Part 3 Flashcards by Emjay Cosico

observed behavior as predictable response to experience

A. Behaviorism
B. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov
C. Unconditioned Stimulus (US)
D. Unconditioned Response (UR)

A. Behaviorism

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response to stimulus is evoked after repeated association with a stimulus that normally elicits response

A. Behaviorism
B. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov
C. Unconditioned Stimulus (US)
D. Unconditioned Response (UR)

B. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov

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a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response (e.g., food)

A. Behaviorism
B. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov
C. Unconditioned Stimulus (US)
D. Unconditioned Response (UR)

C. Unconditioned Stimulus (US)

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the natural, automatic response to the unconditioned stimulus (e.g., salivation)

A. Behaviorism
B. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov
C. Unconditioned Stimulus (US)
D. Unconditioned Response (UR)

D. Unconditioned Response (UR)

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a stimulus that, before conditioning, does not trigger a specific response (e.g., a bell)

A. Neutral Stimulus
B. Conditioned Stimulus (CS)
C. Conditioned Response (CR)
D. Acquisition

A. Neutral Stimulus

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the neutral stimulus that, after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, triggers a conditioned response (e.g., the bell)

A. Neutral Stimulus
B. Conditioned Stimulus (CS)
C. Conditioned Response (CR)
D. Acquisition

B. Conditioned Stimulus (CS)

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the learned response to the conditioned stimulus (e.g., salivation)

A. Neutral Stimulus
B. Conditioned Stimulus (CS)
C. Conditioned Response (CR)
D. Acquisition

C. Conditioned Response (CR)

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the initial stage of learning where the association between the CS and CR is established

A. Neutral Stimulus
B. Conditioned Stimulus (CS)
C. Conditioned Response (CR)
D. Acquisition

D. Acquisition

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the gradual weakening of the conditioned response when the CS is no longer paired with the US

A. Extinction
B. Spontaneous Recovery
C. Generalization
D. Discrimination

A. Extinction

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the reappearance of a conditioned response after a period of rest, even if the CS and US have not been paired again

A. Extinction
B. Spontaneous Recovery
C. Generalization
D. Discrimination

B. Spontaneous Recovery

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the tendency for a conditioned response to occur in response to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus

A. Extinction
B. Spontaneous Recovery
C. Generalization
D. Discrimination

C. Generalization

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the ability to distinguish between the conditioned stimulus and other stimuli that are not associated with the unconditioned stimulus

A. Extinction
B. Spontaneous Recovery
C. Generalization
D. Discrimination

D. Discrimination

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Operant conditioning focuses primarily on:

A. Internal thoughts and unconscious drives

B. Consequences of operating on the environment

C. Genetic influences on behavior

D. Emotional attachment patterns

B. Consequences of operating on the environment

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Reinforcement is defined as:

A. Decreasing the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated

B. Ignoring a behavior to eliminate it

C. Increasing the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated

D. Returning behavior to its original level

C. Increasing the likelihood that a behavior will be repeated

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Punishment is intended to:

A. Strengthen a behavior

B. Increase motivation

C. Create observational learning

D. Decrease the likelihood of repetition

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Reinforcement is most effective when it:

A. Immediately follows a behavior

B. Is delayed by several hours

C. Occurs randomly

D. Is paired with punishment

A. Immediately follows a behavior

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A behavior that returns to its original level when a response is no longer reinforced is described as:

A. Conditioned
B. Modeled
C. Extinguished
D. Observed

C. Extinguished

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Continuous reinforcement occurs when:

A. Reinforcement is given after a variable number of responses

B. Reinforcement is given after a fixed amount of time

C. Every occurrence of the desired behavior is reinforced

D. Reinforcement is unpredictable

C. Every occurrence of the desired behavior is reinforced

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Fixed interval reinforcement is delivered:

A. After an unpredictable number of responses

B. For the first response after a specific and predictable amount of time has elapsed

C. After every behavior

D. After an unpredictable amount of time has passed

B. For the first response after a specific and predictable amount of time has elapsed

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Getting paid every two weeks is an example of:

A. Variable ratio

B. Continuous reinforcement

C. Fixed ratio

D. Fixed interval

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Fixed ratio reinforcement is delivered:

A. After a specific and predictable number of responses

B. After the first response following a time period

C. Randomly

D. Continuously

A. After a specific and predictable number of responses

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Being paid for every 10 items produced represents:

A. Variable interval
B. Fixed ratio
C. Fixed interval
D. Variable ratio

B. Fixed ratio

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Variable interval reinforcement is delivered:

A. After a predictable number of responses

B. After every occurrence

C. For the first response after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed

D. After a specific time has passed

C. For the first response after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed

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Checking email where new messages arrive at random times is an example of:

A. Variable interval
B. Fixed interval
C. Variable ratio
D. Continuous reinforcement

A. Variable interval

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Variable ratio reinforcement is delivered: A. After every response B. After a predictable number of responses C. After a fixed time period D. After an unpredictable number of responses

D. After an unpredictable number of responses

Slot machines paying out after a random number of plays demonstrate: A. Fixed interval B. Variable ratio C. Fixed ratio D. Continuous reinforcement

B. Variable ratio

Social Learning Theory emphasizes that learning occurs through: A. Genetic inheritance B. Classical conditioning only C. Observation, imitation, and modeling D. Trial and error exclusively

C. Observation, imitation, and modeling

Reciprocal determinism suggests that: A. Only the environment influences development B. Development is influenced solely by genetics C. Behavior has no effect on the environment D. The impetus for development is bidirectional

D. The impetus for development is bidirectional

Observational learning involves: A. Learning exclusively through punishment B. Learning appropriate social behavior by observing and imitating models C. Ignoring environmental input D. Reinforcing every behavior

B. Learning appropriate social behavior by observing and imitating models

Social Cognitive Theory proposes that: A. Learning occurs without thinking B. Only direct reinforcement shapes behavior C. Cognitive processes are at work as people observe models and mentally combine chunks of behavior D. Learning depends entirely on physical rewards

C. Cognitive processes are at work as people observe models and mentally combine chunks of behavior

Self-efficacy refers to: A. Fear of failure B. Confidence in one’s ability C. Environmental control D. Observational punishment

B. Confidence in one’s ability

Vicarious reinforcement occurs when: A. A person is directly rewarded for behavior B. A behavior is ignored C. A model’s rewarded behavior increases the likelihood of imitation D. A person is punished for behavior

C. A model’s rewarded behavior increases the likelihood of imitation

When a model is punished for a behavior, that behavior is: A. More likely to be imitated B. More likely to be avoided C. Extinguished immediately D. Reinforced continuously

B. More likely to be avoided

Experiential Learning Theory emphasizes: A. Learning by memorization B. Learning solely through observation C. Learning through punishment D. Learning by doing

D. Learning by doing

Experiential Learning Theory was developed by: A. Skinner B. Bandura C. Kolb D. Pavlov

C. Kolb

In experiential learning, knowledge is created through: A. Direct instruction only B. The transformation of experience C. Random reinforcement D. Observational punishment

B. The transformation of experience

Which theory focuses on consequences such as reinforcements and punishments? A. Social Learning Theory B. Experiential Learning Theory C. Operant Conditioning D. Social Cognitive Theory

C. Operant Conditioning

New experience or situation, or reinterpretation of existing experience in the light of new concepts A. Concrete Experience B. Reflective Observation C. Abstract Conceptualization D. Active Experimentation

A. Concrete Experience

Reflects on the new experience in the light of their existing knowledge of particular importance are any inconsistencies between experience and understanding A. Concrete Experience B. Reflective Observation C. Abstract Conceptualization D. Active Experimentation

B. Reflective Observation

Reflection gives rise to a new idea, or a modification of an existing abstract concept A. Concrete Experience B. Reflective Observation C. Abstract Conceptualization D. Active Experimentation

C. Abstract Conceptualization

Newly created or modified concepts give rise to experimentation; applying their ideas to the world around them A. Concrete Experience B. Reflective Observation C. Abstract Conceptualization D. Active Experimentation

D. Active Experimentation

Which learning style is described as imaginative, enjoying observing situations from multiple perspectives, and being good at generating ideas? A. Converging B. Assimilation C. Diverging D. Accommodating

C. Diverging

Which learning style is associated with concrete experience and reflective observation? A. Diverging B. Converging C. Assimilation D. Accommodating

A. Diverging

Learners who are more interested in abstract concepts and theoretical models and excel at organizing information demonstrate which style? A. Diverging B. Assimilation C. Accommodating D. Converging

B. Assimilation

Abstract conceptualization combined with reflective observation characterizes which learning style? A. Converging B. Accommodating C. Diverging D. Assimilation

D. Assimilation

Practical problem-solvers who prefer technical tasks and find practical uses for abstract theories demonstrate which learning style? A. Converging B. Diverging C. Assimilation D. Accommodating

A. Converging

Which learning style combines abstract conceptualization with active experimentation? A. Assimilation B. Diverging C. Converging D. Accommodating

C. Converging

Hands-on learners who enjoy new challenges and experiences are best described as: A. Assimilation B. Accommodating C. Converging D. Diverging

B. Accommodating

Which learning style is characterized by concrete experience and active experimentation? A. Converging B. Diverging C. Assimilation D. Accommodating

D. Accommodating

Evolutionary Theory by Wilson draws findings from which of the following fields? A. Sociology, economics, and history B. Anthropology, ecology, genetics, ethology, and evolutionary psychology C. Political science, philosophy, and law D. Linguistics, education, and literature

B. Anthropology, ecology, genetics, ethology, and evolutionary psychology

Evolutionary Theory by Wilson explains the adaptive or survival value of behavior for: A. Societies only B. Cultures only C. Individuals or species D. Governments only

C. Individuals or species

Evolutionary Theory by Wilson was influenced by which theorist’s work? A. Herbert Spencer B. Sigmund Freud C. Jean Piaget D. Charles Darwin

D. Charles Darwin

Altruistic behaviors can be explained if they: A. Increase an individual’s wealth B. Benefit genetically related individuals C. Improve social status D. Reduce competition

B. Benefit genetically related individuals

By helping relatives survive and reproduce, an individual indirectly promotes the survival of: A. Cultural traditions B. Social norms C. Their own genes D. Group leadership

C. Their own genes

Multilevel Selection involves: A. Individual competition only B. Genetic mutation only C. Environmental adaptation only D. Group-level selection favoring cooperation and altruism within groups competing with other groups

D. Group-level selection favoring cooperation and altruism within groups competing with other groups

Multilevel Selection played a significant role in the evolution of: A. Language systems B. Industrial societies C. Eusociality D. Agriculture

C. Eusociality

Natural Selection refers to: A. The survival of only the strongest species B. The intentional improvement of species C. The study of animal behavior D. The differential survival and reproduction of different variants of members of species

D. The differential survival and reproduction of different variants of members of species

Ethology is the study of: A. Human personality traits B. Adaptive behaviors of animal species in natural contexts C. Social institutions D. Genetic engineering

B. Adaptive behaviors of animal species in natural contexts

Evolutionary Psychology applies Darwinian principles to: A. Animal migration B. Plant adaptation C. Human behavior D. Climate change

C. Human behavior

The Law of Natural Selection as the principle of survival of the fittest was proposed by: A. Charles Darwin B. Edward Wilson C. Herbert Spencer D. Alfred Wallace

C. Herbert Spencer

Social Role Theory traces socialization and personality development through a person’s participation in: A. Academic achievements B. Increasingly diverse and complex social roles C. Economic activities D. Biological maturation

B. Increasingly diverse and complex social roles

Role Enactment refers to: A. The number of roles a person occupies B. The patterned characteristics of social behavior C. The expectations linked to each role D. The flexibility of role scripts

B. The patterned characteristics of social behavior

Social Roles are defined as: A. The time required for each role B. The emotional attachment to roles C. The parts or identities a person assumes D. The behaviors animals display

C. The parts or identities a person assumes

Role Expectations are: A. Flexible behaviors unique to each person B. Scripts or shared expectations for behavior linked to each part C. Genetic predispositions D. Informal habits

B. Scripts or shared expectations for behavior linked to each part

Which of the following is one of the four dimensions of Social Role Theory? A. Genetic inheritance B. Level of intelligence C. Number of roles a person occupies D. Cultural background

C. Number of roles a person occupies

The intensity of involvement in Social Role Theory refers to: A. How many roles a person holds B. How deeply the person identifies with the role C. The biological basis of roles D. The financial reward of roles

B. How deeply the person identifies with the role

The amount of time a role demands is considered: A. A type of social expectation B. A component of evolutionary theory C. A form of altruism D. One of the four dimensions of Social Role Theory

D. One of the four dimensions of Social Role Theory

The extent to which role expectations are highly structured or flexible relates to: A. Role Enactment B. Role conflict C. A dimension of Social Role Theory D. Natural selection

C. A dimension of Social Role Theory

Self-Fulfilling Prophecy describes the tendency for individuals to: A. Reject social expectations B. Behave inconsistently across roles C. Avoid social roles D. Behave in ways consistent with the roles they occupy and associated expectations

D. Behave in ways consistent with the roles they occupy and associated expectations

Which principle states that development continues across the entire lifespan? A. Development is multidirectional B. Development is lifelong C. Development is multidisciplinary D. Development shows plasticity

B. Development is lifelong

The idea that development includes growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss refers to: A. Development involves changing resource allocations B. Development is lifelong C. Development is multidimensional D. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

A. Development involves changing resource allocations

Which principle emphasizes that development can involve both gains and losses? A. Development is multidisciplinary B. Development shows plasticity C. Development is multidirectional D. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan

C. Development is multidirectional

The principle that recognizes the role of multiple academic fields in understanding development is: A. Development is lifelong B. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context C. Development shows plasticity D. Development is multidisciplinary

D. Development is multidisciplinary

Which principle highlights that the impact of biology and culture changes as a person ages? A. Development is multidimensional B. Development shows plasticity C. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan D. Development is lifelong

C. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan

The concept that development can be modified or is capable of change reflects: A. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context B. Development shows plasticity C. Development is multidirectional D. Development involves changing resource allocations

B. Development shows plasticity

Which principle states that development consists of multiple interacting components? A. Development is multidimensional B. Development is lifelong C. Development is multidisciplinary D. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

A. Development is multidimensional

The idea that development is shaped by the time period and society in which a person lives refers to: A. Development is multidirectional B. Development shows plasticity C. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context D. Development involves changing resource allocations

C. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

Which principle directly includes growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss as key processes? A. Development is multidimensional B. Development is lifelong C. Development shows plasticity D. Development involves changing resource allocations

D. Development involves changing resource allocations

Recognizing that development continues from birth through old age illustrates: A. Development is lifelong B. Development is multidisciplinary C. Development is multidirectional D. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

A. Development is lifelong

Which principle indicates that different domains or aspects are involved in development? A. Development shows plasticity B. Development is multidimensional C. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan D. Development involves changing resource allocations

B. Development is multidimensional

The principle that stresses collaboration across fields of study in understanding development is: A. Development is lifelong B. Development is multidirectional C. Development is multidisciplinary D. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

C. Development is multidisciplinary

Which principle reflects that development may improve in some areas while declining in others? A. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context B. Development is multidirectional C. Development shows plasticity D. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan

B. Development is multidirectional

The concept that developmental outcomes can be altered demonstrates: A. Development involves changing resource allocations B. Development is lifelong C. Development shows plasticity D. Development is multidisciplinary

C. Development shows plasticity

Which principle emphasizes that cultural and historical factors shape development? A. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context B. Development is multidimensional C. Development is lifelong D. Development involves changing resource allocations

A. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

The shifting balance between biological and cultural influences over time refers to: A. Development shows plasticity B. Development is multidirectional C. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan D. Development is multidisciplinary

C. Relative influence of biology and culture shifts over the lifespan

Which principle focuses on the idea that development includes multiple dimensions? A. Development is lifelong B. Development is multidimensional C. Development shows plasticity D. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context

B. Development is multidimensional

The understanding that development is studied by various disciplines best reflects: A. Development is multidisciplinary B. Development is lifelong C. Development involves changing resource allocations D. Development is multidirectional

A. Development is multidisciplinary

Which principle includes the regulation of loss as part of development? A. Development shows plasticity B. Development is influenced by historical and cultural context C. Development involves changing resource allocations D. Development is multidimensional

C. Development involves changing resource allocations

The recognition that development occurs throughout all stages of life is captured by: A. Development is multidirectional B. Development is lifelong C. Development shows plasticity D. Development is multidisciplinary

B. Development is lifelong

the process of the unison of sperm and ovum to produce a zygote A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

A. Fertilization (Conception)

one-celled organism resulting from fertilization A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

B. Zygote

Duplicates itself again and again by cell division to produce all the cells that make up a baby A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

B. Zygote

rupture of a mature follicle in either ovary and expulsion of its ovum, occurs about once every 28 days until menopause A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

C. Ovulation

swept along through one of the fallopian tubes by the cilia, tiny hair cells, toward the uterus, or womb A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

D. Ovum

deposited in the vagina, they try to swim through the cervix, the opening of the uterus, and into the fallopian tubes, but only a tiny fraction make it that far A. Fertilization (Conception) B. Zygote C. Ovulation D. Ovum E. Sperm

E. Sperm

Fraternal Twins A. Dizygotic Twins B. Monozygotic Twins

A. Dizygotic Twins

the result of two separate eggs being fertilized by two different sperm to form two unique individuals A. Dizygotic Twins B. Monozygotic Twins

A. Dizygotic Twins

Identical twins A. Dizygotic Twins B. Monozygotic Twins

B. Monozygotic Twins

twins resulting from the division of a single zygote after fertilization A. Dizygotic Twins B. Monozygotic Twins

B. Monozygotic Twins

Incomplete dominance is best defined as: A. A pattern of inheritance where dominant genes completely mask recessive genes B. A pattern of inheritance involving traits only found on the Y chromosome C. A pattern of inheritance in which a child receives two identical alleles D. A pattern of inheritance in which a child receives two different alleles, resulting in partial expression of a trait

D. A pattern of inheritance in which a child receives two different alleles, resulting in partial expression of a trait

Incomplete dominance is identified as a pattern of: A. Behavioral genetics B. Developmental psychology C. Molecular biology D. Cognitive neuroscience

B. Developmental psychology

Sex-linked inheritance involves characteristics that are: A. Carried on the X chromosome inherited from the mother B. Carried equally on both X and Y chromosomes C. Found only in mitochondrial DNA D. Present only in autosomes

A. Carried on the X chromosome inherited from the mother

In sex-linked inheritance, males receive: A. Two copies of every gene on the sex chromosomes B. Only one copy of any gene carried on the sex chromosomes C. Three copies of genes on the X chromosome D. No genes from the X chromosome

B. Only one copy of any gene carried on the sex chromosomes

In sex-linked inheritance, females receive: A. Only one copy of genes on the sex chromosomes B. No copies of genes on the sex chromosomes C. Two copies of genes on the sex chromosomes D. Three copies of genes on the X chromosome

C. Two copies of genes on the sex chromosomes

Carriers are best described as: A. Males with two recessive genes B. Heterozygote females who carry one recessive gene and one dominant gene C. Females with two dominant genes D. Individuals who lack the X chromosome

B. Heterozygote females who carry one recessive gene and one dominant gene

A carrier in sex-linked inheritance typically: A. Has two “bad” copies of a recessive gene B. Has one “bad” copy of a recessive gene and one “good” copy C. Has no recessive genes D. Has only dominant genes

B. Has one “bad” copy of a recessive gene and one “good” copy

Sex-linked recessive disorders are more common in: A. Females than males B. Both sexes equally C. Males than females D. Only carriers

C. Males than females

Which of the following is an example of a sex-linked recessive disorder? A. Down syndrome B. Red-green color blindness C. Turner syndrome D. Huntington disease

B. Red-green color blindness

Which disorder listed is identified as sex-linked recessive? A. Hemophilia B. Cystic fibrosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Tay-Sachs disease

A. Hemophilia

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is classified as: A. A chromosomal abnormality B. An autosomal dominant disorder C. A sex-linked recessive disorder D. A mitochondrial disorder

C. A sex-linked recessive disorder

Chromosomal abnormalities typically occur because of: A. Environmental toxins B. Errors in cell division C. Dietary deficiencies D. Learned behaviors

B. Errors in cell division

A chromosomal abnormality may result in: A. A change in hair color only B. An extra or missing chromosome C. Two identical alleles D. Balanced gene expression

B. An extra or missing chromosome

Which condition describes a female who carries one recessive gene and one dominant gene for a sex-linked trait? A. Homozygote B. Carrier C. Hemizygote D. Mutant

B. Carrier

The difference in transmission patterns between male and female offspring in sex-linked inheritance is due to: A. Autosomal gene duplication B. Differences in mitochondrial DNA C. The number of gene copies on the sex chromosomes D. Environmental exposure differences

C. The number of gene copies on the sex chromosomes

In incomplete dominance, the trait expressed in the child is: A. Completely dominant B. Completely recessive C. Partially expressed D. Not expressed at all

C. Partially expressed

Males are more likely to express sex-linked recessive disorders because they: A. Inherit two X chromosomes B. Receive only one copy of genes on the sex chromosomes C. Have stronger dominant genes D. Do not inherit genes from their mothers

B. Receive only one copy of genes on the sex chromosomes

An extra chromosome is most directly associated with: A. Incomplete dominance B. Carrier status C. Chromosomal abnormalities D. Partial gene expression

C. Chromosomal abnormalities

Which pairing is correct? A. Incomplete dominance – extra chromosome B. Chromosomal abnormalities – partial trait expression C. Sex-linked inheritance – traits transmitted differently to male and female offspring D. Carrier – male with two dominant genes

C. Sex-linked inheritance – traits transmitted differently to male and female offspring

Which statement correctly describes females in sex-linked inheritance? A. They receive two copies of genes on the sex chromosomes B. They receive only one copy of genes on the sex chromosomes C. They cannot be carriers D. They inherit only dominant genes

A. They receive two copies of genes on the sex chromosomes

Jacob’s Syndrome A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

A. XYY Syndrome

male; tall structure, tendency toward low IQ, especially verbal A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

A. XYY Syndrome

Triple X Syndrome A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

B. XXX Syndrome

female; normal appearance, menstrual irregularities, learning disorders, mental retardation A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

B. XXX Syndrome

Klinefelter Syndrome A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

C. XXY

male; sterility, underdeveloped secondary sex characteristics, small testes, learning disabilities A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

C. XXY

Turner Syndrome A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

D. XO

Monosomy X A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

D. XO

female; short stature, webbed neck, impaired spatial abilities, no menstruation, infertility, underdeveloped sex organs A. XYY Syndrome B. XXX Syndrome C. XXY D. XO

D. XO

minor-to-severe mental retardation; more severe in males; delayed speech and motor development, hyperactivity; the most common inherited from mental retardation A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

A. Fragile X Syndrome

Down Syndrome A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

B. Trisomy 21

characterized by moderate-to-severe mental retardation and by such physical signs as a downward sloping skin fold at the inner corners of the eyes A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

B. Trisomy 21

Have slow growth before birth (intrauterine growth retardation) and a low birth weight A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

C. Trisomy 18

Edwards Syndrome A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

C. Trisomy 18

Patau Syndrome A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

D. Trisomy 13

characterized by cleft lip, cleft palate, cerebral defects, anophthalmia, simian creases, polydactyly, trigger thumbs, and capillary hemangiomata A. Fragile X Syndrome B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 13

D. Trisomy 13

Enzyme deficiency that can lead to cirrhosis of the liver in early infancy and emphysema and degenerative lung disease in middle age A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency B. Alpha Thalassemia C. Beta Thalassemia D. Cystic Fibrosis

A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

Severe anemia; nearly all affected infants are stillborn or die soon after birth A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency B. Alpha Thalassemia C. Beta Thalassemia D. Cystic Fibrosis

B. Alpha Thalassemia

Cooley’s Anemia A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency B. Alpha Thalassemia C. Beta Thalassemia D. Cystic Fibrosis

C. Beta Thalassemia

Severe anemia; usually fatal in adolescence or young adulthood A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency B. Alpha Thalassemia C. Beta Thalassemia D. Cystic Fibrosis

C. Beta Thalassemia

Overproduction of mucus, which collects in the lung and digestive tract A. Alpha1 Antitrypsin Deficiency B. Alpha Thalassemia C. Beta Thalassemia D. Cystic Fibrosis

D. Cystic Fibrosis

Fatal disease usually found in males, marked by muscle weakness; minor mental retardation is common; respiratory failure and death usually occur in young adulthood A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy B. Hemophilia C. Anencephaly D. Spina Bifida

A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

Excessive bleeding, usually affecting males; in its most severe form, can lead to crippling arthritis in adulthood A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy B. Hemophilia C. Anencephaly D. Spina Bifida

B. Hemophilia

Absence of brain tissues; infants are stillborn or die soon after birth A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy B. Hemophilia C. Anencephaly D. Spina Bifida

C. Anencephaly

Incompletely closed spinal canal, muscle weakness or paralysis and loss of bladder and bowel control A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy B. Hemophilia C. Anencephaly D. Spina Bifida

D. Spina Bifida

Metabolic disorder resulting in mental retardation A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Polycystic Kidney Disease C. Sickle-Cell Anemia D. Tay-Sachs Disease

A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Infantile form: enlarged kidneys, leading to respiratory problems and congestive heart failure A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Polycystic Kidney Disease C. Sickle-Cell Anemia D. Tay-Sachs Disease

B. Polycystic Kidney Disease

Adult form: kidney pain, kidney stones, and hypertension resulting in chronic kidney failure A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Polycystic Kidney Disease C. Sickle-Cell Anemia D. Tay-Sachs Disease

B. Polycystic Kidney Disease

Deformed red blood cells that clog blood vessels, depriving the body of oxygen; symptoms include severe pain, stunted growth, infections, leg ulcers, gallstones, pneumonia, and stroke A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Polycystic Kidney Disease C. Sickle-Cell Anemia D. Tay-Sachs Disease

C. Sickle-Cell Anemia

Degenerative disease of the brain and nerve cells A. Phenylketonuria (PKU) B. Polycystic Kidney Disease C. Sickle-Cell Anemia D. Tay-Sachs Disease

D. Tay-Sachs Disease

What is the primary purpose of genetic counseling and testing? A. To determine the exact date of conception B. To treat chromosomal abnormalities before birth C. To help prospective parents assess their risk of bearing children with genetic or chromosomal defects D. To guarantee a child will not inherit any defects

C. To help prospective parents assess their risk of bearing children with genetic or chromosomal defects

During genetic counseling, what is taken to evaluate potential risk factors? A. A dietary log B. A family history C. A financial record D. A vaccination schedule

B. A family history

Who may receive physical examinations during genetic counseling? A. Only the prospective mother B. Only biological children C. Only the prospective father D. Prospective parents and any biological children

D. Prospective parents and any biological children

Which of the following may be included in laboratory investigations? A. Hair and saliva only B. Blood, skin, urine, or fingerprints C. X-rays and CT scans D. Stool samples exclusively

B. Blood, skin, urine, or fingerprints

Chromosomes from body tissues may be analyzed and then: A. Destroyed immediately B. Compared with parental chromosomes only C. Photographed, enlarged, and arranged according to size and structure on a chart D. Stored without documentation

C. Photographed, enlarged, and arranged according to size and structure on a chart

What is a karyotype? A. A blood test used to detect hormones B. A chart showing family medical history C. A procedure to measure gestational age D. A chromosomal analysis that can show abnormalities and indicate possible transmission of genetic defects

D. A chromosomal analysis that can show abnormalities and indicate possible transmission of genetic defects

A karyotype can indicate whether a person might: A. Conceive twins B. Transmit genetic defects to a child C. Determine the baby’s exact birth date D. Prevent infertility

B. Transmit genetic defects to a child

Gestation refers to the: A. Time between fertilization and implantation B. Period between ovulation and menstruation C. Period of development between conception and birth D. Time from birth to adulthood

C. Period of development between conception and birth

The normal range of gestation is: A. 30 to 34 weeks B. 35 to 39 weeks C. 37 to 41 weeks D. 40 to 44 weeks

C. 37 to 41 weeks

Gestational age is usually dated from: A. The day of conception B. The first day of the expectant mother’s last menstrual cycle C. The date of a positive pregnancy test D. The first prenatal visit

B. The first day of the expectant mother’s last menstrual cycle

A pregnancy test detects the presence of: A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Human growth hormone D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced only by: A. Adult females B. Embryos and fetuses C. The placenta after birth D. The ovaries during menstruation

B. Embryos and fetuses

Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive a child after: A. 6 months of sexual intercourse without birth control B. 12 months of sexual intercourse with birth control C. 18 months of sexual intercourse without birth control D. 24 months regardless of contraceptive use

B. 12 months of sexual intercourse with birth control

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of chromosomes in a karyotype? A. By color and texture B. Randomly placed C. By genetic mutation severity D. According to size and structure

D. According to size and structure

Which of the following is NOT listed as part of laboratory investigations in genetic counseling? A. Blood B. Skin C. Urine D. Saliva

D. Saliva

The gestational period begins at: A. Birth B. Conception C. Implantation D. The first missed menstrual period

B. Conception

A pregnancy test confirms pregnancy by identifying a hormone that is: A. Produced only by embryos and fetuses B. Present in all adult women C. Produced during menstruation D. Released during ovulation

A. Produced only by embryos and fetuses

Which individuals are specifically mentioned as undergoing physical examinations in genetic counseling? A. Extended family members B. Healthcare providers C. Prospective parents and biological children D. Laboratory technicians

C. Prospective parents and biological children

Fertilization to 2 Weeks A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

A. Germinal Stage

characterized by rapid cell division, blastocyst formation, and implantation in the wall of the uterus A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

A. Germinal Stage

the attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall, occurring at about day 6 A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

B. Implantation

a fluid-filled sphere, which floats freely in the uterus until the sixth day after fertilization A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

C. Blastocyst

a fluid-filled membrane that encases the developing embryo, protecting it and giving it room to move and grow A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

D. Amniotic Sac

allows oxygen, nourishment, and wastes to pass between mother and embryo A. Germinal Stage B. Implantation C. Blastocyst D. Amniotic Sac E. Placenta

E. Placenta

What structure connects the placenta to the embryo? A. Amniotic sac B. Fallopian tube C. Umbilical cord D. Uterine wall

C. Umbilical cord

One function of the placenta is to help combat: A. External injuries B. Internal infection C. Genetic mutation D. Nutrient deficiency

B. Internal infection

The placenta gives the unborn child immunity to: A. All environmental hazards B. Various diseases C. Nutritional disorders only D. Physical trauma

B. Various diseases

The placenta produces hormones that primarily support: A. Ovulation B. Fertilization C. Pregnancy D. Menstruation

C. Pregnancy

Hormones produced by the placenta help prepare the mother’s breasts for: A. Ovulation B. Lactation C. Menstruation D. Implantation

B. Lactation

The placenta stimulates uterine contractions that will: A. Nourish the embryo B. Prevent infection C. Form the umbilical cord D. Expel the baby from the mother

D. Expel the baby from the mother

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a function of the placenta? A. Supporting pregnancy B. Producing hormones C. Filtering oxygen from air D. Giving immunity to the unborn child

C. Filtering oxygen from air

The immunity provided by the placenta benefits the: A. Mother B. Father C. Unborn child D. Uterus

C. Unborn child

The placenta is directly connected to the embryo through the: A. Cervix B. Umbilical cord C. Ovaries D. Endometrium

B. Umbilical cord

Which of the following best describes one role of placental hormones? A. Initiating menstruation B. Preventing fertilization C. Preparing the mother’s breasts for lactation D. Breaking down nutrients

C. Preparing the mother’s breasts for lactation

The uterine contractions stimulated by the placenta are intended to: A. Support implantation B. Expel the baby C. Enhance immunity D. Produce hormones

B. Expel the baby

The placenta contributes to the unborn child’s defense against: A. Internal infection B. Temperature changes C. External noise D. Mechanical injury

A. Internal infection

Which combination correctly describes functions of the placenta? A. Produces hormones and combats internal infection B. Forms the embryo and initiates fertilization C. Controls ovulation and menstruation D. Regulates genetic inheritance

A. Produces hormones and combats internal infection

The placenta plays a role in preparing the mother’s body for: A. Ovulation B. Implantation C. Lactation D. Fertilization

C. Lactation

Which of the following processes is supported by hormones produced by the placenta? A. Pregnancy B. Cell mutation C. Meiosis D. Digestion

A. Pregnancy

a thickened cell mass from which the embryo begins to develop A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

A. Embryonic Disk

become the outer layer of skin, the nails, hair, teeth, sensory organs, and the nervous system, including the brain and spinal cord A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

B. Ectoderm

Upper layer A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

B. Ectoderm

become the digestive system, liver, pancreas, salivary glands, and respiratory system A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

C. Endoderm

Inner layer A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

C. Endoderm

will develop and differentiate into the inner layer of skin, muscles, skeleton, and excretory and circulatory systems A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

D. Mesoderm

Middle layer A. Embryonic Disk B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm

D. Mesoderm

Characterized by rapid growth and development of major body systems and organs A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

A. Embryonic Stage

2 to 8 weeks A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

A. Embryonic Stage

characterized by rapid growth and development of major body systems and organs A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

A. Embryonic Stage

characterized by rapid growth and development of major body systems and organs A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

B. Organogenesis

natural expulsion from the uterus of an embryo that cannot survive outside the womb A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage

final stage of gestation, characterized by increased differentiation of body parts and greatly enlarged body size A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

D. Fetal Stage

8 weeks to birth A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

D. Fetal Stage

prenatal medical procedure using high-frequency sound waves to detect the outline of a fetus and its movements, so as to determine whether a pregnancy is progressing normally A. Embryonic Stage B. Organogenesis C. Spontaneous Abortion/ Miscarriage D. Fetal Stage E. Ultrasound

E. Ultrasound

the fetus swallows and inhales some of the amniotic fluid in which it floats (may stimulate the building senses A. 12th week of gestation B. 14th week of gestation C. 26th week of gestation D. 33rd week of gestation

A. 12th week of gestation

olfactory system well developed before birth A. 12th week of gestation B. 14th week of gestation C. 26th week of gestation D. 33rd week of gestation

B. 14th week of gestation

responses to sound and vibration A. 12th week of gestation B. 14th week of gestation C. 26th week of gestation D. 33rd week of gestation

C. 26th week of gestation

orient toward and attend to music A. 12th week of gestation B. 14th week of gestation C. 26th week of gestation D. 33rd week of gestation

D. 33rd week of gestation

is extracted from the mother’s blood and tested A. Prenatal Cell-Free DNA B. Amniocentesis C. Chorionic Villus Sampling D. Embryoscopy, Fetoscopy

A. Prenatal Cell-Free DNA

procedure in which a sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn for analysis A. Prenatal Cell-Free DNA B. Amniocentesis C. Chorionic Villus Sampling D. Embryoscopy, Fetoscopy

B. Amniocentesis

tissue from the membrane surrounding the fetus is removed and analyzed A. Prenatal Cell-Free DNA B. Amniocentesis C. Chorionic Villus Sampling D. Embryoscopy, Fetoscopy

C. Chorionic Villus Sampling

the insertion of tiny viewing scope into the mother’s uterus through the abdominal wall for a direct look at the embryo, can help to diagnose non-chromosomal disorders A. Prenatal Cell-Free DNA B. Amniocentesis C. Chorionic Villus Sampling D. Embryoscopy, Fetoscopy

D. Embryoscopy, Fetoscopy

allows direct access to fetal DNA in the blood vessels of the umbilical cord for the diagnosis A. Umbilical Cord Sampling B. Ultrasound (Sonogram) C. Sonoembryology D. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

A. Umbilical Cord Sampling

high-frequency sound waves directed at the mother’s abdomen produce a picture of fetus in uterus A. Umbilical Cord Sampling B. Ultrasound (Sonogram) C. Sonoembryology D. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

B. Ultrasound (Sonogram)

uses high-frequency transvaginal probes and digital image processing to produce a picture of embryo in uterus A. Umbilical Cord Sampling B. Ultrasound (Sonogram) C. Sonoembryology D. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

C. Sonoembryology

after in vitro fertilization, a sample cell is removed from the blastocyst and analyzed A. Umbilical Cord Sampling B. Ultrasound (Sonogram) C. Sonoembryology D. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

D. Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis

the process of giving birth A. Labor B. Parturition C. Uterine Contraction D. Braxton-Hicks Contractions

A. Labor

the act or or process of giving birth, and it typically begins about 2 weeks before delivery A. Labor B. Parturition C. Uterine Contraction D. Braxton-Hicks Contractions

B. Parturition

begins typically about 266 days after conception A. Labor B. Parturition C. Uterine Contraction D. Braxton-Hicks Contractions

C. Uterine Contraction

false contractions, when the muscles of the uterus tighten for up to 2 minutes A. Labor B. Parturition C. Uterine Contraction D. Braxton-Hicks Contractions

D. Braxton-Hicks Contractions

Which stage of birth is the longest? A. Stage 1: Dilation of the Cervix B. Stage 2: Descent and Emergence of the Baby C. Stage 3: Expulsion of the Placenta D. Stage 4: Recovery

A. Stage 1: Dilation of the Cervix

Stage 1 typically lasts how long for a woman having her first child? A. 10 minutes to 1 hour B. 1 to 2 hours C. 6 to 8 hours D. 12 to 14 hours

D. 12 to 14 hours

During the beginning of Stage 1, uterine contractions are usually how far apart? A. 2 to 5 minutes B. 5 to 10 minutes C. 15 to 20 minutes D. 30 to 40 minutes

C. 15 to 20 minutes

Toward the end of Stage 1, contractions occur approximately every: A. 1 minute B. 2 to 5 minutes C. 10 to 15 minutes D. 20 to 25 minutes

B. 2 to 5 minutes

Stage 1 ends when the cervix reaches which measurement? A. 5 centimeters (about 2 inches) B. 8 centimeters (about 3 inches) C. 12 centimeters (about 5 inches) D. 10 centimeters (about 4 inches)

D. 10 centimeters (about 4 inches)

What marks the beginning of Stage 2? A. The placenta detaches from the uterus B. The baby’s head begins to move through the cervix into the vaginal canal C. The cervix becomes fully closed D. Contractions stop completely

B. The baby’s head begins to move through the cervix into the vaginal canal

Stage 2 typically lasts: A. 10 minutes to 1 hour B. 12 to 14 hours C. Up to an hour or two D. 3 to 5 hours

C. Up to an hour or two

Stage 2 ends when: A. The cervix reaches 10 centimeters B. The placenta is expelled C. Contractions become 15 to 20 minutes apart D. The baby emerges completely from the mother’s body

D. The baby emerges completely from the mother’s body

Which stage involves the expulsion of the placenta? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

C. Stage 3

Stage 3 generally lasts between: A. 10 minutes and 1 hour B. 1 to 2 hours C. 2 to 5 minutes D. 12 to 14 hours

A. 10 minutes and 1 hour

During Stage 3, which structures are expelled from the mother? A. The baby’s head and shoulders B. The cervix and vaginal lining C. The placenta and the remainder of the umbilical cord D. The amniotic sac only

C. The placenta and the remainder of the umbilical cord

Which stage begins with increasingly frequent uterine contractions? A. Stage 3 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 1 D. Recovery stage

C. Stage 1

In Stage 1, contractions become more frequent as the stage progresses from: A. 15–20 minutes apart to 2–5 minutes apart B. 2–5 minutes apart to 15–20 minutes apart C. 10–15 minutes apart to 30–40 minutes apart D. 5–10 minutes apart to 20–25 minutes apart

A. 15–20 minutes apart to 2–5 minutes apart

Which stage begins when the baby’s head moves through the cervix and into the vaginal canal? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 2

D. Stage 2

The cervix is fully open at approximately: A. 4 centimeters (about 1 inch) B. 10 centimeters (about 4 inches) C. 6 centimeters (about 2 inches) D. 12 centimeters (about 5 inches)

B. 10 centimeters (about 4 inches)

The stage lasting between 10 minutes and 1 hour is: A. Stage 2 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 3 D. Cervical dilation

C. Stage 3

Which stage is specifically associated with descent and emergence of the baby? A. Stage 3 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 1 D. Placental stage

B. Stage 2

Regular and increasingly frequent uterine contractions are characteristic of: A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 1 D. Post-delivery recovery

C. Stage 1

Stage 2 typically concludes with: A. The cervix closing B. The baby fully emerging from the mother’s body C. The placenta detaching D. Contractions stopping for 10 minutes

B. The baby fully emerging from the mother’s body

Which stage directly follows the emergence of the baby? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 3

D. Stage 3

the usual method of childbirth A. Vaginal Delivery B. Cesarean Delivery C. Natural Childbirth D. Prepared Childbirth E. Lamaze Method

A. Vaginal Delivery

used to surgically remove the baby from the uterus through an incision in the mother’s abdomen A. Vaginal Delivery B. Cesarean Delivery C. Natural Childbirth D. Prepared Childbirth E. Lamaze Method

B. Cesarean Delivery

method of childbirth that seeks to prevent pain by eliminating the mother’s fear through education about the physiology of reproduction and training in breathing and relaxation during delivery A. Vaginal Delivery B. Cesarean Delivery C. Natural Childbirth D. Prepared Childbirth E. Lamaze Method

C. Natural Childbirth

method of childbirth that uses instruction, breathing exercises, and social support to induce controlled physical responses to uterine contractions and reduce fear and pain A. Vaginal Delivery B. Cesarean Delivery C. Natural Childbirth D. Prepared Childbirth E. Lamaze Method

D. Prepared Childbirth

teaches expectant mothers to work actively with their bodies through controlled breathing where the woman learns to relax her muscles as a conditioned response to the voice of her coach who attends classes with her, takes part in the delivery, and helps with the exercises A. Vaginal Delivery B. Cesarean Delivery C. Natural Childbirth D. Prepared Childbirth E. Lamaze Method

E. Lamaze Method

a woman gives birth in a quiet room under low lights to reduce stress, and the newborn is gently massaged to ease crying A. Leboyer Method B. Michael Odent C. Bradley Method D. Doula E. Breech Position

A. Leboyer Method

submersion of the laboring mother in a soothing pool of water A. Leboyer Method B. Michael Odent C. Bradley Method D. Doula E. Breech Position

B. Michael Odent

focus on natural process of birth and instructs women to focus on controlling their pain A. Leboyer Method B. Michael Odent C. Bradley Method D. Doula E. Breech Position

C. Bradley Method

an experienced mentor who furnishes emotional support and information for a woman during labor A. Leboyer Method B. Michael Odent C. Bradley Method D. Doula E. Breech Position

D. Doula

baby’s buttocks are the first part emerge from the vagina which can cause respiratory problems A. Leboyer Method B. Michael Odent C. Bradley Method D. Doula E. Breech Position

E. Breech Position

less than 2,500 grams (5 lbs.) at birth A. Low Birth Weight B. Very Low Birth Weight C. Extremely Low Birth Weight

A. Low Birth Weight

less than 3 pounds, 4 ounces A. Low Birth Weight B. Very Low Birth Weight C. Extremely Low Birth Weight

B. Very Low Birth Weight

less than 2 pounds A. Low Birth Weight B. Very Low Birth Weight C. Extremely Low Birth Weight

C. Extremely Low Birth Weight

born before the 37th weeks of gestation A. Preterm (Premature) Infants B. Very Preterm (Premature) Infants C. Extremely Preterm (Premature) Infants

A. Preterm (Premature) Infants

born less than 21 weeks A. Preterm (Premature) Infants B. Very Preterm (Premature) Infants C. Extremely Preterm (Premature) Infants

C. Extremely Preterm (Premature) Infants

born less than 33 weeks A. Preterm (Premature) Infants B. Very Preterm (Premature) Infants C. Extremely Preterm (Premature) Infants

B. Very Preterm (Premature) Infants

born at or around their due dates, but are smaller than would be expected A. Small-for-date Infants B. Anoxia C. Hypoxia D. Meconium

A. Small-for-date Infants

lack of oxygen, which may lead to brain damage (cerebral palsy) A. Small-for-date Infants B. Anoxia C. Hypoxia D. Meconium

B. Anoxia

reduced oxygen supply A. Small-for-date Infants B. Anoxia C. Hypoxia D. Meconium

C. Hypoxia

stingy, greenish-black waste matter formed in the fetal intestinal tract A. Small-for-date Infants B. Anoxia C. Hypoxia D. Meconium

D. Meconium

a condition in many newborn babies, caused by immaturity of liver and evidenced by yellowish appearance; can cause brain damage if not treated promptly A. Neonatal Jaundice B. Postmaturity C. Shoulder Dystocia D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

A. Neonatal Jaundice

a fetus not yet born as of 2 weeks after the due date or 42 weeks after the mother’s last menstrual period, and the baby tend to be long and thin and the placenta has aged and become less efficient, it may provide less oxygen and insufficient blood supply A. Neonatal Jaundice B. Postmaturity C. Shoulder Dystocia D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

B. Postmaturity

a condition in which the baby’s shoulders become stuck behind the mother’s pelvic bone during delivery A. Neonatal Jaundice B. Postmaturity C. Shoulder Dystocia D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

C. Shoulder Dystocia

crib death; sudden and unexplained death of an apparently healthy infant under age 1 A. Neonatal Jaundice B. Postmaturity C. Shoulder Dystocia D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Environmental trigger: sleeping on their stomachs during critical first year of age A. Neonatal Jaundice B. Postmaturity C. Shoulder Dystocia D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Spontaneous abortion is defined as: A. Expulsion of a fetus after 24 weeks of gestation B. Expulsion from the uterus of an embryo unable to survive outside the womb occurring at less than 20 weeks C. Delivery of a nonviable fetus after 20 weeks D. Premature labor resulting in a low-birth-weight infant

B. Expulsion from the uterus of an embryo unable to survive outside the womb occurring at less than 20 weeks

A miscarriage that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation is referred to as: A. Preterm labor B. Neonatal loss C. Stillbirth D. Teratogenesis

C. Stillbirth

A teratogen is best described as: A. A genetic mutation inherited from parents B. A nutritional supplement taken during pregnancy C. A fetal immune response D. An environmental agent that interferes with normal prenatal development

D. An environmental agent that interferes with normal prenatal development

Pregnant women typically require how many additional calories per day? A. 100–200 B. 200–300 C. 300–500 D. 500–700

C. 300–500

Recommended weight gain for an underweight pregnant woman is: A. 25–35 pounds B. 28–40 pounds C. 11–20 pounds D. 15–25 pounds

B. 28–40 pounds

Recommended weight gain for a woman of normal weight during pregnancy is: A. 25–35 pounds B. 28–40 pounds C. 11–20 pounds D. 35–45 pounds

A. 25–35 pounds

Recommended weight gain for an overweight pregnant woman is: A. 20–30 pounds B. 25–35 pounds C. 11–20 pounds D. 28–40 pounds

C. 11–20 pounds

Docosahexaenoic Acid (DHA) is believed to be important for development of the: A. Liver and kidneys B. Central nervous system and retina C. Skeletal muscles D. Digestive system

B. Central nervous system and retina

Folic acid deficiency increases the risk of: A. Gestational diabetes B. Preeclampsia C. Anencephaly and spina bifida D. Respiratory distress syndrome

C. Anencephaly and spina bifida

A calorie deficit during pregnancy can result in: A. Excessive fetal growth B. Fetal growth restriction and low birth weight C. Increased head circumference D. Accelerated neurological development

B. Fetal growth restriction and low birth weight

Deficiencies in vitamin A and zinc are associated with: A. Increased maternal appetite B. Reduced fetal movement C. Higher risk of death for both mother and child D. Larger birth weight

C. Higher risk of death for both mother and child

Babies born to mothers with vitamin D deficiency may have: A. Excessively dense bones B. Weak or soft bones C. Accelerated motor development D. Enlarged organs

B. Weak or soft bones

Regular exercise during pregnancy may reduce the risk of: A. Fetal brain abnormalities B. Neural tube defects C. Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia D. Genetic mutations

C. Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia

Thalidomide was banned because it caused: A. Hearing impairment only B. Premature labor C. Stunted or missing limbs and severe deformities D. Increased birth weight

C. Stunted or missing limbs and severe deformities

Naproxen and ibuprofen are linked to birth defects when taken: A. Only in the third trimester B. Anytime from the first trimester C. Only before conception D. After 30 weeks gestation

B. Anytime from the first trimester

Opioid use during pregnancy is associated with: A. Increased birth weight B. Reduced risk of fetal death C. Small babies and preterm labor D. Accelerated cognitive development

C. Small babies and preterm labor

Neonate Abstinence Syndrome may include: A. Increased muscle tone and calmness B. Sleep disturbances and tremors C. Advanced motor coordination D. Enlarged head size

B. Sleep disturbances and tremors

Alcohol is identified as the: A. Least preventable cause of birth defects B. Leading preventable cause of birth defects C. Primary cause of gestational diabetes D. Major cause of maternal anemia

B. Leading preventable cause of birth defects

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) includes: A. Only physical deformities B. Only intellectual disability C. Mental, motor, and developmental abnormalities D. Increased birth weight

C. Mental, motor, and developmental abnormalities

Tobacco use during pregnancy increases the risk of: A. Large head circumference B. Sudden infant death C. Enhanced immune function D. Reduced respiratory problems

B. Sudden infant death

Caffeine intake under 300 milligrams per day is: A. Associated with increased miscarriage risk B. Linked to stillbirth C. Not associated with increased miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects D. Known to cause birth defects

C. Not associated with increased miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects

Marijuana exposure during pregnancy is: A. Associated with major birth defects B. Not associated with birth defects C. A leading cause of stillbirth D. Linked to limb deformities

B. Not associated with birth defects

Cocaine use during pregnancy has been associated with: A. Increased birth weight B. Delayed growth and premature labor C. Reduced neurological risk D. Improved fetal circulation

B. Delayed growth and premature labor

Prenatal methamphetamine exposure is associated with: A. Post-term delivery B. Low birth weight and preterm delivery C. Increased IQ D. Larger head size

B. Low birth weight and preterm delivery

Toxoplasmosis can cause: A. Accelerated fetal growth B. Improved eyesight C. Fetal brain damage and seizures D. Increased bone density

C. Fetal brain damage and seizures

Routine dental X-rays during pregnancy: A. Double the risk of premature labor B. Triple the risk of full-term, low-birth-weight babies C. Have no measurable risk D. Prevent fetal abnormalities

B. Triple the risk of full-term, low-birth-weight babies

In utero radiation exposure has been linked to: A. Increased IQ B. Larger head size C. Miscarriage and lowered IQ D. Enhanced immune function

C. Miscarriage and lowered IQ

Fetal exposure to environmental toxins such as lead and mercury may explain rises in: A. Enhanced lung capacity B. Asthma and autoimmune disorders C. Increased birth weight D. Accelerated skeletal growth

B. Asthma and autoimmune disorders

Newborns whose mothers experienced moderate levels of both positive and negative stress showed signs of: A. Delayed emotional regulation B. Accelerated neurological development C. Reduced motor coordination D. Increased chromosomal abnormalities

B. Accelerated neurological development

Mothers who showed moderate anxiety midway through pregnancy had children who: A. Scored higher on measures of motor and mental development B. Were more likely to be born underweight C. Displayed early antisocial behavior D. Had increased risk of asthma

A. Scored higher on measures of motor and mental development

A mother’s self-reported stress and anxiety during pregnancy has been associated with newborns who are: A. Less active and calm B. Highly attentive C. More active and irritable D. Advanced in language skills

C. More active and irritable

Maternal stress and anxiety during pregnancy has been linked to inattentiveness during developmental assessment at: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 8 months

D. 8 months

Maternal stress and anxiety during pregnancy has been associated with which outcome in early childhood? A. Advanced cognitive flexibility B. Negative emotionality or behavioral disorders C. Enhanced social engagement D. Reduced physical growth

B. Negative emotionality or behavioral disorders

Chronic stress during pregnancy can result in: A. Chromosomal abnormalities B. Increased motor skills C. Preterm delivery D. Autism spectrum disorder

C. Preterm delivery

Children of mothers who were depressed during pregnancy were more likely to: A. Be born premature B. Have increased motor coordination C. Show accelerated speech development D. Avoid behavioral problems in adolescence

A. Be born premature

Toddlers of mothers who experienced depression during pregnancy were more likely to be: A. Highly attentive B. Developmentally delayed C. Above average in motor skills D. Free from emotional concerns

B. Developmentally delayed

Adolescents whose mothers were depressed during pregnancy showed elevated levels of: A. Academic achievement B. Cooperative behaviors C. Violent and antisocial behaviors D. Physical endurance

C. Violent and antisocial behaviors

The chance of miscarriage or stillbirth rises with: A. Paternal stress B. Maternal age C. Moderate maternal anxiety D. Exposure to ozone

B. Maternal age

Women aged 30 to 35 are more likely to suffer complications due to: A. Diabetes B. High blood pressure C. Severe bleeding D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Increased maternal age is associated with higher risk of: A. Retarded fetal growth and chromosomal abnormalities B. Improved neurological development C. Enhanced emotional regulation D. Reduced delivery complications

A. Retarded fetal growth and chromosomal abnormalities

Adolescent mothers tend to have babies who are: A. Overweight and full-term B. Premature or underweight C. Advanced in cognitive skills D. Resistant to illness

B. Premature or underweight

A man’s exposure to lead, marijuana, tobacco smoke, alcohol, radiation, DES, pesticides, or high ozone levels may result in: A. Enhanced sperm motility B. Abnormal or poor quality sperm C. Increased birth weight D. Improved fetal growth

B. Abnormal or poor quality sperm

Men who smoke have an increased likelihood of transmitting: A. Motor skill advantages B. Emotional stability C. Genetic abnormalities and heart defects D. Advanced language abilities

C. Genetic abnormalities and heart defects

Exposure to a father’s secondhand smoke has been linked with: A. Improved respiratory health B. Asthma and low birth weight C. Advanced neurological growth D. Reduced attentional problems

B. Asthma and low birth weight

Older fathers may be a significant source of birth defects due to: A. Increased maternal stress B. Damaged or deteriorated sperm C. Higher ozone exposure D. Moderate maternal anxiety

B. Damaged or deteriorated sperm

Advanced paternal age is associated with increased risk of several rare conditions, including: A. Asthma B. Diabetes C. Dwarfism D. Severe bleeding

C. Dwarfism

Having an older father is a risk factor for: A. Schizophrenia B. High motor development C. Reduced anxiety D. Premature delivery

A. Schizophrenia

Advanced paternal age may also be a factor in: A. Asthma and low birth weight B. Bipolar disorder and autism-related disorders C. Severe maternal bleeding D. Retarded fetal growth

B. Bipolar disorder and autism-related disorders

The stage of Basic Trust vs. Mistrust occurs during which age range? A. Infancy to 18 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 24 months D. 24+ months

A. Infancy to 18 months

During Basic Trust vs. Mistrust, infants develop a sense of: A. Independence from caregivers B. Reliability of people and objects C. Abstract reasoning D. Moral judgment

B. Reliability of people and objects

If Basic Trust vs. Mistrust is unsuccessful, the infant develops: A. A strong internal working model B. A sense of mistrust and feeling that others cannot be counted on in times of need C. Enhanced social referencing skills D. Increased motor exploration

B. A sense of mistrust and feeling that others cannot be counted on in times of need

The virtue associated with Basic Trust vs. Mistrust is: A. Autonomy B. Faith C. Hope D. Competence

C. Hope

Sensory Maladjustment as a maladaptive tendency is characterized by being: A. Overly trusting B. Gullible C. Unrealistic D. Spoiled E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Withdrawal as a malignant tendency involves: A. Excessive social engagement B. Never trusting anyone, being paranoid, neurotic, or depressive C. Strong attachment to multiple caregivers D. Heightened emotional expression

B. Never trusting anyone, being paranoid, neurotic, or depressive

The significant person during Basic Trust vs. Mistrust is the: A. Father B. Peer group C. Mother D. Teacher

C. Mother

Attachment is best defined as: A. A temporary emotional reaction to strangers B. A reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver C. Dependence based solely on feeding D. A cognitive understanding of relationships

B. A reciprocal, enduring emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver

Stranger anxiety is typically shown: A. Before 3 months of age B. During the second half of the first year C. After 24 months D. Only when separated from the mother

B. During the second half of the first year

Separation anxiety refers to distress shown when: A. A stranger approaches B. A caregiver introduces new toys C. A familiar caregiver leaves D. The infant is hungry

C. A familiar caregiver leaves

Babies rarely react negatively to strangers before: A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 8 months D. 12 months

B. 6 months

Contact comfort, demonstrated by Harry Harlow, emphasizes that attachment is based primarily on: A. Nourishment B. Visual stimulation C. Physical and emotional comfort from close contact D. Verbal communication

C. Physical and emotional comfort from close contact

In Phase 1 (Non-Focused Orienting and Signaling) described by John Bowlby, infants: A. Show strong preference for one caregiver B. Direct social behaviors toward a specific person C. Avoid eye contact D. Smile, cry, and make eye contact with almost anyone

D. Smile, cry, and make eye contact with almost anyone

Phase 1 (Non-Focused Orienting and Signaling) occurs from: A. Birth to 3 months B. 3 to 6 months C. 6 to 24 months D. 24+ months

A. Birth to 3 months

During Phase 2 (Focus on One or More Figures), infants: A. Reject all strangers completely B. Begin responding more favorably to familiar caregivers C. Show no preference for caregivers D. Develop an internal working model

B. Begin responding more favorably to familiar caregivers

Phase 2 occurs between: A. Birth to 3 months B. 6 to 24 months C. 3 to 6 months D. 24+ months

C. 3 to 6 months

In Phase 3 (Secure Base Behavior), infants: A. Avoid exploring their environment B. Use the caregiver as a secure base for exploration C. Show no emotional bond D. Treat strangers and caregivers identically

B. Use the caregiver as a secure base for exploration

True attachment is established during: A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 3 D. Phase 4

C. Phase 3

Phase 3 typically occurs from: A. 3 to 6 months B. 6 to 24 months C. Birth to 3 months D. 24+ months

B. 6 to 24 months

Phase 4 (Internal Model) begins at approximately: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24+ months

D. 24+ months

The internal working model refers to: A. Motor coordination patterns B. A mental representation of how trustworthy and reliable people are C. Language development milestones D. Reflex development

B. A mental representation of how trustworthy and reliable people are

If a caregiver is consistently responsive and loving, the child develops: A. A negative internal model B. Heightened stranger anxiety C. A positive internal model predicting secure relationships D. Withdrawal tendencies

C. A positive internal model predicting secure relationships

Mutual regulation is the process by which: A. Infants independently regulate emotions B. Caregivers control infant behavior C. Infants imitate strangers D. Infant and caregiver communicate emotional states and respond appropriately

D. Infant and caregiver communicate emotional states and respond appropriately

Social referencing occurs when: A. An infant avoids eye contact B. An infant forms understanding in an ambiguous situation by interpreting another person’s perception C. A caregiver copies infant behavior D. An infant refuses comfort

B. An infant forms understanding in an ambiguous situation by interpreting another person’s perception

Anaclitic depression results from: A. Excessive attachment B. Increased nourishment C. Loss of an attachment figure and lack of meaningful social interaction and sensory stimulation D. Exposure to unfamiliar environments

C. Loss of an attachment figure and lack of meaningful social interaction and sensory stimulation

A child with anaclitic depression may display: A. Active exploration B. Frequent smiling and excitement C. Laying passively in the crib D. Advanced language skills

C. Laying passively in the crib

Limited motor exploration is associated with: A. Secure base behavior B. Anaclitic depression C. Mutual regulation D. Social referencing

B. Anaclitic depression

Delayed babbling and language development are characteristics of: A. Stranger anxiety B. Phase 2 attachment C. Contact comfort D. Anaclitic depression

D. Anaclitic depression

Physical deterioration may be observed in cases of: A. Secure attachment B. Sensory maladjustment C. Anaclitic depression D. Mutual regulation

C. Anaclitic depression

During social referencing, babies typically: A. Ignore caregivers B. Look at caregivers when encountering an ambiguous event C. Cry immediately at unfamiliar events D. Withdraw from all interaction

B. Look at caregivers when encountering an ambiguous event

The stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt typically occurs between which ages? A. Birth to 12 months B. 3 to 6 years C. 18 months to 3 years D. 6 to 12 years

C. 18 months to 3 years

During Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, children strive to achieve a balance between: A. Independence and peer approval B. Self-determination and control by others C. Competence and guilt D. Initiative and inhibition

B. Self-determination and control by others

The virtue associated with Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt is: A. Purpose B. Competency C. Hope D. Will

D. Will

Negativism is best described as: A. Avoiding all social interaction B. Excessive guilt about behavior C. Shouting “No!” just to resist authority D. Fear of trying new activities

C. Shouting “No!” just to resist authority

Negativism usually begins: A. After age 3 B. Before age 2 C. At age 5 D. Between 6 and 7

B. Before age 2

Negativism tends to peak at approximately: A. 2 years old B. 5 years old C. 3 1⁄2 to 4 years old D. 6 years old

C. 3 1⁄2 to 4 years old

Negativism generally declines by: A. Age 4 B. Age 6 C. Age 8 D. Age 10

B. Age 6

The maladaptive tendency of Impulsiveness involves: A. Excessive perfectionism B. Avoiding responsibility C. Overdependence on adults D. Jumping into things without proper consideration

D. Jumping into things without proper consideration

Compulsiveness, as a malignant tendency, is characterized by: A. Recklessness and inconsideration B. Shyness and withdrawal C. Perfectionism and being constrained D. Refusal to follow rules

C. Perfectionism and being constrained

The significant person in Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt is: A. Teachers B. Peers C. Parents D. Neighbors

C. Parents

Self-concept refers to: A. Social approval from others B. A descriptive and evaluative mental picture of one’s abilities and traits C. Awareness of cultural norms D. Ability to follow rules

B. A descriptive and evaluative mental picture of one’s abilities and traits

At approximately 3 months, infants: A. Recognize themselves in the mirror B. Avoid mirrors C. Show no visual preferences D. Pay attention to their mirror image

D. Pay attention to their mirror image

Between 4 and 9 months, infants show more interest in: A. Their own mirror image B. Images of others C. Toys over people D. Abstract patterns

B. Images of others

Between 4 and 10 months, infants develop: A. Initiative and purpose B. A sense of personal agency and self-coherence C. Competency and industry D. Guilt and inhibition

B. A sense of personal agency and self-coherence

Personal agency is the realization that: A. They are separate from their caregivers B. They can control external events C. Rules must be followed D. Others control their actions

B. They can control external events

Self-coherence refers to the sense of: A. Moral responsibility B. Social belonging C. Being a physical whole with boundaries separate from the world D. Academic competence

C. Being a physical whole with boundaries separate from the world

Self-awareness is defined as: A. Knowledge of school expectations B. Conscious knowledge of the self as a distinct, identifiable being C. Ability to recognize others D. Emotional regulation

B. Conscious knowledge of the self as a distinct, identifiable being

Initiative vs. Guilt is identified as: A. The first developmental stage B. The second developmental stage C. The third developmental stage D. The final childhood stage

C. The third developmental stage

In Initiative vs. Guilt, children balance: A. Cultural values and peer approval B. The urge to pursue goals with reservations about doing so C. Autonomy and parental control D. Industry and inferiority

B. The urge to pursue goals with reservations about doing so

Preschool children in this stage: A. Avoid new tasks B. Want to do less independently C. Lose interest in exploration D. Can do and want to do more and more

D. Can do and want to do more and more

The virtue associated with Initiative vs. Guilt is: A. Will B. Hope C. Purpose D. Competency

C. Purpose

Ruthlessness as a maladaptive tendency involves: A. Excessive guilt B. Not caring who they step on to achieve goals C. Avoidance of responsibility D. Following rules rigidly

B. Not caring who they step on to achieve goals

Inhibition as a malignant tendency refers to: A. Too much guilt leading to inaction B. Reckless behavior C. Lack of social awareness D. Excessive independence

A. Too much guilt leading to inaction

The significant person during Initiative vs. Guilt is: A. School B. Neighborhood C. Family D. Peers

C. Family

In Industry vs. Inferiority, children must learn: A. Emotional regulation B. Cultural productive skills C. Language acquisition D. Self-recognition

B. Cultural productive skills

Failure to learn productive skills in this stage may result in: A. Shame B. Ruthlessness C. Inhibition D. Feelings of inferiority

D. Feelings of inferiority

The virtue associated with Industry vs. Inferiority is: A. Competency B. Purpose C. Will D. Hope

A. Competency

Narrow Virtuosity refers to: A. Avoiding school tasks B. Being allowed to explore freely C. Being pushed into one area of competence and not allowed to “be children” D. Lack of effort in all areas

C. Being pushed into one area of competence and not allowed to “be children”

Inertia as a malignant tendency is associated with: A. Recklessness B. Inferiority complexes C. Excessive initiative D. Rule-breaking

B. Inferiority complexes

The significant persons in Industry vs. Inferiority are: A. Parents only B. Family only C. Neighborhood and School D. Peers only

C. Neighborhood and School

Representational Systems are described in neo-Piagetian terminology as: A. The first stage of self-definition B. The second stage of self-definition C. The third stage of self-definition D. The final stage of moral development

C. The third stage of self-definition

Representational Systems are characterized by: A. Impulsiveness and guilt B. Breadth, balance, integration, and assessment of various aspects of the self C. Rule-following and perfectionism D. Emotional withdrawal

B. Breadth, balance, integration, and assessment of various aspects of the self

Around what age do judgments about the self become more conscious, realistic, balanced, and comprehensive? A. 3 to 4 years B. 5 to 6 years C. 6 to 7 years D. 7 to 8 years

D. 7 to 8 years

the process by which children develop habits, skills, values, and motivates that makes them responsible, productive members of the society A. Socialization B. Internalization C. Self-Regulation D. Conscience

A. Socialization

during socialization, process by which children accept societal standards of conduct as their own, where they obey societal or parental dictates, not because they are afraid of getting in trouble but because they themselves believe them to be right and true A. Socialization B. Internalization C. Self-Regulation D. Conscience

B. Internalization

a child’s independent control of behavior to conform to understood social expectations A. Socialization B. Internalization C. Self-Regulation D. Conscience

C. Self-Regulation

internal standards of behavior, which usually control one’s conduct and produce emotional discomfort when violated A. Socialization B. Internalization C. Self-Regulation D. Conscience

D. Conscience

obedience of a parent’s orders only in the presence of signs of ongoing parental control A. Situational Compliance B. Committed Compliance C. Receptive Cooperation

A. Situational Compliance

committed to following requests and could do so without their parents’ direct intervention A. Situational Compliance B. Committed Compliance C. Receptive Cooperation

B. Committed Compliance

eager willingness to cooperate harmoniously with a parent in daily interactions, including routines, chores, hygiene, and play A. Situational Compliance B. Committed Compliance C. Receptive Cooperation

C. Receptive Cooperation

the way they describe themselves which typically changes between about 5 and 7 A. Self-Definition B. Real Self C. Ideal Self

A. Self-Definition

the self one actually is A. Self-Definition B. Real Self C. Ideal Self

B. Real Self

the self one would like to be A. Self-Definition B. Real Self C. Ideal Self

C. Ideal Self

awareness, developed in early childhood, that one is male or female A. Gender Identity B. Gender Roles C. Gender Typing D. Gender Stereotypes E. Gender Schema Theory

A. Gender Identity

the behaviors, interests, attitudes, skills, and personality traits that a culture considers appropriate for males or females A. Gender Identity B. Gender Roles C. Gender Typing D. Gender Stereotypes E. Gender Schema Theory

B. Gender Roles

socialization process whereby children, at an early age, learn appropriate gender roles A. Gender Identity B. Gender Roles C. Gender Typing D. Gender Stereotypes E. Gender Schema Theory

C. Gender Typing

preconceived generalizations about male or female role behavior, tend to appear to some degree in children as young as 2 or 3, increase during the preschool years, and reach a peak at age 5 A. Gender Identity B. Gender Roles C. Gender Typing D. Gender Stereotypes E. Gender Schema Theory

D. Gender Stereotypes

views children as actively extracting knowledge about gender from their environment before engaging in gender-typed behavior A. Gender Identity B. Gender Roles C. Gender Typing D. Gender Stereotypes E. Gender Schema Theory

E. Gender Schema Theory

transitional stage in the control of behavior in which parents exercise general supervision and children exercise moment-to-moment self regulation A. Coregulation B. Internalizing Behaviors C. Externalizing Behaviors

A. Coregulation

behaviors by which emotional problems are turned inward A. Coregulation B. Internalizing Behaviors C. Externalizing Behaviors

B. Internalizing Behaviors

anxiety or depression A. Coregulation B. Internalizing Behaviors C. Externalizing Behaviors

B. Internalizing Behaviors

behaviors by which a child acts out emotional difficulties A. Coregulation B. Internalizing Behaviors C. Externalizing Behaviors

C. Externalizing Behaviors

aggression or hostility A. Coregulation B. Internalizing Behaviors C. Externalizing Behaviors

C. Externalizing Behaviors

measures that is composed of positive nominations, negative nominations, or no nomination A. Sociometric Popularity B. Positive Nomination C. Negative Nomination

A. Sociometric Popularity

children can easily say who they like to play with, who they like the most, or who they think other kinds like the most A. Sociometric Popularity B. Positive Nomination C. Negative Nomination

B. Positive Nomination

children can also easily describe which children they don’t like to play with, like the least, or think other kids don’t like A. Sociometric Popularity B. Positive Nomination C. Negative Nomination

C. Negative Nomination

Many positive nominations and few negative nominations A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

A. Popular Children

Good cognitive abilities, are high achievers, are good at solving social problems, are kind and help other children, and are assertive without being disruptive or aggressive A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

A. Popular Children

Receive a large number of negative nominations A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

B. Rejected Children

Receives few nominations of any kind A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

C. Neglected Children

Do not receive an unusual number of either positive or negative nominations A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

D. Average Children

Receives many positive and negative nominations A. Popular Children B. Rejected Children C. Neglected Children D. Average Children E. Controversial Children

E. Controversial Children

Which type of aggression is aimed at achieving a specific objective and is described as less common? A. Hostile Aggression B. Relational Aggression C. Instrumental Aggression D. Reactive Bullying

C. Instrumental Aggression

Which type of aggression is intended to hurt another person and increases proportionately? A. Hostile Aggression B. Instrumental Aggression C. Proactive Bullying D. Relational Aggression

A. Hostile Aggression

Boys are more likely to engage in which form of aggression? A. Social or indirect aggression B. Direct aggression C. Relational aggression D. Cyberbullying

B. Direct aggression

Girls are increasingly more likely to engage in which form of aggression? A. Direct physical aggression B. Instrumental aggression C. Social or indirect aggression D. Proactive bullying

C. Social or indirect aggression

Relational aggression is associated with: A. Decreased peer interaction B. Increased social influence and popularity C. Lower social standing D. Reduced peer visibility

B. Increased social influence and popularity

The tendency to perceive others as trying to hurt oneself and to respond in retaliation or self-defense is called: A. Reactive Bullying B. Instrumental Aggression C. Relational Aggression D. Hostile Attribution Tendency

D. Hostile Attribution Tendency

Bullying is best defined as: A. A single act of aggression between equals B. Aggression directed randomly at peers C. Aggression deliberately and persistently directed at a vulnerable target D. Accidental harm caused during play

C. Aggression deliberately and persistently directed at a vulnerable target

Proactive bullying is primarily done to: A. Respond to an imagined attack B. Show dominance, bolster power, or win admiration C. Defend oneself from immediate harm D. Avoid peer rejection

B. Show dominance, bolster power, or win admiration

Reactive bullying occurs when an individual: A. Seeks to gain popularity B. Attempts to increase social influence C. Responds to a real or imagined attack D. Engages in gossip to isolate someone

C. Responds to a real or imagined attack

Which of the following is an example of physical bullying? A. Name-calling B. Posting derogatory photos online C. Isolating someone from a group D. Hitting or kicking

D. Hitting or kicking

Name-calling and threatening are examples of: A. Verbal bullying B. Physical bullying C. Relational aggression D. Instrumental aggression

A. Verbal bullying

Isolating someone and spreading gossip behind their back are examples of: A. Physical bullying B. Proactive bullying C. Relational or emotional bullying D. Hostile attribution tendency

C. Relational or emotional bullying

Posting negative comments or derogatory photos of a victim on a website is considered: A. Relational aggression B. Cyberbullying C. Verbal bullying D. Reactive bullying

B. Cyberbullying

Which form of bullying involves damaging or taking personal belongings? A. Verbal bullying B. Relational bullying C. Cyberbullying D. Physical bullying

D. Physical bullying

Which of the following best describes instrumental aggression? A. Aggression intended to hurt another person B. Aggression used to defend oneself from harm C. Aggression aimed at achieving an objective D. Aggression directed at a vulnerable victim over time

C. Aggression aimed at achieving an objective

Which statement about hostile aggression is accurate? A. It is less common than instrumental aggression B. It is intended to hurt another person C. It is associated with increased social popularity D. It occurs only in response to cyberbullying

B. It is intended to hurt another person

Which type of bullying is motivated by a desire to demonstrate power and gain admiration? A. Reactive bullying B. Relational bullying C. Proactive bullying D. Verbal bullying

C. Proactive bullying

A student who assumes others are trying to harm them and reacts aggressively is demonstrating: A. Hostile Attribution Tendency B. Instrumental aggression C. Relational aggression D. Physical bullying

A. Hostile Attribution Tendency

Which combination correctly matches aggression type with its characteristic? A. Instrumental aggression – intended to hurt another person B. Hostile aggression – aimed at achieving an objective C. Relational aggression – associated with increased social influence and popularity D. Reactive bullying – done to bolster power

C. Relational aggression – associated with increased social influence and popularity

Which of the following is classified as relational or emotional bullying? A. Punching a peer B. Threatening a peer physically C. Taking someone’s belongings D. Gossiping about someone behind their back

D. Gossiping about someone behind their back

Part 3 Flashcards

(424 cards)