1
Q
What is VT1?
A
The point where it becomes tough to talk during cardio
VT1 signifies a transition in exercise intensity where conversation becomes difficult.
2
Q
What is VT2?
A
Lactate build-up causing a tired acidic feeling that accelerates faster than the body can remove it
VT2 marks a higher intensity threshold where performance is significantly affected by lactate accumulation.
3
Q
What is the challenge point in cardio training?
A
The point where lactate accumulates faster than it can be removed
This is synonymous with VT2 and indicates a critical performance threshold.
4
Q
What is the fitness phase in interval training?
A
Moderate difficulty interval work, RPE of 5-6 on a 1-10 scale
This phase serves as the starting point for interval training, focusing on developing fitness.
5
Q
What intensity level does interval training focus on?
A
Between VT1 to just below VT2
This range is crucial for effective interval training, balancing effort and recovery.
6
Q
Who are typical clients in the performance phase?
A
Clients with endurance or performance objectives, such as marathoners and cross-country skiers
This phase targets athletes training for specific events, focusing on enhancing performance.
7
Q
What does ATP stand for?
A
Adenosine triphosphate
ATP is crucial for energy provision in the body.
8
Q
What is the role of ATP in the body?
A
Provides energy by breaking down ATP molecules
9
Q
What does ABC stand for in the context of client interaction?
A
Ask open ended questions - Breakdown barriers - Collaborate
10
Q
What is the ABC approach?
A
A method to approach situations with clients, focusing on their expertise about their own body and experiences
11
Q
What is the most important aspect of the client-centered approach?
A
Building rapport and connection with clients
12
Q
What are the four stages of the client-trainer relationship?
A
- Rapport Building
- Investigation
- Planning
- Action
13
Q
What is involved in the Rapport Building stage?
A
Genuinely interested in getting to know client, developing trust, being empathetic, positive body language
14
Q
What happens during the Investigation stage?
A
Health history assessments, tracking body weight, gathering information from the client
15
Q
What does the Planning stage involve?
A
Clients and trainers collaborate to plan how to achieve client goals
16
Q
What does SMART stand for in SMART Goals?
A
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound
17
Q
What are process goals?
A
Short-term goals focusing on actions and behaviors needed to achieve desired outcomes
18
Q
What are performance goals?
A
Long-term goals representing significant changes, like increased strength or weight loss
19
Q
What is the goal of ACE in client training?
A
Achieve multiple short-term or process goals to reach performance or long-term goals
20
Q
What does the Action stage indicate?
A
Client is ready to begin exercising
21
Q
What are the different stages of learning?
A
- Cognitive stage
- Associative stage
- Autonomous stage
22
Q
What occurs during the Cognitive stage?
A
Skill is first being learned, movements are uncoordinated
23
Q
What characterizes the Associative stage?
A
Clients start to master basics and are ready for feedback
24
Q
What defines the Autonomous stage?
A
Clients perform skills naturally and effectively, trainer is an observer
25
What approach does ACE prefer for demonstrating a workout?
Tell-Show-Do approach
26
What does OARS stand for in motivational interviewing?
O - Open-ended questions
A - Affirmations
R - Reflective listening
S - Summarizing
27
What is the purpose of Open-ended questions in OARS?
Encourage deeper conversation and client expression
28
What are Affirmations used for in motivational interviewing?
Boost morale and build rapport
29
What does Reflective listening involve?
Repeating what clients say to show understanding
30
What is Summarizing in the context of OARS?
Reflecting more than one piece of information from the client
31
What are the two types of motivation and feedback?
Intrinsic and Extrinsic
32
What is Intrinsic feedback?
Feedback from within clients themselves, such as feeling good after a workout
33
What is Intrinsic motivation?
Motivation that comes from within the client
34
What is Extrinsic feedback?
Feedback from an outside source, like a trainer's congratulations
35
What is Extrinsic motivation?
Motivation from an external source, e.g., rewards for achieving goals
36
What is the Transtheoretical Model (TTM)?
A framework for understanding behavior change, emphasizing that behavior change is a process involving distinct stages.
37
How many stages are in the Transtheoretical Model?
5 stages
38
What characterizes Stage 1 of the TTM?
Precontemplation: Individuals are physically inactive and not intending to start an exercise program.
39
What is the focus of Stage 2 in the TTM?
Contemplation: Individuals are active but considering becoming more active within the next 6 months.
40
What happens in Stage 3 of the TTM?
Preparation: Individuals are engaging in some physical activity and preparing to adopt a more consistent activity program.
41
What defines Stage 4 of the TTM?
Action: Individuals are engaging in irregular physical activity for less than 6 months.
42
What is Stage 5 in the TTM?
Maintenance: Individuals have been working out consistently for longer than 6 months.
43
True or False: According to the Health Belief Model, people are more likely to change behavior due to perceived benefits.
False
44
What is the purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)?
To determine if it is safe for a client to exercise by asking health-related questions.
45
What does the Lifestyle and Health History Questionnaire provide?
Detailed information about the client, such as medications and family history.
46
What is informed consent in the context of exercise programs?
An agreement for a client to participate in an exercise program, signed for liability reasons.
47
What is the purpose of Medical Release Forms?
To obtain a physician's clearance regarding any limitations a client may have.
48
When should a client get a doctor's clearance before starting an exercise program?
If they have known cardiovascular, metabolic, or renal disease, or symptoms of these conditions.
49
What does 'superior' refer to in anatomical directions?
Toward the head end of the body.
50
What does 'inferior' mean in anatomical terms?
Away from the head or lower.
51
What is the definition of 'anterior'?
Front of the body.
52
What does 'posterior' refer to?
Back of the body.
53
Fill in the blank: The _______ plane divides the body into top and bottom halves.
Transverse
54
What movements occur in the sagittal plane?
* Flexion
* Dorsiflexion
* Plantar flexion
55
What movements are associated with the frontal plane?
* Adduction
* Abduction
* Elevation
* Depression
* Inversion
* Eversion
56
What is a key movement in the transverse plane?
Rotation
57
What is hip flexion?
Decreasing the angle at the hip joint.
58
What occurs during the lowering phase of a squat?
* Hip flexion
* Knee flexion
* Ankle dorsiflexion
59
What happens during the lifting phase of a squat?
* Hip extension
* Knee extension
* Ankle plantar flexion
60
What is an Agonist?
The prime mover or muscle that does most of the work during a specific exercise
61
What is an Antagonist?
The muscle that opposes the agonist
62
In a bicep curl, which muscle is the agonist?
Biceps
63
In a bicep curl, which muscle is the antagonist?
Triceps
64
What happens to the bicep muscle during a bicep curl?
It shortens
65
What is Reciprocal Inhibition?
A neuromuscular process where a muscle relaxes to allow a muscle on the opposite side of a joint to contract
66
What is another name for Reciprocal Inhibition?
Reflexive antagonism
67
What does Reciprocal Inhibition prevent?
Muscle strain
68
When an agonist muscle contracts, what does the central nervous system do to the antagonist muscle?
Sends inhibitory signals causing it to relax
69
What is the importance of Reciprocal Inhibition?
Crucial for efficient movement and smooth and coordinated movement patterns
70
Fill in the blank: In a leg extension, the agonist muscles are the _______.
Quadricep muscles
71
Fill in the blank: In a leg extension, the antagonists are the _______.
Hamstring muscles
72
What are Synergists?
Muscles that assist prime movers or agonists with movements
73
In a bicep curl, which muscles act as synergists?
Forearm and wrists
74
What is an Isometric contraction?
A contraction where there is no change in the muscle length
75
Provide an example of an Isometric contraction.
Plank
76
What is a Concentric contraction?
When a muscle shortens
77
Provide an example of a Concentric contraction.
Pec Fly
78
What is an Eccentric contraction?
When a muscle lengthens
79
Provide an example of an Eccentric contraction.
Reverse Pec Fly
80
Which type of muscle contraction leads to muscle breakdown/soreness/muscle growth?
Eccentric contraction
81
What is Periodization?
A systematic planning of physical training to achieve the best performance for a specific time frame or event
82
What are the variables changed during Periodization?
* Sets
* Reps
* Workout intensity
83
What is a Macrocycle?
The entire periodized plan that can last up to a year
84
What is a Mesocycle?
A specific block of training to achieve a specific goal, roughly about a month long
85
What is a Microcycle?
A week-long block in a plan
86
What is the formula for Desired Body Weight (DBW)?
DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%)
87
How do you calculate Lean Body Weight (LBW)?
LBW = Body weight x Lean body %
88
What is the formula to find Desired Lean %?
Desired Lean % = 100% – Desired fat %
89
If a 200-pound individual has 30% body fat, what is their LBW?
140 pounds
90
How do you calculate the Desired Body Weight (DBW) for someone aiming for 25% body fat?
DBW = LBW ÷ Desired lean %
91
What is the formula for predicting 1-RM using pounds lifted and repetitions?
Predicted 1-RM = Pounds lifted ÷ % 1-RM
92
If an individual can perform a maximum of 10 repetitions with 150 pounds, what is their predicted 1-RM?
200 pounds
93
What is the Waist-to-Hip Ratio (WHR) formula?
WHR = Waist ÷ Hip
94
If an individual has a 36-inch waist and a 35-inch hip circumference, what is their WHR?
1.03
95
What is the formula for predicting Maximal Heart Rate (MHR) according to Fox, Naughton, Haskell?
MHR = 220 - Age
96
What is the MHR for a 42-year-old client using the Gellish formula?
179 bpm
97
What is the BMI metric formula?
BMI = Weight (kg) ÷ Height² (m)
98
How do you convert weight from pounds to kilograms?
Weight in kg = weight in pounds ÷ 2.2
99
What is the Karvonen formula for Target Heart Rate (THR)?
THR = (HRR x % Intensity) + RHR
100
What is the formula for calculating BMI using the standard formula?
[ (Weight (lbs) x 703) ÷ Height (inches)² ]
101
How many kcal are in 1 gram of fat?
9 kcal/g
102
What is the caloric value per gram for carbohydrates?
4 kcal/g
103
How many total calories are in a meal containing 36g carbohydrates, 11g protein, and 8g fat?
260 calories
104
What is the daily caloric deficit needed to lose 1 pound of body fat?
3,500 kcal
105
If an individual wants to lose 15 pounds in 20 weeks, what is the required daily caloric deficit?
375 kcal/day
106
Fill in the blank: To find the Daily Caloric Deficit, first calculate the _______.
Weekly Caloric Deficit
107
True or False: The Karvonen formula requires the resting heart rate as part of its calculation.
True
108
What age is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases in men?
45 years and older
## Footnote
For women, the age is 55 years and older.
109
What family history constitutes a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
Brother or father heart attack, death or heart surgery before 55, or mother or sister before age 65
110
Cigarette smoking is considered a risk factor if the individual has smoked within how long?
Six months
111
What blood pressure reading is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
Greater than or equal to 130/80 or taking medications
112
What constitutes a sedentary lifestyle as a risk factor?
Not doing moderate intensity physical activity 3 days a week or more, for 3 months or more
113
What BMI is classified as obesity?
BMI ≥ 30
114
What waist circumference indicates obesity in females?
35 inches or greater
115
What waist circumference indicates obesity in males?
39 inches or greater
116
What LDL level is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
LDL > 130
117
What HDL level is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
HDL < 40
118
What total cholesterol level is considered a risk factor?
Total cholesterol > 200
119
What condition is classified as a risk factor if the individual has diabetes?
Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes or pre-diabetes
120
Is HDL over 60 a risk factor or a negative risk factor?
Negative risk factor
121
What is the normal blood pressure range?
Normal: <120 / <80
122
What is considered elevated blood pressure?
120-129 / <80
123
What defines Stage 1 hypertension?
130-139 or 80-89
124
What defines Stage 2 hypertension?
≥140 / ≥90
125
What is systolic blood pressure?
Pressure in arteries when the heart beats
126
What is diastolic blood pressure?
Pressure in arteries when the heart is resting between beats
127
What are the two kinds of blood pressure medications?
Beta blockers & Diuretics
128
What is the function of beta blockers?
Lower heart rate at rest and during exercise
129
What is the function of diuretics?
Increase excretion of water from the body through the kidneys
130
What type of diabetes requires insulin injections?
Type 1 Diabetes
131
What characterizes Type 2 Diabetes?
Insulin resistance
132
What is prediabetes?
State where some but not all diagnostic criteria for diabetes are met
133
What is the recommended frequency for resistance training for people with arthritis?
2-3 days a week
134
What is the recommended intensity for resistance training in individuals with arthritis?
50-80% 1RM with low initial intensity
135
How many sets and repetitions are recommended for resistance training for arthritis?
2-4 sets for 8-12 reps
136
What are the two sites to consider for taking a client's pulse?
Carotid artery and radial artery
137
Where is the radial artery located?
Beside the side of the wrist
138
Where is the carotid artery located?
Side of your neck
139
What is the normal resting heart rate range for males?
60 to 70 BPM
140
What is the normal resting heart rate range for females?
72 to 80 BPM
141
What indicates that a client may be overtraining?
Heart rate is five beats higher than their typical resting heart rate for a few days
142
What is sinus tachycardia?
A fast but steady resting heart rate over 100 BPM
143
What is sinus bradycardia?
A slow but steady resting heart rate under 60 BPM
144
What is the circumference measurement site for hips?
At the widest portion of someone's buttocks
145
What is the circumference measurement site for biceps?
Midpoint of the arm
146
What is the circumference measurement site for the waist?
Narrowest portion of person's torso
147
What is the circumference measurement site across the belly button?
Abdominal measurement
148
What is the circumference measurement site for the thigh?
Midpoint of leg, halfway between knee and inguinal crease
149
What is Lordotic Posture?
An exaggerated lumbar lordosis that can cause problems due to tight hip flexors and lumbar extensors, while hip extensors and core muscles are lengthened and weakened.
## Footnote
The abdominal muscles tend to be weak in this position.
150
What are the characteristics of Kyphotic posture?
Anterior chest, shoulder muscles, lats, and neck extensors are too tight and shortened, leading to a hunched back appearance.
## Footnote
Muscles on the front side of the body are tight, while rhomboids and lower/mid traps are overstretched.
151
What is Swayback posture?
A postural deviation characterized by a backward shift of the pelvis and thorax, leading to a flat appearance in the lower back.
152
What is Flatback posture?
A postural deviation where the normal lordotic curve is diminished, resulting in a flat appearance of the lower back.
153
What is Scoliosis?
A lateral curvature of the spine, often resulting in uneven shoulders or hips.
154
What is Anterior Pelvic Tilt?
A forward tilt of the pelvis often associated with lordotic and kyphotic postures; characterized by tight lower back muscles and weakened abdominal muscles.
## Footnote
Hip flexors are also tight, while hamstrings and glutes are lengthened.
155
What muscles are typically overactive in Forward Head Posture?
Cervical spine extensors, upper traps, and levator scapula.
## Footnote
These muscles are often overactive alongside kyphosis.
156
What is the purpose of the Unipedal stance test?
To assess a client's risk of falling and their ability to perform daily living tasks.
157
What does the VO2 Max Test measure?
The maximal amount of oxygen a subject can use and consume during exercise.
158
What does the Dynamic Y Balance Test assess?
Dynamic balance and identifies differences between right and left legs, useful for injury prevention.
159
What is the McGill Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery?
A series of three tests assessing the muscular endurance of trunk flexors, lateral core muscles, and torso extensor muscles.
160
What does the Thomas Test assess?
Hip flexor length or tightness in clients.
161
What does the Passive Straight Leg Raise assess?
The length of a client's hamstrings.
162
What is the Bend & Lift Assessment?
An observation of client movement patterns during a squat without correcting their form.
163
What does the Push Assessment evaluate?
Stabilization of the scapulothoracic joint and core control.
164
What is assessed during the Pull Assessment?
Movement quality and muscle imbalances.
165
What muscles are overactive if the shoulder is elevated and the head is forward?
Levator scapula and cervical spine extensors.
## Footnote
The lower traps are considered underactive in this scenario.
166
What does the Rotation Assessment evaluate?
Range of motion in the thoracic spine during rotation.
167
What should not be done if a client has orthopedic issues?
Do not perform muscular endurance tests.
168
What is the Max Push-up Assessment?
A test to perform as many push-ups as possible, with men doing full push-ups and women performing kneeling push-ups.
169
What does the Squat Assessment measure?
Muscular endurance through the client's ability to perform squats with good form.
170
What is tested during Strength Assessments?
One Rep Max (1RM) on bench press and squat.
## Footnote
Avoid these tests with clients who have orthopedic issues.
171
What is the Vertical Jump Test used for?
To assess vertical jump height, especially useful for athletes.
172
What does the T-Test assess?
Speed, agility, and quickness, particularly multi-directional movement ability.
173
What should clients avoid during assessments?
Performing the Valsalva maneuver.
174
What is the role of personal trainers regarding meal plans?
Personal trainers do not develop meal plans for clients or provide medical nutrition therapy.
## Footnote
Trainers can help clients understand food labels and nutrient functions.
175
What should a personal trainer do if a client has diabetes and wants to lose weight?
Refer the client to a registered dietitian.
## Footnote
This is important for proper dietary management.
176
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
4 calories.
## Footnote
This is the same for carbohydrates.
177
How many calories are in 1 gram of fat?
9 calories.
178
What is the caloric equivalent of 1 pound of fat?
3,500 calories.
179
What daily caloric deficit would result in a weight loss of approximately 1 pound of fat per week?
A 500 calorie daily deficit.
180
What is the recommended hydration before exercise for an average-sized person?
5-7 ml at least 4 hours before exercise.
181
What should be done during exercise regarding hydration?
Monitor sweat loss and replenish fluid, sodium, potassium, and carbs.
182
What is the recommended fluid intake after exercise?
Drink 1.5 liters per kg of body weight lost.
183
What nutrients does the DASH diet emphasize?
Potassium, calcium, and magnesium.
184
What does a BMI over 25 indicate?
Overweight.
185
What does a BMI over 30 indicate?
Obesity.
186
What does Bioelectrical Impedance (BIA) measure?
Body composition based on the rate of electrical current through the body.
187
What can affect the accuracy of a BIA test?
Hydration levels.
188
What are the two main components of the nervous system?
Somatic nervous system and autonomous nervous system.
189
What does the somatic nervous system control?
Skeletal muscles and voluntary movements.
190
What are the two types of muscle fibers?
Type one (slow twitch) and type two (fast twitch).
191
What is a characteristic of type one muscle fibers?
Better endurance but lower power.
192
What is a characteristic of type two muscle fibers?
Generate more power but have less endurance.
193
What is the primary purpose of the ACE personal trainer certification program?
To protect the public from harm.
194
What is static stretching?
Holding a stretch for roughly 30 seconds.
195
What is dynamic stretching?
Movement pattern designed to mimic the workout.
196
What should you do if a client shares too much personal information during a session?
Redirect the focus back to the workout.
197
What is dyspnea?
Difficult or labored breathing.
198
What is syncope?
Fainting.
199
What is orthopnea?
Breathlessness in a recumbent position, relieved by sitting or standing.
200
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7 cervical vertebrae.
201
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12 thoracic vertebrae.
202
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
5 lumbar vertebrae.
203
What is the double progression training protocol?
Increase weight by 5% after achieving 15 reps at the current weight.
204
What does the talk test indicate?
Exercise intensity level at which a person can still speak, but not comfortably.
205
What does VT2 represent?
The point at which high-intensity exercise can no longer be sustained due to lactic acid accumulation.
206
What is a sole proprietorship?
A business owned by an individual with no protection for the owner.
207
What is an LLC?
A business structure that provides protection and requires simple forms.
208
What is an independent contractor?
A self-employed person contracted to perform work for another entity.
209
What defines a worker as an employee?
The business has the right to direct and control the work performed.
210
What is the action of the Rectus Abdominus?
Flexes trunk & aids in expiration
## Footnote
The Rectus Abdominus is commonly referred to as the 'six pack' muscle.
211
What is the antagonist of the Rectus Abdominus?
Erector spinae
212
What is the main action of the Transversus Abdominus?
Stabilizes the spine and pelvis before movement
213
What is the deepest core muscle?
Transversus abdominus
214
What actions do the External and Internal Oblique perform?
Flexes trunk to same side, rotates the trunk
215
What is the antagonist of the External and Internal Oblique?
Erector Spinae
216
Which oblique muscle rotates the trunk to the opposite side?
External oblique
217
Which oblique muscle rotates the trunk to the same side?
Internal oblique
218
What is the action of the Quadratus Lumborum?
Extension of the lumbar spine, lateral flexion to same side
219
What is the antagonist of the Quadratus Lumborum?
Opposite side
220
What are the three muscles that compose the Erector Spinae?
* Iliocostalis
* Longissimus
* Spinalis
221
What is the primary action of the Erector Spinae?
Extends vertebral column, laterally flexes
222
What is the antagonist of the Erector Spinae?
Rectus abdominus
223
What is the action of the Latissimus Dorsi?
Extension, adduction, internal rotation, horizontal abduction at the shoulder
224
What are the antagonists of the Latissimus Dorsi?
* Deltoids
* Trapezius
225
What is the action of the Trapezius?
Retracts and elevates the scapula
226
What are the antagonists of the Trapezius?
* Serratus anterior
* Pectoralis major
227
What is the action of the Rhomboid Minor and Major?
Retract the scapula, rotates scapula, stabilizes scapula
228
What are the antagonists of the Rhomboids?
* Serratus anterior
* Pectoralis major
229
What is the action of the Levator Scapula?
Elevates scapula, helps scapula rotate
230
What is the antagonist of the Levator Scapula?
Serratus anterior
231
What is the action of the Serratus Anterior?
Scapula protraction and stabilization
232
What are the antagonists of the Serratus Anterior?
* Rhomboids
* Trapezius
233
What is the action of the Pectoralis Major?
Adducts, medially rotates, flexes, and extends the humerus
234
What are the antagonists of the Pectoralis Major?
* Deltoids
* Trapezius
235
What is the action of the Pectoralis Minor?
Draws the scapula anteriorly and inferiorly
236
What are the antagonists of the Pectoralis Minor?
* Trapezius
* Rhomboids
237
What is the action of the Deltoids?
Abducts, flexes, extends shoulder
238
What are the antagonists of the Deltoids?
* Latissimus dorsi
* Pectoralis Major
239
What is the action of the Teres Major?
Internally rotates humerus
240
What is the antagonist of the Teres Major?
Some of the rotator cuff
241
What muscles make up the Rotator Cuff?
* Supraspinatus
* Infraspinatus
* Teres Major
* Subscapularis
242
What is the action of the Rotator Cuff?
Rotates the shoulder
243
What is the antagonist of the Rotator Cuff?
Depends often on pectoralis major
244
What is the action of the Biceps Brachii?
Flexes elbow, supinates forearm
245
What is the antagonist of the Biceps Brachii?
Triceps brachii
246
What is the action of the Brachialis?
Flexes elbow
247
What is the antagonist of the Brachialis?
Triceps brachii
248
What is the action of the Triceps Brachii?
Extension of the elbow and shoulder
249
What are the antagonists of the Triceps Brachii?
* Biceps
* Brachialis
250
What percentage of upper arm mass does the Triceps make up?
About 55%
251
What percentage of upper arm mass does the Biceps make up?
About 30%
252
What are the four functions of muscles?
Enable Movement, Help with posture, Help with stability, Help with Heating
253
What are the four muscles that make up the quadriceps?
* Vastus Lateralis
* Vastus Intermedius
* Vastus Medialis
* Rectus Femoris
254
What is the primary action of the quadriceps?
Extend knee
255
What is the antagonist of the quadriceps?
Hamstrings
256
How much weaker are the hamstrings compared to the quadriceps?
Approximately 30% weaker
257
What unique action does the Rectus Femoris perform that other quad muscles do not?
Flex the hip
258
What are the three muscles that make up the hamstrings?
* Biceps Femoris
* Semitendinosus
* Semimembranosus
259
What is the primary action of the Semitendinosus and Semimembranosus?
Flex knee, extend hip, medially rotate leg at knee
260
What is the antagonist of the hamstrings?
Quads
261
What are the two key actions to remember about the hamstrings?
Knee Flexion and Hip Extension
262
What is the action of the Biceps Femoris?
Flex knee, extend hip, laterally rotate leg at knee
263
What are the three muscles in the glutes?
* Gluteus Maximus
* Gluteus Medius
* Gluteus Minimus
264
What is the action of the Gluteus Maximus?
Strong hip extensor, externally rotates hip, supports knee
265
What is the antagonist of the Gluteus Maximus?
Hip flexor
266
What do the Gluteus Minimus and Gluteus Medius do?
Abduct the hip, prevent adduction of hip
267
What is the action of the Deep 6 Lateral Rotators?
Laterally rotate the hip
268
What are the muscles that make up the Deep 6 Lateral Rotators?
* Piriformis
* Gemellus superior
* Obturator Internus
* Gemellus Inferior
* Obturator externus
* Quadratus femoris
269
What is the antagonist of the Deep 6 Lateral Rotators?
Glute med, glute min
270
What is the action of the Tensor Fasciae Latae?
Flexes hip, medially rotates hip, hip abductor, stabilizer
271
What is the antagonist of the Tensor Fasciae Latae?
Glute max, adductor magnus
272
What muscles are involved in hip adduction?
* Pectineus
* Adductor Longus
* Adductor Magnus
* Adductor Brevis
* Gracilis
273
What is the primary action of the adduction muscles of the hip?
Adduct the hip
274
What is the antagonist of the hip adduction muscles?
Glute med, glute min
275
What is the action of the Sartorius?
Flex hip + knee, external rotation hip
276
What is unique about the Sartorius?
Longest muscle in the body, synergist for various movements
277
What muscles make up the iliopsoas?
* Psoas Major
* Psoas Minor
* Iliacus
278
What is the primary action of the Psoas Major?
Strong hip flexor, assists in hip external rotation
279
What is the antagonist of the Psoas Major?
Glute max
280
What are the actions of the Gastrocnemius and Soleus?
Plantarflexion, Gastroc weak knee flexion
281
What is the antagonist of the Gastrocnemius and Soleus?
Tibialis anterior
282
What is the action of the Tibialis Anterior?
Dorsiflexion, foot inversion
283
What is the largest muscle on the anterior part of the calf?
Tibialis anterior
284
What are the five different types of bones?
* Flat bones
* Sesamoid
* Short
* Long
* Irregular
## Footnote
These categories help classify bones based on their shapes and functions.
285
List a few functions of bones.
* Provide support for the body
* Protect the organs
* Help with movement
* Storage spot for fats and minerals
* Blood cell formation
## Footnote
These functions highlight the importance of bones in overall body health.
286
How many bones does the human body consist of?
206
## Footnote
This number can vary slightly due to anatomical variations.
287
How many bones are in the Axial Skeleton?
80
## Footnote
The Axial Skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
288
How many bones are in the Appendicular Skeleton?
126
## Footnote
This skeleton includes the limbs and pelvic girdle.
289
What does the Axial Skeleton consist of?
* Skull
* Ossicles (inner ear)
* Hyoid bone
* Rib cage
* Vertebral column
## Footnote
The Axial Skeleton supports the head and trunk.
290
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
## Footnote
The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck region.
291
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12
## Footnote
These vertebrae are located in the upper and middle back.
292
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
5
## Footnote
The lumbar vertebrae are located in the lower back.
293
What is the mnemonic to remember the number of vertebrae?
Breakfast (7), Lunch (12), Dinner (5)
## Footnote
This mnemonic helps remember the vertebrae count in a fun way.
294
What is the first cervical vertebra called?
Atlas
## Footnote
The Atlas supports the head and is named after a figure in Greek mythology.
295
What is the second cervical vertebra called?
Axis
## Footnote
The Axis acts as a pivot point for the head and neck.
296
What is the structure beneath the traditional vertebrae?
Sacrum
## Footnote
The Sacrum consists of 5 fused vertebrae.
297
What is the tailbone called?
Coccyx
## Footnote
The Coccyx is also made of fused vertebrae.
298
What are the three parts of the sternum?
Not specified
## Footnote
The sternum is a long flat chest bone but its parts were not detailed.
299
How many ribs are in the human body?
24 (12 on each side)
## Footnote
The ribs protect the thoracic cavity and support respiratory function.
300
How many bones are in the skull?
23
## Footnote
The head in total has 29 bones when including other facial bones.
301
What does the Appendicular Skeleton consist of?
* Shoulder girdle
* Arm
* Hand
* Leg
* Foot
* Pelvic girdle
## Footnote
This skeleton is responsible for movement and interaction with the environment.
302
What is the longest bone in the arm?
Humerus
## Footnote
The Humerus runs from the shoulder to the elbow.
303
What are the two bones in the shoulder girdle?
* Scapula
* Clavicle
## Footnote
The Scapula is wing-shaped, while the Clavicle is commonly known as the collarbone.
304
What are the two bones in the forearm?
* Ulna
* Radius
## Footnote
The Ulna is longer and located on the medial side, while the Radius is shorter and on the lateral side.
305
What are the carpal bones?
8 small bones in the wrist
## Footnote
These bones connect the hand to the forearm.
306
What do the metacarpal bones form?
The middle part of the hand / the palm
## Footnote
These bones support the hand's structure.
307
What are the phalanges?
Fingers
## Footnote
The phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers.
308
What three bones make up the pelvic girdle?
* Ilium
* Ischium
* Pubis
## Footnote
The pelvic girdle supports the weight of the upper body.
309
What is the largest and strongest bone in the body?
Femur
## Footnote
The Femur supports the weight of the body during standing and movement.
310
What is the kneecap called?
Patella
## Footnote
The Patella protects the knee joint.
311
What is the second largest and strongest bone in the body?
Tibia
## Footnote
The Tibia is located on the medial side of the calf.
312
What bone is next to the Tibia?
Fibula
## Footnote
The Fibula is long and skinny and located on the lateral side of the leg.
313
What are the main bones in the base of the foot?
Tarsals
## Footnote
The Tarsals are similar to the carpals in the hand.
314
What are the bones that make up the middle part of the foot?
Metatarsals
## Footnote
These bones support body weight and provide structure to the foot.
315
What are the bones in the toes called?
Phalanges
## Footnote
Similar to the fingers, the toes are made up of phalanges.
ACE PFT
flashcards
Decks in class (20)
# Cards
