
D. During Emerging Adulthood
E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

A

E. Stage 3 (Age 30)

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Q

During adolescence, the primary developmental task is:

A. Establishing financial independence

B. Developing a coherent sense of self and societal role

C. Forming long-term romantic partnerships

D. Achieving generativity

A

B. Developing a coherent sense of self and societal role

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Q

The virtue developed during Identity vs. Role Confusion is:

A. Love
B. Wisdom
C. Fidelity
D. Integrity

A

C. Fidelity

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Q

Fidelity refers to:

A. Emotional independence from family

B. Sustained loyalty, faith, or sense of belonging

C. Avoidance of commitment

D. Romantic attachment

A

B. Sustained loyalty, faith, or sense of belonging

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Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three major issues in forming identity?

A. The choice of an occupation

B. The adoption of values to live by

C. The development of a satisfying sexual identity

D. The selection of lifelong friendships

A

D. The selection of lifelong friendships

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Q

Identification with a set of values, ideology, religion, political movement, or ethnic group reflects:

A. Crisis
B. Commitment
C. Fidelity
D. Isolation

A

C. Fidelity

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Q

The maladaptive tendency associated with Identity vs. Role Confusion is:

A. Exclusion
B. Fanaticism
C. Promiscuity
D. Repudiation

A

B. Fanaticism

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Q

Fanaticism is best described as:

A. Rejecting all adult roles

B. Becoming intimate too easily

C. Believing one’s ways are the only ways

D. Avoiding occupational decisions

A

C. Believing one’s ways are the only ways

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Q

The malignant tendency in adolescence involving rejection of adult membership and identity is:

A. Isolation
B. Promiscuity
C. Fanaticism
D. Repudiation

A

D. Repudiation

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Q

Psychosocial moratorium provides adolescents with:

A. Immediate adult responsibilities

B. Strict identity commitments

C. Opportunity to search for commitments

D. Financial independence

A

C. Opportunity to search for commitments

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Q

Identity is defined as:

A. Temporary experimentation with beliefs

B. A coherent conception of self made up of goals, values, and beliefs

C. Rejection of societal roles

D. Freedom from developmental pressures

A

B. A coherent conception of self made up of goals, values, and beliefs

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Q

A crisis in identity development refers to:

A. Emotional breakdown

B. Social rejection

C. A period of unconscious conflict

D. A period of conscious decision making

A

D. A period of conscious decision making

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Commitment involves: A. Avoidance of responsibility B. Personal investment in occupation or system of beliefs C. Isolation from peers D. Rejection of societal values

B. Personal investment in occupation or system of beliefs

The main developmental issue in young adulthood is: A. Identity vs. Role Confusion B. Intimacy vs. Isolation C. Generativity vs. Stagnation D. Integrity vs. Despair

B. Intimacy vs. Isolation

Failure to achieve intimacy in young adulthood may result in: A. Fidelity B. Generativity C. Isolation and self-absorption D. Fanaticism

C. Isolation and self-absorption

The virtue associated with Intimacy vs. Isolation is: A. Love B. Fidelity C. Hope D. Care

A. Love

Love is defined as: A. Temporary romantic involvement B. Emotional dependency C. Mutual devotion between partners who share their lives and have children D. Avoidance of isolation

C. Mutual devotion between partners who share their lives and have children

The maladaptive tendency in young adulthood is: A. Repudiation B. Promiscuity C. Fanaticism D. Isolation

B. Promiscuity

Promiscuity involves: A. Avoiding relationships entirely B. Excessive commitment to beliefs C. Becoming intimate too freely and easily D. Rejecting adult identity

C. Becoming intimate too freely and easily

The malignant tendency of Intimacy vs. Isolation is: A. Exclusion B. Fidelity C. Moratorium D. Crisis

A. Exclusion

Exclusion refers to: A. Searching for identity B. Isolating oneself from everyone C. Overcommitting to occupation D. Experimenting with roles

B. Isolating oneself from everyone

Moratorium in young adulthood allows individuals to: A. Permanently delay adulthood B. Avoid making decisions C. Experiment with various roles and lifestyles D. Reject commitments

C. Experiment with various roles and lifestyles

The Normative Life Events Model describes development as: A. Random and unpredictable B. A definite sequence of age-related changes C. Entirely biologically determined D. Independent of life events

B. A definite sequence of age-related changes

The Normative Life Events Model addresses whether personality changes: A. Only in childhood B. Due to trauma only C. In typical ways during certain life periods D. Only after retirement

C. In typical ways during certain life periods

The Timing-of-Events Model focuses on: A. Biological maturation B. Genetic inheritance C. Social class differences D. The expected or unexpected timing of important life events

D. The expected or unexpected timing of important life events

The Timing-of-Events Model considers questions such as: A. How genes influence identity B. Whether personality stops changing in adulthood C. When important life events occur and what happens if they occur earlier or later than usual D. How intelligence affects intimacy

C. When important life events occur and what happens if they occur earlier or later than usual

set of cultural norms or expectations for the times of life when certain important events should occur A. Social Clock B. Trait Model C. Typological Approach

A. Social Clock

psychological models that focus on the measurement and examination of different traits A. Social Clock B. Trait Model C. Typological Approach

B. Trait Model

Do personality traits fall into groups, or clusters? Do these clusters of traits change with age? A. Social Clock B. Trait Model C. Typological Approach

B. Trait Model

identifies broad personality types, or styles A. Social Clock B. Trait Model C. Typological Approach

C. Typological Approach

Can basic personality types be identified, and how well do they predict the life course? A. Social Clock B. Trait Model C. Typological Approach

C. Typological Approach

adaptability under stress and dynamic capacity to modify one’s level of ego-control in response to environmental and contextual influences A. Ego Resiliency B. Ego Overcontrolled C. Ego Undercontrolled

A. Ego Resiliency

Well-adjusted, self-confident, independent, articulate, attentive, helpful, cooperative, and task-focused A. Ego Resiliency B. Ego Overcontrolled C. Ego Undercontrolled

A. Ego Resiliency

tend to keep their thought to themselves and to withdraw from conflict, and they are the most subject to depression A. Ego Resiliency B. Ego Overcontrolled C. Ego Undercontrolled

B. Ego Overcontrolled

Shy, quiet, anxious, and dependable A. Ego Resiliency B. Ego Overcontrolled C. Ego Undercontrolled

B. Ego Overcontrolled

active, energetic, impulsive, stubborn, and easily distracted A. Ego Resiliency B. Ego Overcontrolled C. Ego Undercontrolled

C. Ego Undercontrolled

fear of rejection or abandonment A. Attachment-Related Anxiety B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

A. Attachment-Related Anxiety

reflects an individual’s level of concern about whether their partner loves them, and their fear of being rejected or abandoned A. Attachment-Related Anxiety B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

A. Attachment-Related Anxiety

difficulty with intimacy A. Attachment-Related Anxiety B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

refers to an individual’s comfort level with intimacy and dependence, and their tendency to avoid closeness and emotional vulnerability A. Attachment-Related Anxiety B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

B. Attachment-Related Avoidance

have a positive view of both themselves and others, are comfortable with intimacy and interdependence, and tend to form healthy relationships A. Secure Attachment B. Preoccupied Attachment C. Fearful-Avoidant Attachment D. Dismissing Attachment

A. Secure Attachment

have a negative view of themselves but a positive view of others, they are anxious about relationships, seek reassurance and validation, and are often overly dependent on partners A. Secure Attachment B. Preoccupied Attachment C. Fearful-Avoidant Attachment D. Dismissing Attachment

B. Preoccupied Attachment

have a negative view of both themselves and others, they are fearful of intimacy and rejection, and often engage in relationship behaviors that push others away A. Secure Attachment B. Preoccupied Attachment C. Fearful-Avoidant Attachment D. Dismissing Attachment

C. Fearful-Avoidant Attachment

have a positive view of themselves but a negative view of others, they are comfortable with independence and avoid intimacy, often downplaying the importance of relationships A. Secure Attachment B. Preoccupied Attachment C. Fearful-Avoidant Attachment D. Dismissing Attachment

D. Dismissing Attachment

Who proposed Parental Investment Theory in 1972? A. Sigmund Freud B. Jean Piaget C. Robert Trivers D. Erik Erikson

C. Robert Trivers

Parental Investment Theory explains differences in reproductive strategies and behaviors between: A. Parents and children B. Males and females in a species C. Different age groups D. Humans and animals

B. Males and females in a species

The sex that invests more time, energy, and resources into offspring will be more likely to: A. Compete aggressively for mates B. Avoid reproduction C. Be less selective in mate choice D. Be more selective when choosing a mate

D. Be more selective when choosing a mate

“Parental Investment” is defined as: A. Any emotional attachment between parent and child B. Any expenditure that increases offspring survival at a cost to other potential offspring C. The biological ability to reproduce D. Equal contribution of both parents in reproduction

B. Any expenditure that increases offspring survival at a cost to other potential offspring

Parental investment increases an offspring’s chance of: A. Immediate independence B. Social dominance C. Survival and reproductive success D. Genetic mutation

C. Survival and reproductive success

Parental investment comes at a cost to the parent’s ability to: A. Attract new mates B. Survive adulthood C. Invest in other offspring D. Form social bonds

C. Invest in other offspring

Which of the following is part of the female’s investment? A. Producing a small sperm cell B. Short gestation period C. Lactation (Oxytocin) D. Minimal biological contribution

C. Lactation (Oxytocin)

The male’s minimum investment is often: A. Long-term caregiving B. A small sperm cell (Vasopresin) C. Gestation D. Lactation

B. A small sperm cell (Vasopresin)

The high-investing sex typically has: A. Unlimited reproductive opportunities B. No need to choose mates carefully C. A limited number of opportunities to reproduce D. No biological costs

C. A limited number of opportunities to reproduce

The high-investing sex looks for mates who demonstrate: A. Physical dominance only B. Good genes, resources, or willingness to provide care C. Aggressive behavior D. Minimal involvement

B. Good genes, resources, or willingness to provide care

The low-investing sex can increase reproductive success primarily by: A. Being highly selective B. Investing heavily in each offspring C. Avoiding competition D. Mating with as many partners as possible

D. Mating with as many partners as possible

Intense intrasexual competition occurs primarily because: A. The high-investing sex competes for mates B. The low-investing sex competes for access to the higher-investing sex C. Both sexes invest equally D. Reproduction is rare

B. The low-investing sex competes for access to the higher-investing sex

Generativity vs. Stagnation is a developmental issue in: A. Early childhood B. Adolescence C. Late adulthood D. Middle adulthood

D. Middle adulthood

Generativity involves concern with: A. Personal fame B. Establishing, guiding, and influencing the next generation C. Avoiding responsibility D. Competing with peers

B. Establishing, guiding, and influencing the next generation

The virtue associated with Generativity vs. Stagnation is: A. Wisdom B. Hope C. Care D. Fidelity

C. Care

The virtue of Care refers to: A. Emotional dependence B. Widening commitment to take care of persons, products, and ideas C. Strict discipline of children D. Financial wealth accumulation

B. Widening commitment to take care of persons, products, and ideas

Generativity can be expressed through: A. Social withdrawal B. Parenting or grandparenting C. Avoidance of responsibility D. Refusal to mentor

B. Parenting or grandparenting

Finding meaning through contributing to future generations is known as: A. Stagnation B. Rejectivity C. Generativity D. Overextension

C. Generativity

Stagnation is characterized by a sense of: A. Creativity B. Productivity C. Inactivity or lifelessness D. Care

C. Inactivity or lifelessness

Overextension is considered a: A. Virtue B. Maladaptive tendency C. Malignant tendency D. Developmental stage

B. Maladaptive tendency

Overextension occurs when individuals: A. Withdraw from society B. Avoid responsibilities C. No longer allow themselves to relax and rest D. Refuse to care for others

C. No longer allow themselves to relax and rest

Rejectivity is classified as a: A. Virtue B. Developmental success C. Maladaptive tendency D. Malignant tendency

D. Malignant tendency

Rejectivity involves: A. Mentoring younger generations B. Participating actively in society C. No longer participating or contributing in society D. Increasing productivity

C. No longer participating or contributing in society

Which of the following best represents generativity? A. Self-development B. Social withdrawal C. Refusal to teach D. Avoiding creativity

A. Self-development

Productivity and creativity are expressions of: A. Rejectivity B. Stagnation C. Generativity D. Overextension

C. Generativity

Self-generation or self-development is associated with: A. Generativity B. Stagnation C. Rejectivity D. Minimal parental investment

A. Generativity

The concept that higher investment leads to greater selectivity supports which idea? A. The low-investing sex avoids competition B. The high-investing sex must ensure their investment is not wasted C. Both sexes reproduce equally D. Investment does not affect mate choice

B. The high-investing sex must ensure their investment is not wasted

In Parental Investment Theory, females are typically considered the: A. Low-investing sex B. Non-investing sex C. High-investing sex D. Competitive sex only

C. High-investing sex

Intrasexual competition primarily benefits the: A. Higher-investing sex B. Low-investing sex C. Offspring directly D. Society overall

B. Low-investing sex

Imagination/Anticipation A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

A. Pre-Retirement

Experiencing stagnation during middle adulthood may result in: A. A strong sense of care B. A feeling of lifelessness C. Increased mentorship D. Broader societal participation

B. A feeling of lifelessness

excitement, anticipation, dreams of freedom and new possibilities (travel, hobbies, time with family), it can also be accompanied by anxiety, fear of the unknown, and doubts about financial security or losing one’s identity A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

A. Pre-Retirement

Liberation/Euphoria A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

B. Honeymoon Phase

strong sense of freedom, relief from work stress, excitement, and a “vacation” feeling A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

B. Honeymoon Phase

Reality Check A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

C. Disenchantment

boredom, loneliness, a feeling of aimlessness or loss of purpose, sadness, and even depression A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

C. Disenchantment

Adaptation A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

D. Reorientation

adjusting to the new reality of retirement and actively seeking a renewed sense of purpose and identity A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

D. Reorientation

Reconciliation A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

E. Stability/Contentment

successfully adjusted to their new lifestyle and found a sense of balance and fulfillment A. Pre-Retirement B. Honeymoon Phase C. Disenchantment D. Reorientation E. Stability/Contentment

E. Stability/Contentment

Midlife crisis typically occurs during: A. Early thirties B. Late adolescence C. Middle forties D. Early sixties

C. Middle forties

A midlife crisis involves changes in: A. Physical strength and endurance B. Personality and lifestyle C. Career location only D. Childhood attachment patterns

B. Personality and lifestyle

One possible experience during a midlife crisis is: A. Increased satisfaction with past achievements B. Complete detachment from social roles C. Immediate fulfillment of youthful ambitions D. Inability to fulfill the dreams of youth

D. Inability to fulfill the dreams of youth

During a midlife crisis, individuals may realize that: A. Dreams fulfilled did not bring expected satisfaction B. Youthful goals were always unrealistic C. Mortality is irrelevant to their current life stage D. All life goals have been achieved

A. Dreams fulfilled did not bring expected satisfaction

Becoming more aware of one’s own mortality is associated with: A. Turning point B. Midlife crisis C. Early adulthood transition D. Adolescence

B. Midlife crisis

A midlife crisis may be considered: A. A universal developmental phase B. A purely biological process C. A manifestation of a neurotic personality D. A stage limited to career change

C. A manifestation of a neurotic personality

A turning point is best described as: A. A gradual physical decline B. A psychological transition involving significant change in life meaning or direction C. A mandatory stage of development D. A financial decision-making process

B. A psychological transition involving significant change in life meaning or direction

A turning point involves significant change in the perceived: A. Economic status of a person B. Social popularity C. Meaning, purpose, or direction of life D. Physical health trajectory

C. Meaning, purpose, or direction of life

An important feature of a turning point is: A. Avoidance of self-reflection B. Introspective review and reappraisal of values and priorities C. Exclusive focus on external achievements D. Sudden personality disorder onset

B. Introspective review and reappraisal of values and priorities

Midlife review includes recognition of: A. Unlimited future opportunities B. The finiteness of life C. Childhood ambitions only D. Social status changes

B. The finiteness of life

A midlife review can be a time of: A. Ignoring past decisions B. Avoiding future planning C. Taking stock and discovering new self-insights D. Repeating previous life patterns

C. Taking stock and discovering new self-insights

Midlife review may spur: A. Early retirement planning only B. Midcourse corrections in life design and trajectory C. Complete withdrawal from society D. Rejection of all personal values

B. Midcourse corrections in life design and trajectory

The introspective examination that often occurs in middle age and leads to reappraisal of values is called: A. Turning point B. Adolescence transition C. Midlife crisis D. Midlife review

D. Midlife review

Midlife review often leads to: A. Immediate emotional resolution B. Reappraisal and revision of values and priorities C. Elimination of personal regrets D. Loss of all ambitions

B. Reappraisal and revision of values and priorities

During a midlife review, individuals may experience: A. Regret over failure to achieve a dream B. Complete indifference to past goals C. Elimination of developmental concerns D. Total satisfaction with life outcomes

A. Regret over failure to achieve a dream

A keener awareness of developmental deadlines is associated with: A. Early adolescence B. Turning point only C. Midlife review D. Childhood development

C. Midlife review

Which concept emphasizes psychological transition involving transformation in perceived life direction? A. Midlife crisis B. Midlife review C. Turning point D. Personality disorder

C. Turning point

Which concept may include changes in personality and lifestyle? A. Midlife crisis B. Turning point C. Midlife review D. Developmental deadline

A. Midlife crisis

Which concept specifically involves taking stock and discovering new insights about oneself? A. Midlife crisis B. Turning point C. Midlife review D. Neurotic manifestation

C. Midlife review

Which experience reflects dissatisfaction despite achieving youthful dreams? A. Recognition of life’s finiteness B. Fulfillment not bringing expected satisfaction C. Introspective value revision D. Psychological transition in purpose

B. Fulfillment not bringing expected satisfaction

the ability to adapt flexibility and resourcefully to potential source of stress A. Ego Resiliency B. Developmental Deadlines C. Identity Processes Theory (IPT)

A. Ego Resiliency

time constraints on when certain developmental tasks or goals should be achieved A. Ego Resiliency B. Developmental Deadlines C. Identity Processes Theory (IPT)

B. Developmental Deadlines

theory of identity development based on processes of assimilation and accommodation A. Ego Resiliency B. Developmental Deadlines C. Identity Processes Theory (IPT)

C. Identity Processes Theory (IPT)

the interpretation of new information via existing cognitive structures A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Identity Assimilation D. Identity Accommodation E. Identity Balance

A. Assimilation

changing cognitive structures to more closely align with what is encountered A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Identity Assimilation D. Identity Accommodation E. Identity Balance

B. Accommodation

involves holding onto a consistent sense of self in the face of new experiences that do not fit the current understanding A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Identity Assimilation D. Identity Accommodation E. Identity Balance

C. Identity Assimilation

involves adjusting the identity schema to fit new experiences A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Identity Assimilation D. Identity Accommodation E. Identity Balance

D. Identity Accommodation

stable sense of self while adjusting their self-schema to incorporate new information A. Assimilation B. Accommodation C. Identity Assimilation D. Identity Accommodation E. Identity Balance

E. Identity Balance

Which statement best describes Narrative Psychology? A. It views identity as a fixed set of traits determined in childhood. B. It views the self as shaped primarily by genetic inheritance. C. It views identity as an internalized life story constructed over time. D. It views development as a series of unrelated life events.

C. It views identity as an internalized life story constructed over time.

In Narrative Psychology, identity is understood as: A. A collection of external social roles only. B. An internalized script or story. C. A biological process independent of experience. D. A temporary state that changes daily.

B. An internalized script or story.

Generativity Scripts are best defined as: A. Cultural expectations imposed on parents. B. Legal documents outlining family duties. C. Childhood memories of parental influence. D. Internal narratives explaining how generative efforts fit into one’s life and society.

D. Internal narratives explaining how generative efforts fit into one’s life and society.

The term “generative” in Generativity Scripts refers to: A. Earning financial independence. B. Contributing to the next generation. C. Gaining social status. D. Achieving personal happiness.

B. Contributing to the next generation.

Generativity Scripts help individuals understand their efforts in relation to: A. Their personal history, current society, and social world. B. Their genetic background only. C. Their childhood education exclusively. D. Their workplace performance alone.

A. Their personal history, current society, and social world.

The Empty Nest refers to: A. A family without extended relatives. B. The period before a couple has children. C. A transitional phase after the last child leaves home. D. A stage when children begin school.

C. A transitional phase after the last child leaves home.

Parents whose children have left home often report higher well-being especially when: A. Their children move far away. B. Their children remain financially dependent. C. Their children avoid frequent communication. D. Their children stay in frequent contact.

D. Their children stay in frequent contact.

The Empty Nest process may be more difficult when: A. Children are highly accomplished. B. Parents have strong friendships. C. Children are not accomplished. D. Parents retire early.

C. Children are not accomplished.

In the context of a good marriage, the departure of grown children may lead to: A. Increased marital conflict. B. A second honeymoon. C. Financial hardship. D. Immediate relocation.

B. A second honeymoon.

Negative effects of the Empty Nest are more likely when: A. Parents have diverse interests. B. Parents maintain social connections. C. Identity is dependent on the parental role. D. Parents encourage independence.

C. Identity is dependent on the parental role.

Parents who must confront marital problems previously pushed aside may experience: A. Positive Empty Nest effects. B. No change in marital dynamics. C. Immediate generativity. D. Negative Empty Nest effects.

D. Negative Empty Nest effects.

Revolving Door Syndrome is also known as: A. Generativity Return Cycle. B. Empty Nest Reversal. C. Second Honeymoon Effect. D. Boomerang Phenomenon.

D. Boomerang Phenomenon.

Revolving Door Syndrome refers to the tendency of young adults to: A. Leave home permanently. B. Remain at home indefinitely. C. Return to their parents’ household after leaving. D. Relocate internationally.

C. Return to their parents’ household after leaving.

The Revolving Door Syndrome is especially common among: A. Young adult women. B. Middle-aged parents. C. Elderly individuals. D. Young adult men.

D. Young adult men.

Young adults are most likely to return home during times of: A. Academic success. B. Financial, marital, or other trouble. C. Career promotion. D. Social celebration.

B. Financial, marital, or other trouble.

Narrative Psychology emphasizes that development of the self is: A. A continuous process of constructing one’s life story. B. A random occurrence without meaning. C. Determined solely by parents. D. Completed in adolescence.

A. A continuous process of constructing one’s life story.

Identity in Narrative Psychology is primarily viewed as: A. A social label assigned at birth. B. A fixed personality type. C. An internalized script or story shaped over time. D. A genetic inheritance pattern.

C. An internalized script or story shaped over time.

Generativity Scripts connect individual efforts to be generative with: A. Their private emotions only. B. Their personal history and broader social context. C. Their physical health status. D. Their financial investments.

B. Their personal history and broader social context.

Higher levels of well-being during the Empty Nest are linked to: A. Lack of communication with children. B. Isolation from extended family. C. Frequent contact with children. D. Children living at home permanently.

C. Frequent contact with children.

The Empty Nest may negatively affect parents who: A. Have identities strongly tied to parenting. B. Have independent hobbies and goals. C. Experience marital harmony. D. Maintain friendships outside the family.

A. Have identities strongly tied to parenting.

in Marcoen’s terminology, adults learn to balance love and duty to their parents with autonomy within a two-way relationship A. Filial Crisis B. Sandwich Generation C. Caregiver Burnout D. Respite Care E. Kinship Care

A. Filial Crisis

caught in a squeeze between the competing needs of their own children and the emerging needs of their parents A. Filial Crisis B. Sandwich Generation C. Caregiver Burnout D. Respite Care E. Kinship Care

B. Sandwich Generation

condition of physical, mental, and emotional exhaustion affecting adults who provide continuous care for sick and aged persons A. Filial Crisis B. Sandwich Generation C. Caregiver Burnout D. Respite Care E. Kinship Care

C. Caregiver Burnout

substitute supervised care by visiting nurses or home health aids A. Filial Crisis B. Sandwich Generation C. Caregiver Burnout D. Respite Care E. Kinship Care

D. Respite Care

care of children living without parents in the home of grandparents or other relatives, with or without a change of legal custody A. Filial Crisis B. Sandwich Generation C. Caregiver Burnout D. Respite Care E. Kinship Care

E. Kinship Care

rarely see their grandchildren A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

A. Remote

Usually they live far away from the grandchildren, but may also have a distant relationship A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

A. Remote

Contact is typically made on special occasions such as holidays or birthdays A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

A. Remote

do things with the grandchild but have little authority or control over them A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

B. Companionate Grandparents

They prefer to spend time with them without interfering in parenting A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

B. Companionate Grandparents

They are more like friends to their grandchildren A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

B. Companionate Grandparents

take a very active role in their grandchild’s life A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

C. Involved Grandparents

They children might even live with the grandparent A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

C. Involved Grandparents

The involved grandparent is one who has frequent contact with and authority over the grandchild A. Remote B. Companionate Grandparents C. Involved Grandparents

C. Involved Grandparents

60-75 A. Young Old B. Old-Old C. Oldest Old D. Octogenarian E. Centenarian

A. Young Old

75-85 A. Young Old B. Old-Old C. Oldest Old D. Octogenarian E. Centenarian

B. Old-Old

85 and older A. Young Old B. Old-Old C. Oldest Old D. Octogenarian E. Centenarian

C. Oldest Old

80s A. Young Old B. Old-Old C. Oldest Old D. Octogenarian E. Centenarian

D. Octogenarian

Over 100 years old A. Young Old B. Old-Old C. Oldest Old D. Octogenarian E. Centenarian

E. Centenarian

In late adulthood, individuals either achieve ego integrity or experience despair based on their ability to: A. Accumulate wealth and social status B. Maintain physical independence C. Accept the lives they have lived and accept death D. Relive and correct past life decisions

C. Accept the lives they have lived and accept death

Despair in late adulthood results when individuals: A. Refuse medical treatment B. Believe their lives cannot be relived C. Lose social connections D. Experience chronic illness

B. Believe their lives cannot be relived

The virtue associated with ego integrity is: A. Hope B. Generativity C. Fidelity D. Wisdom

D. Wisdom

Wisdom is best described as: A. Emotional dependence on others B. Informed and detached concern with life itself in the face of death itself C. Fear of death and isolation D. Regret over missed opportunities

B. Informed and detached concern with life itself in the face of death itself

The maladaptive tendency in late adulthood is: A. Disdain B. Withdrawal C. Presumption D. Isolation

C. Presumption

Presumption involves: A. Contempt for others' lives B. Assuming ego integrity without facing the difficulties of old age C. Fear of chronic illness D. Refusal to accept death

B. Assuming ego integrity without facing the difficulties of old age

The malignant tendency associated with ego integrity vs. despair is: A. Despair B. Presumption C. Disengagement D. Disdain

D. Disdain

Disdain refers to: A. Fear of being alone B. Withdrawal from society C. Contempt of life, one’s own or anyone’s D. Acceptance of death

C. Contempt of life, one’s own or anyone’s

Frail elderly individuals are defined as older adults who: A. Are over 80 years old B. Have no family support C. Cannot care for themselves D. Live in nursing homes

C. Cannot care for themselves

The most common chronic health condition among older adults listed is: A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Cancer D. Osteoporosis

B. Hypertension

Another common chronic health condition among older adults is: A. Asthma B. Arthritis C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Stroke

B. Arthritis

Ageism refers to: A. Fear of growing old B. Biological aging processes C. Prejudice or discrimination against a person based on age D. Government policies affecting older adults

C. Prejudice or discrimination against a person based on age

Ageism most commonly targets: A. Teenagers B. Middle-aged adults C. Children D. Older persons

D. Older persons

Older people are generally perceived as: A. Competitive and ambitious B. Warm and loving C. Aggressive and dominant D. Independent and self-sufficient

B. Warm and loving

Despite being viewed as warm and loving, older people are also commonly perceived as: A. Highly intelligent and capable B. Wealthy and influential C. Incompetent and of low status D. Physically strong

C. Incompetent and of low status

The fastest-growing age group consists of individuals: A. Over 60 B. Over 65 C. Over 70 D. Over 80

D. Over 80

Acceptance of death in late adulthood is associated with: A. Despair B. Ego integrity C. Disdain D. Presumption

B. Ego integrity

Failure to accept one’s life as it has been lived most directly contributes to: A. Wisdom B. Presumption C. Despair D. Integrity

C. Despair

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A. Presumption – contempt of life B. Disdain – assuming integrity without reflection C. Wisdom – informed and detached concern with life in the face of death D. Despair – acceptance of death

C. Wisdom – informed and detached concern with life in the face of death

Which condition below is listed among the most common chronic health conditions in older adults? A. Hypertension B. Tuberculosis C. Influenza D. Pneumonia

A. Hypertension

period of the life span marked by declines in physical functioning usually associated with aging which begins at different ages for different people A. Senescence B. Epigenesis C. Hayflick Limit D. Telomeres

A. Senescence

involves genes being turned on and off by molecular “tags,” or instructions A. Senescence B. Epigenesis C. Hayflick Limit D. Telomeres

B. Epigenesis

human cells will divide in the laboratory no more than 50 times which cells can divide only a fixed number of times, eventually, they run out of telomeres A. Senescence B. Epigenesis C. Hayflick Limit D. Telomeres

C. Hayflick Limit

the repetitive fragments of DNA on the tips of chromosomes in which every time a cell divides, replicating its genetic code, the telomeres become shorter A. Senescence B. Epigenesis C. Hayflick Limit D. Telomeres

D. Telomeres

shorten with age and that the rate of telomere shortening is related to the rate of aging A. Senescence B. Epigenesis C. Hayflick Limit D. Telomeres

D. Telomeres

What does Genetic Programming Theories explain about biological aging? A. Aging results from environmental damage accumulated over time B. Aging results from a genetically determined developmental timetable C. Aging is caused by hormonal imbalance in adulthood D. Aging occurs only after reproductive years

B. Aging results from a genetically determined developmental timetable

In Endocrine Theory, how does the biological clock function? A. Through environmental triggers B. Through immune system suppression C. Through genes that control hormonal changes D. Through energy depletion after reproduction

C. Through genes that control hormonal changes

Immunological Theory suggests that certain genes may lead to: A. Improved hormonal regulation B. Increased reproductive fitness C. Delayed biological development D. Increased susceptibility to disease, infections, and cancer

D. Increased susceptibility to disease, infections, and cancer

The Evolutionary Theory of Aging states that the primary aim of natural selection is: A. Longevity beyond reproductive years B. Immune system perfection C. Reproductive fitness D. Hormonal stability

C. Reproductive fitness

Natural selection acts most strongly on which group? A. The elderly B. The young C. Individuals past reproductive age D. Individuals with chronic illness

B. The young

Why does natural selection act most strongly on the young? A. They have declining immune systems B. They require hormonal regulation C. They have many years of potential reproduction ahead of them D. They are more susceptible to infections

C. They have many years of potential reproduction ahead of them

According to the Evolutionary Theory of Aging, energy resources are allocated to: A. Protect and maintain the body until reproduction B. Extend life indefinitely C. Prevent all age-related diseases D. Strengthen immune function after reproduction

A. Protect and maintain the body until reproduction

Which theory links aging to genes that control hormonal changes? A. Immunological Theory B. Evolutionary Theory of Aging C. Endocrine Theory D. Genetic Programming Theories

C. Endocrine Theory

Which theory emphasizes problems in the immune system as a cause of aging? A. Endocrine Theory B. Genetic Programming Theories C. Evolutionary Theory of Aging D. Immunological Theory

D. Immunological Theory

Genetic Programming Theories suggest that aging is primarily: A. Random and environmentally determined B. A result of immune system decline C. Programmed through genetic mechanisms D. Caused by reduced reproductive capacity

C. Programmed through genetic mechanisms

Within the Evolutionary Theory of Aging, maintenance of the body is prioritized: A. Equally before and after reproduction B. Only after reproductive years C. Until reproduction but not necessarily after D. Only during old age

C. Until reproduction but not necessarily after

Increased susceptibility to cancer is most directly associated with: A. Endocrine Theory B. Immunological Theory C. Genetic Programming Theories D. Evolutionary Theory of Aging

B. Immunological Theory

The concept of a biological clock acting through genes that control hormonal changes is central to: A. Endocrine Theory B. Immunological Theory C. Evolutionary Theory of Aging D. Genetic Programming Theories

A. Endocrine Theory

Which theory explains aging as resulting from a genetically determined developmental timetable? A. Immunological Theory B. Evolutionary Theory of Aging C. Endocrine Theory D. Genetic Programming Theories

D. Genetic Programming Theories

In the Evolutionary Theory of Aging, natural selection results in energy resources being allocated primarily to: A. Extend immune system function indefinitely B. Protect and maintain the body until reproduction C. Increase hormonal production after reproduction D. Prevent all forms of infection throughout life

B. Protect and maintain the body until reproduction

biological aging as a result of processes that involve damage to biological systems and that vary from person to person A. Variable-Rate Theories B. Wear-and-Tear Theory C. Free-Radical Theory

A. Variable-Rate Theories

body ages as a result of accumulated damage to the system at the molecular level A. Variable-Rate Theories B. Wear-and-Tear Theory C. Free-Radical Theory

B. Wear-and-Tear Theory

accumulated damage from oxygen radicals causes cells and eventually organs to stop functioning A. Variable-Rate Theories B. Wear-and-Tear Theory C. Free-Radical Theory

C. Free-Radical Theory

aging is largely driven by the accumulation of damage to mitochondria, specifically their DNA (mtDNA), due to the continuous production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) A. Mitochondrial Theory of Aging B. Rate of Living Theory C. Autoimmune Theory D. Cross-Linking Theory

A. Mitochondrial Theory of Aging

a balance between metabolism, or energy use, and lifespan A. Mitochondrial Theory of Aging B. Rate of Living Theory C. Autoimmune Theory D. Cross-Linking Theory

B. Rate of Living Theory

immune system becomes confused and attacks its own body A. Mitochondrial Theory of Aging B. Rate of Living Theory C. Autoimmune Theory D. Cross-Linking Theory

C. Autoimmune Theory

aging is caused by the accumulation of cross-linked proteins, particularly those that have undergone glycosylation (binding with sugars), which can impair their function and lead to tissue damage and reduced elasticity A. Mitochondrial Theory of Aging B. Rate of Living Theory C. Autoimmune Theory D. Cross-Linking Theory

D. Cross-Linking Theory

Which term describes an evaluative process in which elders make judgments about their past behaviors? A. Reminiscence B. Life Review C. Continuity D. Disengagement

B. Life Review

Which term refers to thinking about the past? A. Reminiscence B. Life Review C. Semantic Memory D. Disengagement

A. Reminiscence

Which of the following is one of the three main components of successful aging? A. Increased social withdrawal B. Avoidance of disease or disease-related disability C. Reliance on technological aids D. Complete independence from others

B. Avoidance of disease or disease-related disability

Maintenance of high physical and cognitive functioning is considered: A. A stage of grief B. A memory system C. A component of successful aging D. A housing arrangement

C. A component of successful aging

Sustained, active engagement in social and productive activities is: A. A feature of sensory memory B. A grief response C. A component of successful aging D. A form of assisted living

C. A component of successful aging

Which theory is characterized by mutual withdrawal of the older person and society? A. Activity Theory B. Continuity Theory C. Social Convoy Theory D. Disengagement Theory

D. Disengagement Theory

Which theory proposes that the more active people remain, the better they age? A. Activity Theory B. Disengagement Theory C. Continuity Theory D. Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

A. Activity Theory

Under Activity Theory, people who remain active are more likely to: A. Experience rapid cognitive decline B. Maintain high-quality social relationships C. Withdraw from society D. Focus exclusively on the past

B. Maintain high-quality social relationships

Which theory emphasizes maintaining a balance of continuity and change in both internal and external life structures? A. Activity Theory B. Selective Optimization with Compensation C. Continuity Theory D. Social Convoy Theory

C. Continuity Theory

The idea that activity represents continuation of a previous lifestyle aligns with: A. Disengagement Theory B. Continuity Theory C. Socioemotional Selectivity Theory D. Sensory Memory

B. Continuity Theory

Selective Optimization with Compensation involves: A. Complete disengagement from goals B. Enhancing functioning by using stronger abilities to compensate for weakened ones C. Avoiding all new activities D. Withdrawing from social networks

B. Enhancing functioning by using stronger abilities to compensate for weakened ones

Selecting fewer and more meaningful activities or goals is part of: A. Activity Theory B. Social Convoy Theory C. Selective Optimization with Compensation D. Disengagement Theory

C. Selective Optimization with Compensation

Social Convoy Theory suggests that aging adults: A. Withdraw equally from all relationships B. Maintain support by identifying helpful network members C. Avoid all social contact D. Focus only on cognitive tasks

B. Maintain support by identifying helpful network members

Socioemotional Selectivity Theory proposes that when time feels limited, older adults: A. Seek new long-term commitments B. Focus on distant future goals C. Spend time meeting immediate emotional needs D. Increase work responsibilities

C. Spend time meeting immediate emotional needs

Which type of memory involves the initial, brief, temporary storage of sensory information? A. Working Memory B. Sensory Memory C. Episodic Memory D. Semantic Memory

B. Sensory Memory

Backward repetition tasks require manipulation of information in: A. Working Memory B. Sensory Memory C. Procedural Memory D. Episodic Memory

A. Working Memory

Which long-term memory system is most likely to deteriorate with age? A. Procedural Memory B. Semantic Memory C. Episodic Memory D. Sensory Memory

C. Episodic Memory

Which type of memory shows little decline with age? A. Episodic Memory B. Working Memory C. Semantic Memory D. Sensory Memory

C. Semantic Memory

Long-term memory of motor skills and habits that can be recalled without conscious effort is: A. Episodic Memory B. Procedural Memory C. Working Memory D. Sensory Memory

B. Procedural Memory

Aging in place refers to: A. Moving to a retirement hotel B. Living in a foster-care home C. Staying in one’s own home D. Entering a hospital setting

C. Staying in one’s own home

Technological aids in aging in place may include: A. Grief counseling only B. Activity monitoring and wandering detection C. Social withdrawal programs D. Memory elimination techniques

B. Activity monitoring and wandering detection

Assisted living enables tenants to: A. Live in a homelike space with 24-hour access to personal and health care services B. Receive no support services C. Share a single large dormitory D. Avoid all medical supervision

A. Live in a homelike space with 24-hour access to personal and health care services

Which of the following is a group living arrangement for older adults? A. Sensory Memory Unit B. Retirement Hotel C. Working Memory Center D. Denial Residence

B. Retirement Hotel

Which is an example of a group living arrangement for older adults? A. Continuing Care Retirement Community B. Semantic Housing Unit C. Procedural Living Facility D. Social Selectivity Center

A. Continuing Care Retirement Community

Which is listed as a group living arrangement for older adults? A. Foster-Care Home B. Activity Monitoring Center C. Working Memory Lodge D. Grief Recovery Unit

A. Foster-Care Home

Which stage is included in Kübler-Ross’ Five Stages of Grief? A. Withdrawal B. Optimization C. Anger D. Continuity

C. Anger

Which of the following is one of Kübler-Ross’ Five Stages of Grief? A. Acceptance B. Compensation C. Engagement D. Maintenance

A. Acceptance

Which stage in Kübler-Ross’ model involves refusing to acknowledge loss? A. Bargaining B. Depression C. Denial D. Anger

C. Denial

Which stage of grief involves attempts to negotiate or make deals? A. Bargaining B. Acceptance C. Depression D. Disengagement

A. Bargaining

Which stage of grief is characterized by deep sadness? A. Anger B. Depression C. Denial D. Optimization

B. Depression

personal, patient- and family centered, compassionate care for the terminally ill, which offer a specialized type of palliative care for people whose life expectancy is 6 months or less A. Hospital Care B. Palliative Care

A. Hospital Care

aimed at relieving pain and suffering and allowing the terminally ill to die in peace, comfort, and dignity A. Hospital Care B. Palliative Care

B. Palliative Care

a frequently observed decline in cognitive abilities near the end of life A. Terminal Drop/Decline B. Clinical Death C. Brain Death D. Near-Death Experience E. Social Death

A. Terminal Drop/Decline

few minutes after the heart stopped pumping A. Terminal Drop/Decline B. Clinical Death C. Brain Death D. Near-Death Experience E. Social Death

B. Clinical Death

a person no longer has reflexes or any response to vigorous external stimuli and no electrical activity in the brain A. Terminal Drop/Decline B. Clinical Death C. Brain Death D. Near-Death Experience E. Social Death

C. Brain Death

when other people treat a deceased person like a corpse A. Terminal Drop/Decline B. Clinical Death C. Brain Death D. Near-Death Experience E. Social Death

E. Social Death

often involving a sense of being out of the body or sucked into a tunnel and vision of bright lights or mystical encounters A. Terminal Drop/Decline B. Clinical Death C. Brain Death D. Near-Death Experience E. Social Death

D. Near-Death Experience

emotional response experienced in the early phases of bereavement A. Grief B. Bereavement C. Mourning

A. Grief

loss, due to death, of someone to whom one feels close and the process of adjustment to the loss A. Grief B. Bereavement C. Mourning

B. Bereavement

represents the outward, often culturally and religiously influenced, expression of loss A. Grief B. Bereavement C. Mourning

C. Mourning

most typical response to loss, characterized by a range of emotional, physical, cognitive, and behavioral reactions that gradually lessen in intensity over time A. Normal or Common Grief B. Anticipatory Grief C. Complicated Grief D. Disenfranchised Grief E. Traumatic Grief

A. Normal or Common Grief

occurs before the actual death, often when a loved one has a terminal illness or is expected to die A. Normal or Common Grief B. Anticipatory Grief C. Complicated Grief D. Disenfranchised Grief E. Traumatic Grief

B. Anticipatory Grief

a severe and persistent form of grief where the intense emotional pain and impairment do not diminish over time, significantly exceeding expected social, cultural, or religious norms A. Normal or Common Grief B. Anticipatory Grief C. Complicated Grief D. Disenfranchised Grief E. Traumatic Grief

C. Complicated Grief

a person’s grief is not openly acknowledged, socially supported, or publicly mourned A. Normal or Common Grief B. Anticipatory Grief C. Complicated Grief D. Disenfranchised Grief E. Traumatic Grief

D. Disenfranchised Grief

occurs when a death happens under horrific, sudden, or violent circumstances (e.g., accidents, natural disasters, murder, suicide) A. Normal or Common Grief B. Anticipatory Grief C. Complicated Grief D. Disenfranchised Grief E. Traumatic Grief

E. Traumatic Grief

refers to a loss that lacks clarity, closure, or a definitive end A. Ambiguous Loss B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence D. Collective Grief E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

A. Ambiguous Loss

a loved one physically gone but psychologically present (ex. a missing person, kidnapping, divorce where contact is maintained) A. Ambiguous Loss B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence D. Collective Grief E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence

a loved one is physically present but psychologically absent (ex. dementia, severe mental illness, addiction, chronic vegetative state) A. Ambiguous Loss B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence D. Collective Grief E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence

experienced by a community, nation, or even the world in response to a public tragedy or large-scale loss A. Ambiguous Loss B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence D. Collective Grief E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

D. Collective Grief

occurs when an individual experiences multiple losses in a relatively short period, without adequate time to process each one before the next occurs A. Ambiguous Loss B. Physical Absence with Psychological Presence C. Physical Presence with Psychological Absence D. Collective Grief E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

E. Cumulative Grief (or Bereavement Overload)

What is the primary focus of the Classic Grief Work Model? A. Preventing fear of death through cultural beliefs B. Working out psychological issues connected with grief C. Eliminating attachment behaviors after loss D. Reducing physical symptoms of bereavement

B. Working out psychological issues connected with grief

Which stage of grief is characterized by lasting several weeks, especially after a sudden or unexpected death? A. Resolution B. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person C. Shock and Disbelief D. Attachment Reinforcement

C. Shock and Disbelief

Immediately following a death, survivors often feel: A. Renewed interest in everyday activities B. Lost and confused C. Acceptance of the loss D. Fond memories without sadness

B. Lost and confused

During Shock and Disbelief, initial numbness eventually gives way to: A. Indifference B. Increased self-esteem C. Cultural commitment D. Overwhelming sadness and frequent crying

D. Overwhelming sadness and frequent crying

The stage that typically lasts from 6 months to 2 years is: A. Shock and Disbelief B. Resolution C. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person D. Fear Management

C. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person

In the Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person stage, the survivor: A. Fully accepts the death B. Renews interest in everyday life C. Experiences only fond memories D. Tries to come to terms with the death but cannot yet accept it

D. Tries to come to terms with the death but cannot yet accept it

Over time, experiences in the Preoccupation stage: A. Intensify without pause B. Diminish, with gaps lasting years C. Disappear within weeks D. Remain constant

B. Diminish, with gaps lasting years

Which stage involves renewing interest in everyday activities? A. Resolution B. Shock and Disbelief C. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person D. Cultural Reinforcement

A. Resolution

In the Resolution stage, memories of the dead person bring: A. Only sharp pain and longing B. Fear and confusion C. Fond feelings mingled with sadness rather than sharp pain and longing D. Complete emotional detachment

C. Fond feelings mingled with sadness rather than sharp pain and longing

Terror Management Theory focuses on humans’ unique understanding of: A. Attachment styles B. Cultural traditions C. Self-esteem development D. Death

D. Death

Terror Management Theory proposes that when mortality is made salient, people show common: A. Physical illnesses B. Emotional and psychological responses C. Cognitive decline D. Memory loss

B. Emotional and psychological responses

When mortality is made salient, individuals may become more committed to: A. Their cultural worldview B. Social withdrawal C. Avoidance of religion D. Everyday distractions

A. Their cultural worldview

Increased commitment to a cultural worldview may include: A. Rejecting religious beliefs B. Reduced belief in the afterlife C. Stronger endorsement of religious beliefs D. Avoiding attachment relationships

C. Stronger endorsement of religious beliefs

Terror Management Theory suggests that high self-esteem: A. Increases fear of death B. Buffers against anxiety and fear over death C. Eliminates grief entirely D. Reduces cultural commitment

B. Buffers against anxiety and fear over death

Feeling significant and valuable to others can help people believe they are: A. Powerless against mortality B. Isolated from society C. Only physical beings D. More than their physical body

D. More than their physical body

Terror Management Theory is associated with which processes? A. Cognitive decline processes B. Attachment processes C. Memory suppression processes D. Behavioral extinction processes

B. Attachment processes

When death is made salient, individuals willing and able are predicted to: A. Withdraw from relationships B. Avoid emotional connections C. Engage in behaviors to increase attachment D. Focus only on daily routines

C. Engage in behaviors to increase attachment

Which sequence correctly represents the three stages of grief in the Classic Grief Work Model? A. Resolution → Shock and Disbelief → Preoccupation B. Preoccupation → Shock and Disbelief → Resolution C. Shock and Disbelief → Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person → Resolution D. Shock and Disbelief → Resolution → Preoccupation

C. Shock and Disbelief → Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person → Resolution

Frequent crying is most associated with which stage? A. Shock and Disbelief B. Resolution C. Cultural Reinforcement D. Attachment Activation

A. Shock and Disbelief

The inability to yet accept the death occurs during: A. Resolution B. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person C. Shock and Disbelief D. Attachment Buffering

B. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person

Which stage is marked by initial numbness? A. Resolution B. Preoccupation with Memory of the Dead Person C. Shock and Disbelief D. Cultural Commitment

C. Shock and Disbelief

Which of the following is NOT described as part of the Resolution stage? A. Renewed interest in everyday activities B. Fond feelings mingled with sadness C. Sharp pain and longing as the dominant emotion D. Decreased intensity of grief

C. Sharp pain and longing as the dominant emotion

Terror Management Theory links mortality salience with: A. Decreased religious belief B. Increased attachment behaviors C. Complete emotional detachment D. Immediate grief resolution

B. Increased attachment behaviors

Believing more strongly in the afterlife when mortality is salient reflects greater commitment to: A. Attachment withdrawal B. Everyday routines C. Physical survival D. A cultural worldview

D. A cultural worldview

High self-esteem helps buffer anxiety over death because it allows individuals to feel: A. Physically invulnerable B. Superior to others C. Significant and valuable to others D. Detached from culture

C. Significant and valuable to others

where individuals maintain relatively stable physical and psychological health, demonstrating the ability to adapt to the loss without experiencing prolonged periods of significant distress or dysfunction A. Resilience B. Recovery C. Chronic Grief D. Chronic Depression E. Delayed Grief

A. Resilience

experience an initial period of significant distress and impairment following the loss, but gradually return to their pre-loss levels of functioning within a reasonable timeframe A. Resilience B. Recovery C. Chronic Grief D. Chronic Depression E. Delayed Grief

B. Recovery

characterized by prolonged and severe grief symptoms that persist for an extended period (often years) without significant improvement, leading to long-term functional impairment A. Resilience B. Recovery C. Chronic Grief D. Chronic Depression E. Delayed Grief

C. Chronic Grief

individuals experience persistent major depressive symptoms that predate the loss or emerge shortly after and remain chronic, often distinct from the acute pain of grief itself A. Resilience B. Recovery C. Chronic Grief D. Chronic Depression E. Delayed Grief

D. Chronic Depression

a less common pattern where the initial reaction to the loss is minimal or absent, but significant grief symptoms emerge much later, sometimes months or even years after the bereavement A. Resilience B. Recovery C. Chronic Grief D. Chronic Depression E. Delayed Grief

E. Delayed Grief

activities directly related to the loss, such as expressing feelings of yearning for the deceased, crying, or talking about them A. Loss-Orientation B. Restoration-Orientation C. Unique Invulnerability

A. Loss-Orientation

activities focused on reestablishing roles, engaging in new activities, and preparing for life without the loved one, such as attending to life changes or developing new routines A. Loss-Orientation B. Restoration-Orientation C. Unique Invulnerability

B. Restoration-Orientation

belief that bad things happen to others but not to themselves A. Loss-Orientation B. Restoration-Orientation C. Unique Invulnerability

C. Unique Invulnerability

Suicide is defined as: A. An accidental death caused by self-harm B. A deliberate choice of a time to end one’s life as a rational decision and a right to be defended C. A medical condition involving self-destructive impulses D. A form of assisted medical practice

B. A deliberate choice of a time to end one’s life as a rational decision and a right to be defended

Suicide rates are highest among which population group in almost all areas of the world? A. Adolescents B. Middle-aged adults C. The elderly D. Children

C. The elderly

Compared to women, men: A. Have lower suicide rates B. Commit suicide at higher rates C. Have equal suicide rates D. Attempt suicide less frequently

B. Commit suicide at higher rates

Which group is most at risk for suicidal thoughts and behavior? A. Married women with advanced education B. Elderly men with stable incomes C. Young, unmarried women with little education who are unusually impulsive, anxious, or depressed D. Young married men with high education

C. Young, unmarried women with little education who are unusually impulsive, anxious, or depressed

Males are far more likely to: A. Attempt suicide but fail B. Seek counseling before suicide C. Use poisoning as a method D. Succeed in taking their own life

D. Succeed in taking their own life

One reason males are more likely to succeed in suicide is because they tend to use: A. Overdosing on medication B. Hanging C. Poisoning D. Firearms

D. Firearms

Women are more likely than men to choose which suicide methods? A. Firearms B. Poisoning or hanging C. Drowning D. Jumping from heights

B. Poisoning or hanging

Assisted suicide is defined as: A. A physician performing euthanasia directly B. A family member making the decision for a patient C. Suicide in which a physician or someone else helps a person take his or her own life, but the person performs the actual deed D. A legally mandated medical procedure

C. Suicide in which a physician or someone else helps a person take his or her own life, but the person performs the actual deed

In assisted suicide, who performs the actual act that ends life? A. The physician B. A family member C. A legal authority D. The person who wants to die

D. The person who wants to die

One ethical argument for assisted suicide is based on: A. Religious obligation B. Economic efficiency C. Autonomy and self-determination D. Social conformity

C. Autonomy and self-determination

The ethical principle supporting assisted suicide holds that mentally competent persons should have the right to: A. Be treated regardless of prognosis B. Control the quality of their lives and the timing and nature of their death C. Delegate life decisions to physicians D. Receive treatment only from specialists

B. Control the quality of their lives and the timing and nature of their death

A medical argument for assisted suicide states that a doctor is obligated to: A. Preserve life at all costs B. Avoid legal complications C. Consult family members first D. Take all measures necessary to relieve suffering

D. Take all measures necessary to relieve suffering

A legal argument for assisted suicide includes the belief that legalization would: A. Eliminate all medical errors B. Permit regulation of practices that already occur out of compassion for suffering patients C. Prevent all lawsuits D. Guarantee equal access for all patients

B. Permit regulation of practices that already occur out of compassion for suffering patients

An ethical argument against assisted suicide is the belief that: A. Only physicians should make end-of-life decisions B. Legal systems are too complex C. Taking a life, even with consent, is wrong D. It reduces hospital costs

C. Taking a life, even with consent, is wrong

Another ethical concern against assisted suicide involves: A. Economic burden on hospitals B. Protection of the disadvantaged C. Physician burnout D. Insurance policy limitations

B. Protection of the disadvantaged

Which of the following is a medical argument against assisted suicide? A. Guaranteed accuracy of diagnosis B. The impossibility of suffering C. The potential future availability of new treatments D. Increased hospital revenue

C. The potential future availability of new treatments

Misdiagnosis is considered: A. An ethical argument for assisted suicide B. A legal requirement C. A social concern D. A medical argument against assisted suicide

D. A medical argument against assisted suicide

Concern about incorrect prognosis is categorized as a: A. Legal argument against assisted suicide B. Medical argument against assisted suicide C. Ethical argument for assisted suicide D. Social trend

B. Medical argument against assisted suicide

The belief that helping someone die is incompatible with a physician’s role as healer is a: A. Legal argument for assisted suicide B. Medical argument against assisted suicide C. Ethical argument supporting autonomy D. Social argument

B. Medical argument against assisted suicide

The concern that adequate safeguards are not possible falls under: A. Medical arguments against assisted suicide B. Ethical arguments for assisted suicide C. Legal arguments supporting assisted suicide D. Economic arguments

A. Medical arguments against assisted suicide

Legal arguments against assisted suicide include concerns about: A. Religious conflicts B. Hospital overcrowding C. Enforceability of safeguards D. Physician salaries

C. Enforceability of safeguards

Another legal concern against assisted suicide involves: A. Increased medical innovation B. Lawsuits when family members disagree about terminating a life C. Insurance reimbursements D. Patient transportation

B. Lawsuits when family members disagree about terminating a life

Young, unmarried women with little education are particularly at risk when they also display which traits? A. Confidence and independence B. Impulsivity, anxiety, or depression C. Physical illness only D. Financial success

B. Impulsivity, anxiety, or depression

Legalizing assisted suicide is argued by some to help: A. Eliminate all ethical debate B. Reduce the elderly population C. Regulate practices already occurring out of compassion D. Guarantee universal healthcare

C. Regulate practices already occurring out of compassion

“good death”, intended to end suffering or to allow a terminally ill person to die with dignity A. Euthanasia B. Passive Euthanasia C. Active Euthanasia

A. Euthanasia

withholding or discontinuing treatment that might extend the life of a terminally ill patient; generally legal A. Euthanasia B. Passive Euthanasia C. Active Euthanasia

B. Passive Euthanasia

deliberate action taken to shorten the life of a terminally ill person; mercy killing; generally illegal A. Euthanasia B. Passive Euthanasia C. Active Euthanasia

C. Active Euthanasia

document specifying the type of care wanted by the maker in the event of an incapacitating or terminal illness, contains instructions for when and how to discontinue futile medical care A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

A. Advance Directives

contain specific provisions with regard to circumstances in which treatment should be discontinued A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

B. Living Will

legal instrument that appoints an individual to make decisions in the event of another person’s incapacitation A. Advance Directives B. Living Will C. Durable Power of Attorney

C. Durable Power of Attorney

disbelief, emotional detachment, difficulty concentrating, a sense of unreality A. Phase of Numbness B. Phase of Yearning and Searching C. Phase of Disorganization and Despair D. Phase of Reorganization and Recovery

A. Phase of Numbness

intense emotional pain, pining, crying, restlessness, anxiety, anger, guilt, preoccupation with the deceased, dreams or illusions of the deceased A. Phase of Numbness B. Phase of Yearning and Searching C. Phase of Disorganization and Despair D. Phase of Reorganization and Recovery

B. Phase of Yearning and Searching

apathy, withdrawal from social activities, increased fatigue, sleep disturbances, loss of interest in previously enjoyed activities, questioning the meaning of life, depression A. Phase of Numbness B. Phase of Yearning and Searching C. Phase of Disorganization and Despair D. Phase of Reorganization and Recovery

C. Phase of Disorganization and Despair

renewed energy, establishment of new routines, finding meaning, increased interest in life, ability to look to the future, a sense of hope and trust restored A. Phase of Numbness B. Phase of Yearning and Searching C. Phase of Disorganization and Despair D. Phase of Reorganization and Recovery

D. Phase of Reorganization and Recovery

immediate impact phase, characterized by confusion, disbelief, and an intense state of alarm A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

A. Shock

the full reality of the loss becomes apparent, leading to intense emotional and physical reactions A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

B. Awareness of Loss

the bereaved feels a profound need to withdraw from external demands and conserve energy A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

C. Conservation/Withdrawal

signifies a shift from intense distress to a gradual restoration of energy and a renewed capacity to engage with life A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

D. Healing: The Turning Point

immediate impact phase, characterized by confusion, disbelief, and an intense state of alarm A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

A. Shock

the full reality of the loss becomes apparent, leading to intense emotional and physical reactions A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

B. Awareness of Loss

the bereaved feels a profound need to withdraw from external demands and conserve energy A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

C. Conservation/Withdrawal

signifies a shift from intense distress to a gradual restoration of energy and a renewed capacity to engage with life A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

D. Healing: The Turning Point

involves a new sense of self awareness and the ability to live effectively without the physical presence of the loved one A. Shock B. Awareness of Loss C. Conservation/Withdrawal D. Healing: The Turning Point E. Renewal

E. Renewal

newborn baby, up to 4 weeks old with about 20 inches long and weighs about 7 1⁄2 pounds A. Neonate B. Fontanels C. Lanugo D. Vernix Caseosa E. Witch’s Milk

A. Neonate

areas on their heads where the bones of the skull do not meet, and covered by a tough membrane that allows for flexibility in shape, which eases the passage of the neonate through the vaginal canal A. Neonate B. Fontanels C. Lanugo D. Vernix Caseosa E. Witch’s Milk

B. Fontanels

a fuzzy prenatal hair A. Neonate B. Fontanels C. Lanugo D. Vernix Caseosa E. Witch’s Milk

C. Lanugo

“cheesy varnish”, an oily protection against infection that dries within the first few days A. Neonate B. Fontanels C. Lanugo D. Vernix Caseosa E. Witch’s Milk

D. Vernix Caseosa

a secretion that sometimes leaks from the swollen breasts of newborn boys and girls around the 3rd day of life A. Neonate B. Fontanels C. Lanugo D. Vernix Caseosa E. Witch’s Milk

E. Witch’s Milk

Who proposed the concept of Developmental Tasks Across Lifespan? A. Jean Piaget B. Erik Erikson C. Robert Havighurst D. Sigmund Freud

C. Robert Havighurst

Developmental tasks across the lifespan are best described as: A. Random behaviors acquired during childhood B. Achievements or skills expected during specific life periods C. Genetic traits inherited at birth D. Temporary emotional states

B. Achievements or skills expected during specific life periods

Developmental tasks are primarily based on: A. Luck and opportunity B. Economic status only C. Political systems D. Biological maturation, societal expectations, and personal values

D. Biological maturation, societal expectations, and personal values

Successfully accomplishing developmental tasks tends to result in: A. Immediate financial gain B. Physical growth only C. Happiness and success with later tasks D. Reduced social interaction

C. Happiness and success with later tasks

Failure to accomplish developmental tasks may lead to: A. Automatic repetition of the same life stage B. Unhappiness and difficulty with future development C. Increased intelligence D. Faster physical maturation

B. Unhappiness and difficulty with future development

Developmental tasks are often viewed as: A. Mandatory legal requirements B. Fixed personality traits C. Accidental outcomes D. Goals individuals strive to achieve

D. Goals individuals strive to achieve

The Central Nervous System consists of the: A. Brain and spinal cord B. Heart and lungs C. Brain and digestive tract D. Spinal cord and muscles

A. Brain and spinal cord

The growth of the brain is described as: A. Complete at birth B. A lifelong process fundamental to physical, cognitive, and emotional development C. Limited to childhood D. Independent of emotional development

B. A lifelong process fundamental to physical, cognitive, and emotional development

At birth, the brain is approximately what fraction of its adult volume? A. One-half B. Three-fourths C. One-fourth to one-third D. Two-thirds

C. One-fourth to one-third

By age 6, the brain is: A. Fully mature in all aspects B. Almost adult size C. Half its adult size D. No longer developing

B. Almost adult size

Even after age 6, certain parts of the brain continue to: A. Shrink rapidly B. Stop functioning C. Remain unchanged D. Grow and develop functionally into adulthood

D. Grow and develop functionally into adulthood

Brain growth occurs in irregular patterns known as: A. Neural pauses B. Developmental freezes C. Brain growth spurts D. Reflex cycles

C. Brain growth spurts

Brain development begins approximately: A. At birth B. At age 6 C. Three weeks after conception D. During adolescence

C. Three weeks after conception

By birth, which structures begin their growth spurt? A. Cerebellum and cortex B. Brain stem and spinal cord C. Frontal lobe and parietal lobe D. Hypothalamus and amygdala

B. Brain stem and spinal cord

Brain growth is fundamental to which areas of development? A. Physical development only B. Cognitive development only C. Emotional development only D. Physical, cognitive, and emotional development

D. Physical, cognitive, and emotional development

The development of the brain is characterized as: A. A smooth and continuous process B. A single rapid event C. Occurring in fits and starts D. Ending in early childhood

C. Occurring in fits and starts

The concept of developmental tasks emphasizes expectations during: A. Random stages of life B. Particular periods of life C. Old age only D. Adolescence only

B. Particular periods of life

The brain’s size at birth compared to adulthood indicates that: A. Most growth occurs before birth B. The brain is nearly fully grown at birth C. Significant growth occurs after birth D. Growth stops shortly after birth

C. Significant growth occurs after birth

The spinal cord is part of the: A. Peripheral Nervous System B. Digestive System C. Endocrine System D. Central Nervous System

D. Central Nervous System

The beginning of brain development occurs: A. During early childhood B. In adolescence C. About three weeks after conception D. At six months after birth

C. About three weeks after conception

responsible for such basic functions as breathing, heart rate, body temperature, and the sleep-wake cycle A. Brain Stem B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum

A. Brain Stem

maintains balance and motor coordination which grows fastest during the 1st year of life A. Brain Stem B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

the largest part of the brain, divided into right and left halves or hemispheres A. Brain Stem B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum

C. Cerebrum

tendency of each of the brain’s hemispheres to have specialized functions A. Lateralization B. Left Hemisphere C. Right Hemisphere D. Corpus Callosum

A. Lateralization

concerned with language and logical thinking A. Lateralization B. Left Hemisphere C. Right Hemisphere D. Corpus Callosum

B. Left Hemisphere

visual and spatial functions (map reading and drawing) A. Lateralization B. Left Hemisphere C. Right Hemisphere D. Corpus Callosum

C. Right Hemisphere

joining the two hemispheres is a tough band of tissue that shares information and coordinate commands A. Lateralization B. Left Hemisphere C. Right Hemisphere D. Corpus Callosum

D. Corpus Callosum

primarily concerned with visual processing and the smallest of the four lobes A. Occipital Lobe B. Parietal Lobe C. Temporal Lobe D. Frontal Lobe

A. Occipital Lobe

involved with integrating sensory information from the body A. Occipital Lobe B. Parietal Lobe C. Temporal Lobe D. Frontal Lobe

B. Parietal Lobe

helps us interpret smells and sounds and is involved in memory A. Occipital Lobe B. Parietal Lobe C. Temporal Lobe D. Frontal Lobe

C. Temporal Lobe

involved with a variety of higher-order processes A. Occipital Lobe B. Parietal Lobe C. Temporal Lobe D. Frontal Lobe

D. Frontal Lobe

the outer of the cerebrum the govern vision, hearing, and other sensory information grow rapidly in the first few months after birth A. Cerebral Cortex B. Reflex Behavior C. Primitive Reflexes D. Postural Reflexes E. Locomotor Reflexes

A. Cerebral Cortex

automatic, involuntary, innate responses to stimulation A. Cerebral Cortex B. Reflex Behavior C. Primitive Reflexes D. Postural Reflexes E. Locomotor Reflexes

B. Reflex Behavior

related to survival and protection such as, sucking, rooting for the nipple, and the moro reflex A. Cerebral Cortex B. Reflex Behavior C. Primitive Reflexes D. Postural Reflexes E. Locomotor Reflexes

C. Primitive Reflexes

reactions to changes in position or balance A. Cerebral Cortex B. Reflex Behavior C. Primitive Reflexes D. Postural Reflexes E. Locomotor Reflexes

D. Postural Reflexes

walking and swimming reflexes A. Cerebral Cortex B. Reflex Behavior C. Primitive Reflexes D. Postural Reflexes E. Locomotor Reflexes

E. Locomotor Reflexes

Startle A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

A. Moro Reflex

Is an involuntary protective motor response triggered by an abrupt disruption of body balance or sudden stimulation A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

A. Moro Reflex

When an object is placed in an infant’s palm, they will instinctively grasp it tightly A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

B. Darwinian Reflex

Grasping A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

B. Darwinian Reflex

Pincer A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

B. Darwinian Reflex

Palmer A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

B. Darwinian Reflex

When an infant’s head is turned to one side, the arm and leg on that side extend, while the arm and leg on the opposite side flex A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

C. Tonic Neck Reflex

Fencing A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

C. Tonic Neck Reflex

When pressure is applied to the infant’s palms (e.g., by squeezing them), the infant may open their mouth, flex their head, or turn their head A. Moro Reflex B. Darwinian Reflex C. Tonic Neck Reflex D. Babkin Reflex

D. Babkin Reflex

When the sole of the foot is firmly stroked from the heel to the toes, the big toe extends upward, and the other toes fan out A. Babinski Reflex B. Rooting Reflex C. Walking Reflex D. Swimming Reflex

A. Babinski Reflex

When an infant’s cheek or the corner of their mouth is stroked, they will turn their head towards the stimulus and open their mouth, “rooting” for a nipple A. Babinski Reflex B. Rooting Reflex C. Walking Reflex D. Swimming Reflex

B. Rooting Reflex

If an infant is held upright with their feet touching a solid surface, they will appear to take “steps” or make walking movements A. Babinski Reflex B. Rooting Reflex C. Walking Reflex D. Swimming Reflex

C. Walking Reflex

When placed face down in water, an infant will naturally hold their breath and make swimming motions with their arms and legs A. Babinski Reflex B. Rooting Reflex C. Walking Reflex D. Swimming Reflex

D. Swimming Reflex

Which sense is the first to develop? A. Hearing B. Touch C. Sight D. Taste

B. Touch

During the first several months of life, which sensory system is the most mature? A. Touch B. Hearing C. Sight D. Smell

A. Touch

By how many weeks of gestation are all body parts sensitive to touch? A. 28 weeks B. 30 weeks C. 32 weeks D. 36 weeks

C. 32 weeks

Touch sensitivity increases during which time period? A. The first month of life B. The first 5 days of life C. The first 6 months of life D. The first year of life

B. The first 5 days of life

When do the senses of smell and taste begin to develop? A. At birth B. During the first month after birth C. In early childhood D. In the womb

D. In the womb

Flavors from food the mother consumes are found in which substance? A. Breast milk B. Blood plasma C. Amniotic fluid D. Saliva

C. Amniotic fluid

A preference for certain tastes and smells can be developed: A. Only after birth B. In early childhood C. During adolescence D. In utero

D. In utero

Flavors from foods eaten by the mother are transmitted to the infant through: A. Formula B. Breast milk C. Saliva D. Solid foods

B. Breast milk

Exposure to flavors through breast milk may: A. Decrease appetite B. Delay weaning C. Improve acceptance of healthy foods after weaning and later in life D. Eliminate food allergies

C. Improve acceptance of healthy foods after weaning and later in life

Auditory discrimination develops rapidly: A. Before birth B. During adolescence C. In early childhood D. After birth

D. After birth

Infants as young as 2 days old can: A. Distinguish colors B. Recognize a word heard up to a day earlier C. Follow a moving target D. Recognize entire sentences

B. Recognize a word heard up to a day earlier

At 1 month, babies can distinguish sounds as similar as: A. Ma and na B. Da and ga C. Ba and pa D. La and ra

C. Ba and pa

By 11 to 17 weeks, infants are able to: A. Follow moving objects B. Recognize and remember entire sentences after a brief delay C. Speak simple words D. Identify written letters

B. Recognize and remember entire sentences after a brief delay

Which sense is the least developed at birth? A. Touch B. Hearing C. Smell D. Sight

D. Sight

The ability to follow a moving target develops rapidly during: A. The first months of life B. The second year of life C. Adolescence D. Late childhood

A. The first months of life

Color perception develops rapidly during: A. The prenatal period only B. The first months of life C. Middle childhood D. Adolescence

B. The first months of life

Visual acuity reaches approximately 20/20 level by about: A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 8 months D. 12 months

C. 8 months

Binocular vision refers to: A. Seeing only in black and white B. The use of both eyes to focus, enabling perception of depth and distance C. The ability to detect movement D. The recognition of familiar faces

B. The use of both eyes to focus, enabling perception of depth and distance

Binocular vision usually develops at what age? A. At birth B. 2 months C. 4 or 5 months D. 8 months

C. 4 or 5 months

Which ability enables perception of depth and distance? A. Auditory discrimination B. Color perception C. Touch sensitivity D. Binocular vision

D. Binocular vision

increasingly complex combinations of motor skills, which permit a wider or more precise range of movement and more control of the environment A. Systems of Action B. Pincer Grasp C. Gross Motor Skills D. Fine Motor Skills

A. Systems of Action

the thumb and index finger meet at the tips to form a circle, making it possible to pick up tiny object A. Systems of Action B. Pincer Grasp C. Gross Motor Skills D. Fine Motor Skills

B. Pincer Grasp

physical skills that involves the large muscles A. Systems of Action B. Pincer Grasp C. Gross Motor Skills D. Fine Motor Skills

C. Gross Motor Skills

physical skills that involve the small muscles and eye-hand coordination A. Systems of Action B. Pincer Grasp C. Gross Motor Skills D. Fine Motor Skills

D. Fine Motor Skills

sensory stimulation in changing but perception of the physical world remains constant A. Perceptual Constancy B. Size Constancy C. Shape Constancy

A. Perceptual Constancy

ability to perceive an object as having a constant size, even when the size of its retinal image (the image on the back of your eye) changes due to distance A. Perceptual Constancy B. Size Constancy C. Shape Constancy

B. Size Constancy

A building appears smaller from a distance, but our brain still perceives it as having its normal size A. Perceptual Constancy B. Size Constancy C. Shape Constancy

B. Size Constancy

ability to perceive an object as having a constant shape, even when the object’s orientation or the angle from which it is viewed changes, causing its retinal image to appear different A. Perceptual Constancy B. Size Constancy C. Shape Constancy

C. Shape Constancy

A door is still perceived as rectangular, even when it’s open and the retinal image appears as an oblong shape A. Perceptual Constancy B. Size Constancy C. Shape Constancy

C. Shape Constancy

the use of the eyes to guide the movement of the hands (or other parts of the body A. Visual Guidance B. Depth Perception C. Haptic Perception

A. Visual Guidance

the ability to perceive objects and surfaces in three dimensions depends on the several kinds of cues that affect the image of an object on the retina of the eye A. Visual Guidance B. Depth Perception C. Haptic Perception

B. Depth Perception

the use of the eyes to guide the movement of the hands (or other parts of the body A. Visual Guidance B. Depth Perception C. Haptic Perception

A. Visual Guidance

the ability to perceive objects and surfaces in three dimensions depends on the several kinds of cues that affect the image of an object on the retina of the eye A. Visual Guidance B. Depth Perception C. Haptic Perception

B. Depth Perception

able to recognize and remember features of objects that were placed in their hands (28 weeks of gestation) A. Visual Guidance B. Depth Perception C. Haptic Perception

C. Haptic Perception

Who developed the APGAR Scale? A. Dr. T. Berry Brazelton B. Dr. Virginia Apgar C. Jean Piaget D. Dr. Arnold Gesell

B. Dr. Virginia Apgar

The APGAR Scale is first administered at what time? A. Immediately after crowning B. Ten minutes after birth C. One minute after delivery D. Thirty minutes after birth

C. One minute after delivery

The APGAR assessment is repeated at which time following the initial evaluation? A. Two minutes after birth B. Five minutes after birth C. Fifteen minutes after birth D. Twenty minutes after birth

B. Five minutes after birth

Which of the following is NOT one of the five APGAR subtests? A. Appearance B. Reflex irritability C. Muscle coordination D. Respiration

C. Muscle coordination

In the APGAR Scale, each subtest is rated using which scoring range? A. 1–5 B. 0–3 C. 0–5 D. 0–2

D. 0–2

A total APGAR score between 7 and 10 indicates: A. Immediate lifesaving treatment is required B. The baby needs help establishing breathing C. Good to excellent condition D. Increasing association with neurological problems

C. Good to excellent condition

An APGAR score below 5–7 suggests that the baby: A. Is in excellent condition B. Needs help to establish breathing C. Requires long-term therapy D. Is at high risk for tremors

B. Needs help to establish breathing

An APGAR score below 4 indicates that the baby: A. Needs immediate lifesaving treatment B. Is stable but irritable C. Has normal reflexes D. Demonstrates strong respiration

A. Needs immediate lifesaving treatment

APGAR scores of 0 to 3 at 10, 15, and 20 minutes after birth are increasingly associated with: A. Strong motor organization B. Superior interactive capacities C. Cerebral palsy or other neurological problems D. High intellectual stimulation

C. Cerebral palsy or other neurological problems

The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) is designed for infants up to what age? A. 1 month B. 6 months C. 2 months D. 12 months

C. 2 months

The NBAS measures a neonate’s responses primarily to: A. Genetic testing procedures B. The environment C. Vaccinations D. Nutritional intake

B. The environment

Who developed the NBAS? A. Dr. Virginia Apgar B. Dr. Benjamin Spock C. Jean Piaget D. Dr. T. Berry Brazelton

D. Dr. T. Berry Brazelton

Within the NBAS, motor organization includes behaviors such as: A. Language comprehension B. Recognizing letters C. Activity level and ability to bring a hand to the mouth D. Reading facial expressions

C. Activity level and ability to bring a hand to the mouth

Which NBAS component evaluates irritability, excitability, and the ability to quiet down after being upset? A. Reflexes B. Central Nervous System Instability C. Attention and Interactive Capacities D. State Changes

D. State Changes

Tremors and changes in skin color are evaluated under which NBAS category? A. Motor Organization B. Central Nervous System Instability C. Reflexes D. Attention Capacities

B. Central Nervous System Instability

Attention and Interactive Capacities in the NBAS include assessment of: A. Weight gain B. Sleep cycles C. General alertness and response to visual and auditory stimuli D. Blood oxygen levels

C. General alertness and response to visual and auditory stimuli

The Home Observation for Measurement of the Environment (HOME) involves: A. Laboratory neurological scans B. Parent self-report surveys only C. Teacher classroom observations D. Trained observers interviewing the primary caregiver

D. Trained observers interviewing the primary caregiver

In the HOME assessment, observers use what type of checklist? A. Multiple-choice rating scale B. Five-point scale C. Yes-or-no checklist D. Open-ended narrative report

C. Yes-or-no checklist

The HOME assessment primarily evaluates: A. Physical growth milestones B. Intellectual stimulation and support in the home C. Genetic predispositions D. Hospital birth procedures

B. Intellectual stimulation and support in the home

Early Intervention refers to: A. Immediate surgery after birth B. A systematic process of planning and providing therapeutic and educational services C. APGAR reassessment at 20 minutes D. Reflex training in hospitals

B. A systematic process of planning and providing therapeutic and educational services

Early Intervention services are designed to assist families in meeting the developmental needs of: A. Adolescents only B. School-age children only C. Infants, toddlers, and pre-school children D. Adults with neurological disorders

C. Infants, toddlers, and pre-school children

The Sensorimotor Stage spans what age range? A. Birth to 1 year B. Birth to 2 years C. 2 to 4 years D. 3 to 6 years

B. Birth to 2 years

During the Sensorimotor Stage, infants learn primarily through: A. Abstract reasoning B. Formal instruction C. Social comparison D. Developing sensory and motor activity

D. Developing sensory and motor activity

Schemes are best described as: A. Random reflexes B. Genetic patterns C. Organized patterns of thought and behavior in particular situations D. Environmental stimuli

C. Organized patterns of thought and behavior in particular situations

Circular Reactions occur when an infant: A. Learns language through repetition B. Memorizes visual symbols C. Avoids unfamiliar stimuli D. Reproduces events originally discovered by chance

D. Reproduces events originally discovered by chance

Representational Ability refers to the ability to: A. Walk independently B. Mentally represent objects and actions in memory C. Control reflexes D. Increase muscle tone

B. Mentally represent objects and actions in memory

Representational Ability largely involves the use of: A. Reflex arcs B. Skin color changes C. Symbols such as words, numbers, and mental pictures D. Muscle coordination only

C. Symbols such as words, numbers, and mental pictures