1
Q
The ideal suture material for intestinal anastomosis is:
A
Chromic catgut
It’s absorbable, reduces foreign body reaction, and degrades over time, ideal for internal use.
2
Q
Rumenotomy is a type of-
restorative surgery
extirpative surgery
plastic surgery
replacement surgery
A
restorative surgery
3
Q
In shoulder joint fracture, main sign is -
A
Animal moves keeping head upwards
direction
4
Q
Which suture pattern provides maximum strength in skin closure?
A
Ford interlocking
Explanation: Ford interlocking provides both strength and tension distribution for skin closure in large animals.
5
Q
Which surgical procedure is preferred in a displaced abomasum case in dairy cows?
a) Laparotomy with omentopexy
b) Rumenotomy
c) Abomasotomy
d) Exploratory laparotomy
A
a) Laparotomy with omentopexy
Explanation: The most common treatment for LDA/RDA is surgical repositioning followed by omentopexy.
6
Q
Which suture pattern provides the best apposition?
A
gambee
7
Q
Caslick’s operation is used for:
A
Pneumovagina
8
Q
Which suture is ideal for closing hollow organs?
A
Cushing (It’s inverting and reduces leakage)
9
Q
Dehorning in adult cattle may lead to:
A
sinusitis
10
Q
issuing false certificate including veterinary practice is punishable under
A
IPC 197
11
Q
Interrupted suture used to close skin is:
A
mattress
12
Q
Which of the following causes “cotton wool” appearance in radiographs of bone lesions?
A
Osteosarcoma
📝 Osteosarcoma can cause sclerotic lesions giving a “cotton-wool” pattern on X-ray.
13
Q
Which suture pattern is tension-relieving?
A
Horizontal mattress
14
Q
First intention healing occurs with:
a) Sutured wounds
b) Open wounds
c) Contaminated wounds
d) Puncture wounds
A
a) sutured wounds
15
Q
Common suture pattern for hollow organs:
A
Lambert
16
Q
Castration in calves is best done at what age
A
3–4 months
17
Q
Most reliable indicator of pain post-op:
A
Vocalization and posture
18
Q
Absorbable suture with long duration:
A
Polydioxanone
19
Q
Emasculator is used in:
A
castration
20
Q
K-wire is used in:
A
Internal fixation
21
Q
Ideal suture material for intestinal anastomosis:
A
chromic catgut
22
Q
Primary complication of castration in adult bull:
A
scirrhous cord
also known as funiculitis, is a chronic inflammatory condition of the spermatic cord stump, usually occurring after castration in animals. It’s characterized by excessive granulation tissue formation due to bacterial infection, often Staphylococcus aureus. In horses, it can lead to swelling, pain, and sometimes lameness.
23
Q
Suture material preferred for intestinal surgery:
A
Polypropylene
24
Q
Which of the following is absorbable suture?
a) Silk
b) Nylon
c) Vicryl
d) Linen
A
c) vicryl
25
Best method to sterilize surgical instruments:
autoclaving
26
Which instrument is used for holding tissue during suturing?
needle holder
27
The ‘Tenotomy scissors’ are used in:
Tendon surgeries
28
Hemostasis during surgery is commonly achieved by:
Artery forceps
29
In herniorrhaphy, the term “raphy” refers to:
Suturing
30
Which antiseptic is most effective on skin pre-surgery?
chlorhexidine
31
The fastest method of euthanasia in large animals:
IV barbiturate
32
Which suture is best for skin closure in dogs?
Cruciate
33
red and grey kangaroos can be anaesthetised by IV inj of thiopental in which vein
saphenous vein
34
voluntary carnal intercourse with animals punishable under section
377
35
Ideal suture material for intestinal anastomosis in small animals:
Polyglactin 910
➤ It’s absorbable, synthetic, and causes minimal tissue reaction — ideal for rapidly healing tissues like intestine.
36
Which nerve is blocked during dehorning in cattle?
Cornual
➤ The cornual nerve, a branch of the zygomaticotemporal nerve, innervates the horn region.
37
metomidate in aq sol is used as anaesthetic for fishes
onset of anaesthesia requires how much time?
2-5 mins
38
Which suture pattern is tension-relieving and used to close large wounds?
vertical mattress
39
Which drug is commonly used for epidural anesthesia in large animals?
lignocaine
40
Best suture material for urinary bladder repair is:
Vicryl
(Absorbable and synthetic; less tissue reaction, ideal for internal organs.)
41
“Frog leg” position in radiographs is used for imaging:
pelvis
42
Best diagnostic imaging for soft tissues:
MRI
43
Most radiosensitive organ:
BM
44
Common radiographic finding in GDV (dogs):
double bubble
45
Inverted L block is used in:
flank surgery
46
caslicks operation done for
pneumonia in horse
47
whipples operation done for
pancreaticoduodenectomy, is primarily performed to remove cancerous tumors or other diseases affecting the head of the pancreas, duodenum, bile duct, and sometimes the stomach and surrounding lymph nodes.
48
hobday operation for
roaring in horse
49
Ovariohysterectomy in dogs is best done during which phase of estrous
anestrus
50
Needle type for skin suturing:
cutting
51
Horse fracture repair requires:
a) External cast
b) Intramedullary pin
c) Plating
d) Stall rest
c)
52
Hernia with complete sac contents:
a) Incarcerated
b) Strangulated
c) Reducible
d) Irreducible
c)
53
Pain during rectal exam is common in:
reticulitis
54
In dog, castration is done through:
a) Pre-scrotal incision
b) Inguinal
c) Midline
d) Transverse
a)
55
Surgery for GDV in dogs:
gastropexy
56
Golden period for wound closure:
6-8 hrs
57
“Castration tail” is seen in:
bull
After trauma/infection post-castration.
58
In septic wounds, the best suture type is:
Non-absorbable monofilament
59
Sit fast is caused by constant irritation of
collar
60
When the fractured fragments lie side by side it is called
over riding fracture
61
following burns curling ulcer occurs in
duodenum
62
To perform operation on lower left region, the nerve block used is
Mental
63
halothane vapour produces stage three plane anaesthesia in dogs in concentration of
2-4%
64
history of prolonged maricom followed by dropped flexion of fetlock in a cow suggest paralysis of
radial nerve 
65
dental fistula in dogs is observed at the level of
4th upper molar
65
thick and inspissated pus granule in guttural pouch is called
chondroid
65
Schiotz tonometer records
IOP
66
dentigerous cyst is more common in
horse
67
which of the following type of tumour is usually most radio sensitive?
lymphosarcoma/ osteosarcoma
lympho
68
The most radiosensitive tissue in the body is nerve cell muscle cell ovaries and testes or fat cell
According to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, radiosensitivity is directly proportional to the reproductive capacity (mitotic rate) and inversely proportional to the degree of cell differentiation.
Ovaries and testes (gonads) contain rapidly dividing, undifferentiated stem cells (spermatogonia and ovarian follicular cells) that are highly sensitive to radiation. Doses as low as 30 rads (300 mGy) to the testes can cause temporary sterility in men.
69
among the following treatment scheme, which one will be optimum for radiotherapy of a deep seated tumour single field arrangement to opposed Sandwich field arrangement two pairs of opposed field arrangement or crossfire arrangement
Crossfire Arrangement: This technique, also known as multiple-field external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) or intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) using multiple beams from different directions, is designed to deliver a high dose of radiation to the deep-seated tumor while minimizing damage to the surrounding healthy tissues and organs. By using multiple beams that converge at the tumor, the radiation dose is focused at the target, while the dose delivered to any single volume of healthy tissue along the path of each beam is kept low.
70
unit of radiation dose in REM is calculated by multiplying relative biological effectiveness of a particular radiation to dose of radiation in
Rads
Dose in rem = RBE × Dose in rads
71
among the following commonly used mode of scan in modern diagnostic ultrasound machine is
B mode of scan
72
The computerized tomographic (CT) value for water is
0 Hounsfield Units (HU).
This value is the baseline used to calibrate the Hounsfield scale, with air being assigned -1000 HU and bone typically around +1000 HU.
73
avulsion of tuber ischii can be treated successfully by closed or open method of intramedullary pinning or bone plating or none
None
Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity (hamstring attachment) is usually treated non-surgically if minimally displaced, but displaced fractures (often >2cm) need surgery, with techniques like suture-bridge fixation (preferred for secure healing and early return to sport), screws, or plates being effective, rather than always intramedullary pinning. While some sources discuss intramedullary pinning or plating, suture fixation is a highly successful method for ischial avulsions, often combined with conservative care for non-displaced cases.
74
avulsion of tuber ischii can be treated successfully by closed or open method of intramedullary pinning or bone plating or none
None
Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity (hamstring attachment) is usually treated non-surgically if minimally displaced, but displaced fractures (often >2cm) need surgery, with techniques like suture-bridge fixation (preferred for secure healing and early return to sport), screws, or plates being effective, rather than always intramedullary pinning. While some sources discuss intramedullary pinning or plating, suture fixation is a highly successful method for ischial avulsions, often combined with conservative care for non-displaced cases.
75
after cardiac impulse leaves the SA node and depolarises the aorta it goes to
AV node
Sinoatrial (SA) node: Initiates the heart’s electrical impulse as the natural pacemaker.
Atrial myocardium: Impulse spreads across atria, causing contraction and blood flow into ventricles.
Atrioventricular (AV) node: Impulse delayed to allow atria to empty into ventricles before contraction.
Bundle of His: Impulse passes from AV node into specialised fibres in the interventricular septum.
Right and left bundle branches: Bundle divides, carrying impulse to respective ventricles.
Purkinje fibres: Distribute impulse rapidly through ventricular walls.
Ventricular myocardium: Impulse causes ventricles to contract, pumping blood to lungs
76
fresh myocardial infection is characterised on the ECG by
ST elevation and T wave inversion
A fresh myocardial infarction (MI) on ECG shows ST-segment elevation (STEMI) or new left bundle branch block (LBBB) in two or more leads, indicating acute heart injury. ECG changes evolve as follows:
1. Hyperacute Phase: Tall, broad T waves in affected leads.
2. Acute Phase: Significant ST-segment elevation in at least two contiguous leads, with reciprocal depression in opposite leads.
3. Evolving Phase: ST elevation resolves, T waves invert, and pathological Q waves may develop.
4. Resolved Phase: ST segments return to baseline, T wave inversion may persist, and pathological Q waves remain.
77
fresh myocardial infection is characterised on the ECG by
ST elevation and T wave inversion
A fresh myocardial infarction (MI) on ECG shows ST-segment elevation (STEMI) or new left bundle branch block (LBBB) in two or more leads, indicating acute heart injury. ECG changes evolve as follows:
1. Hyperacute Phase: Tall, broad T waves in affected leads.
2. Acute Phase: Significant ST-segment elevation in at least two contiguous leads, with reciprocal depression in opposite leads.
3. Evolving Phase: ST elevation resolves, T waves invert, and pathological Q waves may develop.
4. Resolved Phase: ST segments return to baseline, T wave inversion may persist, and pathological Q waves remain.
77
which ECG features you would look for a patient who has hypokalaemia?
T-wave flattening, ST-segment depression, and prominent U waves. Early signs are T-wave flattening or inversion, while significant hypokalemia shows prominent U waves, often with U wave amplitude exceeding T wave when potassium is below 3.0 mEq/L. Widespread ST depression may mimic myocardial ischemia, and severe cases can show apparent QT prolongation due to merged T and U waves.
78
lead 2 measures difference of electrical potential between
Left rearleg and right foreleg
79
in atrial fibrillation
no P waves are discernible
QRS – T complexes are abnormal
inverted T waves
None
a)
80
pulmonic stenosis is characterised by
positive QRS complex or negative KRS complex or no change in QRS complex or absence of r wave
Pulmonic stenosis (PS) is characterized by ECG changes indicating right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) resulting from pressure overload. The most characteristic ECG finding in the precordial leads (specifically V1) for moderate-to-severe pulmonic stenosis is a positive QRS complex (specifically a tall R wave or an rR' pattern).
Key details:
Tall R wave in V1: In moderate to severe cases, the right ventricular hypertrophy causes a high-amplitude R wave, or an R/S ratio greater than 1, in the right precordial lead V1.
rSR' pattern: In some cases, an rsR' pattern may be observed in V1, representing incomplete or complete right bundle branch block (RBBB), which is common in PS.
Right axis deviation: A rightward shift of the QRS axis is often present.
RV Strain Pattern: In severe cases, ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion (negative T-wave) in the right precordial leads (V1-V3) are observed.
81
in the 2nd°, AV Block ECG shows which of the following? prolonged QT interval or absence of QRS and T wave or shortening of ST segment or P wave with directed downward
The correct option is the absence of a QRS complex and T wave following a P wave. In 2nd-degree AV block, not all atrial impulses conduct to the ventricles, resulting in "dropped" or missed QRS complexes.
Explanation
The defining characteristic of a second-degree AV block on an ECG is that some P waves are not followed by a QRS complex (and subsequently, no T wave, as the ventricles do not depolarize and repolarize).
In Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach) second-degree AV block, the PR interval progressively lengthens with each beat until a P wave is blocked.
In Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block, the PR interval of conducted beats remains constant, but some P waves are suddenly not conducted.
Why other options are incorrect
Prolonged QT interval is associated with conditions like Long QT syndrome, which affects ventricular repolarization, but is not the primary diagnostic feature of 2nd-degree AV block itself (though it can sometimes be a secondary finding in rare cases or in the context of very slow heart rates).
Shortening of the ST segment is not a characteristic feature of AV blocks; ST segment changes are typically associated with myocardial ischemia or injury.
P wave with directed downward (meaning negative in lead II) is a sign of an abnormal atrial rhythm (e.g., junctional rhythm), not a normal sinus rhythm, which has an upright P wave in lead II.
82
Haematoma is which type of wound abrasion or corrosion or punctured or avulsion. choose one
corrosion/avulsion??
83
what ECG changes might be seen in patient, who is taking digitalis down deflection of ST, prolonged PR or wide QRS, shortened PR or prolonged QT interval or tall peaked T wave
In a patient taking digitalis (digoxin), you'd expect classic "digoxin effect" ECG changes like downsloping ST depression (scooped appearance) and shortened QT interval, with potential mild PR prolongation; these usually indicate therapeutic effect, not toxicity, but more severe changes like extreme ST changes or arrhythmias suggest toxicity. While wide QRS, tall peaked T-waves (hyperkalemia/ischemia), or very short PR/QT (channelopathy) can occur with digitalis, they often point to toxicity or other issues.
Here's a breakdown of likely and possible changes:
Hallmark Digoxin Effects (Therapeutic/Normal Finding):
Downsloping ST Depression: Often described as "scooped out," "sagging," or a "reverse tick" appearance, this is the classic sign of digoxin effect.
Shortened QT Interval: Due to increased vagal tone and direct myocardial effects, the QT interval can shorten.
Mild PR Prolongation: Digoxin slows AV nodal conduction, leading to a slightly longer PR interval.
Flattened or Inverted T Waves: T-waves can become less prominent or inverted, sometimes biphasic (initial negative, terminal positive).
84
Left ventricular enlargement shows:- (a) Prolongation of QT interval (b) Shortening of QT interval (c) Depression of ST segment (d) Prolonged QRS complex
Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) or enlargement is characterized on an ECG by increased QRS voltage, left axis deviation, and typical "strain" patterns, which include (c) Depression of ST segment and T-wave inversion in left-sided leads (I, aVL, V5-6). While QT prolongation can occur, ST depression is a primary diagnostic feature of the LVH "strain" pattern.
Key ECG findings in LVH:
ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion (Strain Pattern): Usually present in lateral leads (V5, V6, I, aVL).
Increased Voltage: (e.g., Sokolow-Lyon index: S in V1 + R in V5/V6 > 35 mm).
Left Axis Deviation: Commonly associated.
QRS Prolongation: May occur due to increased muscle mass.
85
44. Electrocardiogram for detection of cardiac hypertropy in large animals is less reliable because :-
(a) Purkinje fibers penetrate much deep
(b) Large size of animal
(c) Heart is not equidistant from electrodes
(d) variation in position of feet reduces changes in the ECG
a
86
For accurate results of ECG, dog should be placed in :-
right side recumbency
87
In the normal ECG the delay in conduction at AV node is due to :-a) very high electrical activity on body surface (b) No electrical activity on the body surface (c) Electrical activity of low intensity over the body surface (d) None of the above
b
88
The most versatile crystalloid solution in hypovolaemia is
RL
89
to maintain the oxygen carrying capacity of blood, the minimum packed cell volume should be
20%
90
The most common organism isolated from Cat abscesses are
Pasteurella sp
91
The autoclaves in most Veterinary institutions are
gravity displacement
92
Gram negative bacterial infection usually arise from
GIT
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