Weapons Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

What is the capacity of the full size Ammunition Storage Magazine?

A

1110 Rounds (1200 Total)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Internal Auxiliary Fuel System (IAFS) incorporates a 100-gallon fuel tank and an ammunition storage magazine capable of holding approximately _____ rounds and _____ in the AHS allowing for approximately 300 round capability.

A

242, 58.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ammunition can be loaded through the side loader in bulk (individual rounds) or _____ round strips.

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When ammunition is loaded using the sideloader, there is approximately _____ round space between the sideloader and the gun.

A

40 Rounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many rounds and fuel will combo-pack hold?

A

100 gallon
242 rounds
58 rounds in AHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Burst radius of 30mm 789 round?

A

4 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the color of the projectile on the M789 (HEDP) round?

A

Black projectile with Yellow band/Yellow lettering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the fragmentation radius of the M789 (HEDP) round?

A

4 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The M789 (HEDP) can penetrate in excess of 2 inches of RHA at _______ meters

A

2500 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the color of the M788 (TP) round?

A

Blue projectile with White stripe/White lettering and aluminum nosepiece.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the types of 30mm ammunition used for firing?

A

M788 and M789 (ADEN and DEFA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the event of low hydraulic pressure and/or loss of electrical power, the stow spring will position the gun in elevation to _________?

A

+11°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the Azimuth and Elevation limits of the gun turret assembly while on the ground with the GND ORIDE button selected ON?

A

AZ 86° L/R Centerline, EL +9° Within 10° L/R Centerline, +11° From 10° L/R Centerline To 86° L/R, and Depression -6.45°. (-60° in depression off squat switch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If missiles are selected, and the priority missile is on the inboard launcher, the MP limits the gun’s azimuth to _____on that side.

A

52 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If rockets are selected, and the selected rocket type is on the inboard launcher, the MP limits the gun’s azimuth to _____.

A

60 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum effective range of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

1500 to 1700 Meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What component drives the gun bolt assembly to the open-bolt position after firing using dynamic braking?

A

Drive motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum ballistic solution of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

4200 Meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

625 ±25 RPM (rounds per minute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the gun duty cycle of the M230E1 automatic gun?

A

6-50 round bursts, w/ 5 sec between bursts, followed by 10 min cooling period

Can be generalized for burst settings other than 50, fire no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Very effective range of M230E1 30mm?

A

3000m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gun duty cycle

A
  1. 6 x 50 round bursts, with 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 min cool down period
  2. Burst settings other than 50, no more than 300 rounds in 60 seconds before allowing 10-min cool down period
  3. If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 min. and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes having positive gun control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which processor provides constraints processing for weapon performance and safety inhibits?

A

MP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which component in the Area Weapon System performs the functions of turret cueing control and serves as a MUX remote terminal under Mission Processor control?

A

GSC (Gun subsystem controller)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Target State Estimator (TSE) is only active when the _______ is actioned and _______ is the LOS.
Gun, TADS
26
TSE
Target State Estimator -Updates range for 10 seconds from 2nd detent -Target predictor -Laser range validator
27
GSC
Gun Subsystem Controller -Provides power to gun drive - Provides electrical pulses to fire the ammunition
28
S/MC
Sideloader/Magazine Controller -Provides interface link between the: oMP o GSC o Carrier Drive Assembly o Hand Tensioners o Sideloader o Round count o Fault/ error code
29
LMP
Load Maintenance Panel -Edit of gun round counts -Edit of rocket zone inventory -Override of the aircraft squat switch
30
What crewstation has the checkerboard pattern?
Only applies to the crew member that actioned a weapon system
31
You are in the pilot crewstation, and the CPG actions the GUN; what indication will you see in your High Action Display (HAD) and in what status field?
CGUN / Weapon Control
32
Which crewstation can conduct the Gun Dynamic Harmonization?
CPG
33
You are in the CPG crewstation, and you action the GUN; will the checkerboard pattern be applied to the pilot WPN page ARM/SAFE status window?
No
34
The fixed mode places the gun __________ degrees in azimuth and __________ degrees in elevation.
0 degrees in azimuth and 0.87 degrees in elevation
35
If the rounds count in the GUN Icon is incorrect, how do you input the proper rounds count?
Weapon UTIL LOAD Page
36
Where can you confirm your selected sight on the weapon page?
Sight select window
37
What will be displayed in the High Action Display (HAD) weapon inhibit field during Weapons Training Mode (WTM)?
TRAINING
38
When the Weapons Training Mode (WTM) is selected, the armament subsystem will adopt a simulated weapon inventory of _____ rounds for the 30mm.
888
39
Gun dynamic harmonization mode is available to the CPG to improve the accuracy of the 30mm, the CPG places TADS (NFOV) on a target between __________ to __________ meters.
500 to 1500 Meters
40
GUN DH INVALID message appears in status window, do you repeat the process?
Yes
41
What is the last step of a successful gun harmonization?
Enter the Gun Harmonization numbers into the logbook
42
The laser pointer should only be used for target __________ and pointing.
Illuminating
43
To distinguish one laser pointer using HIGH or LOW from another pointer __________ can be selected.
PULSE (4 Hz)
44
When the weapons trigger is activated the laser pointer is deactivated and gunfire could be delayed as much as ______ seconds.
.75 sec
45
The sunburst symbol is displayed to both crewmembers upon activation of the laser pointer. (TRUE/FALSE)
True. It is coincident to actioning crewmember and virtual to opposite crewmember
46
Who can Boresight the Laser Pointer (IZLID)?
CPG using NVG’s
47
When the LASER POINTER BORESIGHT FAIL status appears the crewmember should repeat the boresight steps. (TRUE/FALSE)
TRUE
48
What are the four types of ballistics that affect helicopter fired weapons?
Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal
49
What is turret bending and will the mission processor compensate for this phenomenon?
The airframe and gun-turret experience flexure in response to sustained recoil. Yes, MP compensates. None 1st RND, 2nd RND = 70%, 3rd and subsequent RNDs = 100%.
50
The gunner must compensate for lead angle compensation when using which of the available sights; why?
HMD; because the MP does not provide TSE algorithm when HMD is the sight selected. *TADS as sight, TSE is used for ballistic solution, second detent laser >4sec*
51
The gun is inhibited for __________ after a missile or rocket launch.
2 Seconds
52
What is the weapon inhibit status field message that indicates range or other engagement parameters exceed the ballistics processing capability of the system?
BAL LIMIT (4200 m)
53
How can performance inhibits be overridden?
2nd Detent Weapon trigger
54
SWARM
SIght/sensor select Weapon Pg Range 1.Azimuth 2. Range of source 3. Range to target Messages HAD, Symbology, and EUFD
55
RSAILS
Recorder on Search Acquire Identify TGT LASE or RANGE TGT Store
56
DIDEA
Detect Identify Decide Engage Assess
57
Types of ballistics
Interior Exterior Aerial Terminal
58
What effect does the combination of trajectory shift and projectile drift produce?
Port-Starboard Effect
59
How much compensation is required for projectile jump when firing from a hover?
NONE, except if a relative wind exists.
60
Gun Safety inhibits
Coincidence AZ limit EL limit ALT launch LOS invalid
61
Gun Performance inhibit
BAL limit
62
Generic inhibits
Safe Live ammo Training
63
The pylons are independently controlled through a range of ____ to ____ in elevation.
+4° to -15°
64
The __________ provides the interface between the mission processor and the pylon discrete signals.
Pylon Interface Unit (PIU)
65
The flight mode (+4°) is automatically commanded on takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than __________ seconds.
five
66
The STORES JETTISON panel allows for __________ jettison of wing stores while the emergency JETT button will jettison all stores.
individual
67
The pylons can be placed in the ground stow position from the WPN UTIL page which commands the pylons to ___ degrees.
-5°
68
What is the max ballistic range of a MK66 rocket motor?
7500 meters
69
The ________ processor establishes the aircraft state as SAFE upon aircraft power-up.
Mission Processor (MP)
70
The TOTAL ROCKETS status window is displayed when there is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and ________________.
The number of rockets available of the selected type
71
Due to the possibility of surging of the engines, do not fire rockets from the ______ stations. Fire no more than ______with two outboard launchers every _____seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions.
Inboard, pairs, 3 sec.
72
When the Independent mode is used, only the _______ crewmember’s trigger is active.
Actioning
73
Which firing zones are available when the aircraft has rocket pods installed on the out-board pylons?
A, B, E
74
When the CPG actions rockets from the TEDAC LHG will the pilot see the Rocket Steering Cursor?
Yes
75
The M151 warhead has a bursting radius of __________ meters and a lethality radius of __________ meters.
10 / 50
76
The M261 (MPSM) warhead contains __________ M73 submunitions. This will produce 195 (10 grain) high velocity fragments that travel up to 5000 feet per second and the shaped charge can penetrate more than __________ inches of armor.
9, 4”
77
What is the minimum engagement range for deploying Flechette rockets?
800 meters
78
When the independent mode is used only the __________ crewmember’s trigger is active.
actioning
79
In the cooperative mode the __________ acquires and tracks the target and the __________ aligns the aircraft for launch using the rocket steering cursor.
CPG / PILOT
80
The rockets INVENTORY and QTY selection defaults to the ________ selections during cooperative engagements.
CPG
81
The cooperative mode is active whenever the rocket system is actioned via the __________.
Tactical Electronic Display And Control (TEDAC) Left Handgrip (LHG) and pilot cyclic Weapon Action Switch (WAS)
82
In the cooperative mode, both weapon triggers are active and the __________ LOS and range source are used for the ballistics calculations.
CPG
83
In the TRAIN mode, ______________ is displayed in the HAD in the weapon inhibit field unless a valid weapon inhibit is displayed.
TRAINING
84
The four types of ballistics influencing helicopter fired weapons are __________, __________, __________, __________.
interior / exterior / aerial / terminal
85
_____ _____ describes the characteristics and effects of the projectiles on the target.
Terminal ballistics
85
Thrust misalignment is a characteristic of __________ ballistics.
Interior
86
Interior ballistics deals with characteristics that affect projectile motion inside the _______ or _________.
Gun barrel or rocket tube
87
The pilot may have to pitch the nose of the aircraft up when firing rockets from a hover beyond __________ meters.
4,500
88
The two types of rocket inhibits are __________ and __________.
rocket system safety inhibits / rocket performance inhibits
89
What does an ALT LAUNCH message indicate?
A Hellfire launch is in progress.
90
What message will display when the actioning crewmember’s selected sight is Fire Control Radar (FCR), and there is no Next To Shoot (NTS) target?
LOS INVALID
91
Max ballistic range of rockets?
7500 meters
92
During the burn phase, rockets spins ____
clockwise
93
After the burn phase, rockets spin____
counter-clockwise due to fins
94
Overt rocket color markings
Olive Drab/White markings
95
Covert rocket color markings
Black/white markings
96
M156
White phosphorus
97
Rocket safety Inhibits
Accel limit ALT launch Gun obstruct LOS invalid Pylon error Pylon limit
98
Rocket performance inhibits
Pylon limit
99
Rocket generic inhibits
Safe Training
100
What is the primary difference between the SAL and RF missiles?
SAL tracks Laser energy (passive) and the RF tracks reflected RF energy (active). Guidance Section.
101
When a M36 training missile is detected all live missile on board the aircraft will display _____ in the missile icon.
NA
102
The fuze contains the ARM/SAFE device that arms the missile when its launch acceleration exceeds approximately ____ g’s.
10 g’s.
103
The AGM-114R’s minimum arming distance is ______ meters.
375 meters
104
The AGM-114K2 arms approximately _____ meters from the launching aircraft.
181 meters
105
When the thrust of the missile exceeds ____ to ____ pounds, the missile will launch from the rail
600 to 830 Pounds
106
The AGM-114R missile thrust duration is approximately 2.5 to 3.5 seconds and reaching a maximum velocity of _________.
435 m/s or (845 Knots)
107
Which component of the M299 launcher contains the Training Missile Emulator (TME) which replicates RF missile operation?
Launcher Electronic Assembly
108
Which MPD page allows the aircrew to electronically arm the M299 missile launcher?
WPN UTIL
109
What are the normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are actioned?
+4º to -15º
110
What is the minimum altitude to launch a SAL missile?
32 Feet
111