Written COMP Flashcards

disorders, speech, amp 1 & 2, OAE, pharmacology, peds, counseling, CAPD, aural rehab, vestib 1, implantables, evoked responses, (846 cards)

1
Q

If you are looking at an ABR for retrocochlear and conductive, how do you tell the difference?

A

You can not tell from just the graph, you must do bone conduction or reflexes. If they add bone to the graph and it falls into the gray range, then it would be a conductive hearing loss because of the air-bone gap.

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2
Q

Tell me how latency and amplitude change with intensity (ABR) ?

A

Louder Intensity = higher amplitude & shorter latency
Smaller Intensity = shorter amplitude & longer latency

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3
Q

The latency of wave 5 between ears should differ by no more than?

A

0.2 to 0.4 msec

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4
Q

Why is latency important?

A

it is the most robust parameter in the clinical interpretation of the ABR

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5
Q

The ABR is not sensitive …

A

to all central nervous system disorders, it is only sensitive from the ear to the brainstem

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6
Q

Tell me about an OAE Screening

A
  • typically takes much less time
  • fewer frequencies assessed, usually higher frequencies
  • completed to distinguish those who do not have significant auditory dysfunction from those who need further evaluation
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7
Q

Tell me about an OAE Diagnostic Test

A
  • A component of a comprehensive test battery
  • Requires interpretation from an audiologist
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8
Q

OAE outcomes will always fall within 1 of 3 general categories. What are they?

A
  1. OAE amplitude is normal (relative to normative data) 2. Amplitude is abnormal, but OAEs are present
  2. OAE’s are absent
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9
Q

The most important contributor to OAE production is the motility of the outer hair cells. Please elaborate on this idea, explaining how they produce OAEs (from stimulus delivery to recording).

A

The outer hair cells have electromotility which is their ability to change lengths, aka the “dancing of the outer hair cells.” When the stimulus for an OAE is put into the external auditory canal it then travels through the middle ear then to the cochlea. This sound causes the basilar membrane to move and the outer hair cells to move as well. When the outer hair cells move it allows ions to rush in. Followng this a singal is sent back out of the ear to be collected and recorded by the probe.

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10
Q

True or False: Generally speaking, slight middle ear disorders that may not entirely obscure OAEs affect responses first for the lower frequencies.

A

True

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11
Q

What are 3 non-pathological ear canal factors that can affect OAE measurements?

A
  1. age
  2. gender
  3. noise - standing waves
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12
Q

What role(s) does the external auditory meatus (or canal) play in OAE measurement?

A

Both inward and outward propagation

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13
Q

True or False: In collection of TEOAE responses, the No. Hi. (number of rejected samples) refers to the number of runs that were rejected because the incoming noise peaks exceed the Rejection Level in dB SPL.

A

True

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14
Q

What are the medical red flags that contraindicate the recording of OAE responses?

A
  • Active drainage in the ear canal
  • A history of middle ear dysfunction
  • Active bleeding in the ear canal
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15
Q

True or False: The amplitude of OAE responses are typically larger with greater reproducibility in adults when compared to children and infants.

A

False

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16
Q

In ears with a perforation or PE tube, what OAE results are possible?

A

Present OAE, absent OAE, partial OAE, or reduced amplitude OAE responses may be observed in dry ears with tympanic membrane perforation or ventilation tubes.

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17
Q

What are the two (2) pure tones labeled as in DPOAE parameters?

A

f1 & f2

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18
Q

When recording DPOAEs, we input two pure tones, and receive a third tone which we measure as the response from the cochlea. What do we call that produced, third tone?

A

the distortion product

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19
Q

True or False: The frequency relationship or separation between the two (2) primary tones is critical in DPOAE measurement. A DP will not be recorded if the two (2) tones are too far apart or if they are too close together.

A

True

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20
Q

With regard to f1 and f2, what is the most reliable frequency relationship of these two (2) primary tones? Please provide the number that expresses what that ratio should be.

A

f2/f1 = 1.22

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21
Q

The relative levels (intensity) of the two (2) primary tones (L1 and L2) is another critical stimulus parameter in DPOAE measurement. To obtain results most sensitive to cochlear function, what should L1 and L2 be in intensity?

A

65 and 55 dB SPL

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22
Q

What are the four regions of the auditory system that either contribute to the generation of OAEs, or can influence OAE recording?

A
  • external auditory canal
  • middle ear
  • cochlear
  • efferent auditory system
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23
Q

Why should we NOT use intensity levels in DPOAE testing (L1 and L2) that are over approximately 70-75 dB SPL? For example, if we do use high intensity levels, and we get a response, how does that relate to cochlear function? Active/passive processes should be included in your answer.

A

If you use a intensity level greater than 70 the passive process which is the inner hair cells will respond. If you keep the intensity under 70 it is the outer hair cells also known as the active process responding. An OAE is meant to test the function of the outer hair cells and in order to do that and not be testing the inner you must keep the intensity under 70.

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24
Q

True or False: There is now considerable evidence that noise- or music-induced cochlear damage is detectable with OAEs before it becomes apparent in the audiogram

A

True

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25
What are some of the clinical applications for OAE's in adults?
- monitoring tinnitus and noise or music exposure - differentiation of cochlear vs. retrocochlear site of lesion - assessment in suspected functional hearing loss
26
What is a Gorgagram?
A version of a DP gram with normative values from the 5th percentile to the 95th percentile used to indicate if hearing is normal, abnormal or borderline.
27
What is the optimal dB SPL for the stimulus when recording a TEOAE?
74-83 dB SPL
28
Please look at the click stimuli in the following displays. Which one of these is a good stimulus?
The 1st image is a good stimulus because it has a peak then flattens out.
29
Passive cochlear processing (when a sound is loud enough) can directly stimulate which of the following?
The inner hair cells stimulated through basilar membrane movement
30
True or False: OAEs can help you differentiate between a cochlear hearing loss and a retrocochlear hearing loss.
True
31
The OAE loses energy on the way from the cochlea to the ear canal where it is measured. Which of the following supports this?
As the OAE moves from the cochlea to the ear canal, this reverse transmission is much less effective than forward transmission
32
Please look at the following OAE: a) What type of OAE is this? b) Is this a passing response? c) Why or why not? d) What can you say about hearing levels?
a. TEOAE b & c. Reproducability isnt present at 3000,4000, or 5000 d. cant bc not reproducible
33
What type(s) of hearing loss can be missed if we are using OAEs for newborn hearing screening?
ANSD, mild losses, atypical configurations
34
Describe OAE responses in a person with ANSD
OAE responses in a person with ANSD will be present early on but eventually the compromised blood flow to the lesion will cause a neuropathy making them absent.
35
When we record OAEs in the presence of abnormal negative middle ear pressure, the low frequencies will show decreases in amplitude (when compared to OAEs in an ear without negative middle ear pressure). Please explain to me why the low frequencies are affected most.
When we record OAE's in the presence of abnormal negative ME pressure the lows will decrease because as the sound travels through the ear the TM and middle ear system are stiff. This means that the vibration of the ossicles will slow causing the wave to reach the high frequency areas but not the lows. Thus causing a decrease in the amplitude of low frequencies.
36
True or False: Patients with ANSD have no efferent suppression of TEOAEs with binaural, contralateral or ipsilateral noise.
True
37
True or False: The absence of spontaneous OAEs is consistent with cochlear damage.
False
38
What criteria must be met when determining if a DPOAE is a pass/present? Please describe at least two (2). Include words such as "absolute", "f2", "SNR".
The absolute ampitude must be greater than -10 dB SPL, the SNR must be greater than 6 dB, and there must be reproducability. If all of these are present it means the patient has normal or near normal cochlear function.
39
If you plot the amplitudes of a DP response on a Gorgagram, and they fall in the "N" (Normal) area, what can you say about hearing levels?
- Hearing is better than or equal to approximately 15-20 dB HL - Cochlear outer hair cell function is normal or near normal
40
The HEAR Report is an acronym to guide you when writing a report. What does H.E.A.R. stand for?
- H: history, relevent information - E: evaluation, what tests you did - A: audiologic results, what are the results of the test you ran - R: recommendations, who are you sending it to and what do you want them to do with this info.
41
True or False: OAEs have been shown to decrease simultaneously with high frequency audiometry (HFA)
True
42
True or False: OAE amplitude often has considerable intersubject and inter-patient variability, even among persons with similar pure-tone audiometric findings.
True
43
Normal OAEs may be recorded in patients with abnormal audiograms, including patients with?
VIIIth nerve (neural) auditory dysfunction & functional, non-organic, psychogenic hearing loss
44
Abnormal OAE findings may be recorded in a variety of patients with normal audiograms yet some cochlear dysfunction, including patients with?
hazardous noise/music exposure & ototoxicity
45
How do ototoxic drugs damage the inner ear? There are 4 mechanisms we discussed.
- ishchemia due to compromised blood flow - toxicty - platinum or other metals - formation of free radicals and metabolic stress - mechanical damage
46
True or False: The CPT codes 92587 and 92588 are used to either bill a "limited" (3-6 frequencies) or a "comprehensive" (>/= 12 frequencies). Both are listed as requiring interpretation and report. There is a third CPT code, 92558, which is used for a "screening" and gives an automated analysis (Pass/Fail) and does not require interpretation and report.
True
47
List 3 functions of the efferent auditory system
- protect from loud sounds - hearing speech in noise - auditory attention
48
The American Academy of Audiology Position Statement and Clinical Practice Guidelines for Ototoxicity Monitoring recommends what assessment/monitoring of patients receiving ototoxic medications?
- Pure tone audiometry in conventional test frequencies - High frequency audiometry - Otoacoustic Emissions
49
True or False: Most ototoxic drugs first damage the basal end of the cochlea and the OHCs (the high frequencies) and this is why DPOAEs are the preferred type of OAE (can evaluate higher frequencies).
True
50
True or False: The ability to suppress OAEs is an indicator of a normal phenomenon and a normally functioning efferent, or descending, auditory system.
True
51
True or False: Standing waves are a potential problem when recording OAEs, but the only way to completely eliminate them is to place the probe at the tympanic membrane, which is typically not clinically feasible.
True
52
True or False: It is important to use normative data that was collected from the device being used for testing when interpreting OAE test results.
True
53
For the table below, assume each test is evaluating for the same condition. According to the information in the table, which test is the most sensitive measure?
According to this table Test A is the most sensitive because the d' is higher. d' is less sensitive when it is lower and more sensitive when it is higher.
54
Explain how the TEN test is able to identify a cochlear dead region.
The TEN test is able to identify a cochlear dead region by using calibrated masking to tell us if the response is coming from the actual place (on frequency) or not (off frequency). The noise played will mask any of the off frequency lsitening so the tone must be louder than the noise. Off frequency means the tone is detected away from the region of peak BM vibration meaning the tone is detected by the IHC at the edge of the dead region. On frequency means the frequency presented is the place on the BM that is actaully responding.
55
What is categorical perception?
perceiving either one phoneme or another when VOT is gradually increased or decreased?
56
What is segmentation of speech into meaningful units?
the ability to identify words in a stream of speech (if one is familiar with the language)
57
What is perceptual learning?
the ability to understand a speaker with a previously unheard foreign accent especially with repeated exposure to that accent
58
what is bottom up processing?
All information necessary to recognize sounds is contained in the acoustic signal and analyzed in the auditory pathway
59
What is perceptual grouping of speech sounds?
stream of acoustic information is interpreted as speech and not just random sounds
60
what are the parts of cognition?
- understanding information - mental activities or processes - storing and retrieving information (memory and recall
61
what is top down processing?
- Higher level cognitive operations are involved in identifying and analyzing speech sounds - Prior knowledge and expectations are involved in speech perception
62
Provide a short definition for each of the cognitive abilities below: - Attention - Processing Speed - Inhibition - Short-term memory - Working memory - Executive function (as commonly applied in cognitive hearing science) - Semantic knowledge
- Attention; the ability to tend to a desired targetfor , example listening in noise - Processing Speed ; amount of time it takes to process a stimulus, reaction time - Inhibition ; ability to inhibit extranous info when repsoning to a target stimulus, example is the stroop test - Short term memory ; memory stores for a short period of time, example seeing how many numbers you can remember correctly in a row - Working memory ; memory stored for a long period of time, that you can use to help you understand - Executive funciton ; control of cognitive processes, example trail making (following a path of #'s in order) - Semantic Knowlede ; accumulated through lived experiences, example naming things by looking at pictures
63
what cognitive ability is: sorting pictures into categories?
semantic knowledge
64
what cognitive ability is: the stroop task?
inhibition
65
what cognitive ability is: measuring the number of words that can be recalled while also identifying if the word is a noun or a verb?
working memory
66
what cognitive ability is: measuring the numbers of letters that can be recalled accurately and in order?
short-term memory
67
what cognitive ability is: the trail-making task?
executive function
68
what cognitive ability is: the reaction time task?
processing speed
69
what cognitive ability is: the task is to respond to all the black letters; participant sees images containing letters and numbers. The task is to press the space bar whenever they see a letter.
attention
70
True or false: Cognitive decline is a separate consideration from normal variation in cognitive abilities
true
71
List three ways a speech signal could be distorted or difficult to understand prior to reaching a listener's auditory system.
- environmental noise - accent - predictability - if you know the person and how they speak
72
Explain the predictive and postdictive role of working memory in speech/language processing.
The predicative role in working memory helps us when we are talking to people we are familiar with. The postdicative role in working memory is more challenging and comes into play when we are talking to unfamiliar speakers or people with accents. If i meet someone from a place where the dialect is different I will struggle more to figure out what they are saying if I miss something. This is because I dont know them well and am unable to predict how they speak. The postdicative role helps me piece together my prior knowledge from past experiences and context to figure out what they were saying.
73
As used in the Ease of Language Understanding model, how do implicit and explicit processing differ?
We use implicit processing to look for matches in our long term memory, if there is a match we will have automatic understanding, if there is not a match we will struggle to undersand unless there is context. Then we use explicit processing to pull information to understand. Implicit processing is automatic, example the speaker is familiar and therefore we can predict their speech. Explicit takes effort, it can be an unfamiliar speaker and we will have to use our working memory.
74
For a dual-task paradigm, the primary task must always be a speech task (if measuring listening effort). What can be used as a secondary task when measuring listening effort?
- recall task - tracking task - reaction time task - attention task
75
What are the three categories of measuring listening effort?
Physiologic - pupil response during listening Self reporting - answering questions Behavioral measures - 2 tasks performed individually then simultaneously, listening effort performance will decrease simulateously
76
What is the TEN noise designed to do?
mask an off-frequency response
77
What is the advantage of using d’ as a measure of test sensitivity?
d-prime is independent of pass-fail criteria
78
Which value of d' (d-prime) indicates a more sensitive test, a higher value or a lower value?
higher value
79
Consider the wave forms below. The top panel shows a speech sample in quiet. The lower panel shows speech in noise with a 0 dB SNR. Explain why a listener with threshold independent deficits associated with cochlear synaptopathy (one type of "hidden hearing loss") would be able to understand the speech in quiet with high levels of accuracy but would have difficulty with the speech in noise.
With hidden hearing loss/cochlear synaptopathy hearing in noise if affected and the fibers repsonsible for higher level inputs. The listener would be able to hear in quiet situations because they are able to to get soft input for the brain to process. They would struggle in noise because in noise you are no longer able to hear those soft sounds so the brain can not process them.
80
Describe two-tone suppression and distortion products. How are these affected by cochlear outer hair cell loss? How does this affect speech processing?
Two-tone suppression is when one tone is supressed when a second tone is present. It affects vowel perception and you lose the peaks meaning everything becomes a flat line. Distortion products is a 3rd tone is added when 2 tones are present together. These are caused by loss in the OHC and it affects speech because the OHC are our amplifiers so when these are lost if causes problems with our hearing. A person with this kind of damage will struggle with hearing speech in noise.
81
what is energetic masking?
- masker evokes stronger neural excitation than target speech - takes place in the peripheral auditory system
82
what is informational masking?
- linguistic content interferes with speech perception - takes place at the auditory processing or cognitive level
83
what is affected in "hidden hearing loss" also referred to as cochlear synaptopathy.
- affects speech in noise processing - pure tone thresholds are unaffected - speech in quiet is not significantly impacted - affects the ability to process complex auditory information at suprathreshold levels
84
Tell me about the predictive role of working memory in speech processing (what kind of processing)
- implicit process - fast - component of RAMBPHO (initial processor of multimodal sensory information) - part of implicit processing
85
Tell me about the postdictive role of working memory in speech processing
- explicit process - thought to be in play after a mismatch has already occurred - slow, deliberate
86
Which of the following regarding epidemiology and population demographics of dizziness / balance disorders is FALSE? - Dizziness is one of the most common complaints in outpatient clinics - Dizziness is the #1 complaint to medical providers for individuals over 70 years of age - The number of older individuals (those over 65 years of age) is expected to decrease by 2030 driving healthcare costs down - Falls are one of the leading causes of brain injury (TBI) and fractures - 50% of individuals over age 70 will experience BPPV at some point
The number of older individuals (those over 65 years of age) is expected to decrease by 2030 driving healthcare costs down
87
Balance depends upon sensory information gathered from what 3 systems?
vision, somatosensory, vestibular
88
When discussing vestibular anatomy, "peripheral" refers to which of the following?
Labyrinth & 8th nerve up to the point it enters the brainstem
89
When discussing vestibular anatomy, "central" refers to which of the following?
Brainstem to cortex
90
True of False? "Vision denied" refers to eyes closed (ENG) or eyes covered (VNG) or the scenario where the patient is without a visible target?
True
91
What are the two sensory structures within the peripheral vestibluar system and what type of stimuli does each respond to?
The two sensory structures in the peripheral vestibular system are the crista ampullaris and the maculae. The crista ampularis is responsive to angular (rotational) movement and the maculae is responsive to linear (translational) movement and to gravity.
92
Match the correct structure below with the corresponding letter.
A- Common Crus of SCC B- Scarpas Ganglion C- Superior Vestibular Nerve Branch D- Inferior Vestibular Nerve Branch E- Posterior/Inferior SCC F- Saccule G- Utricle H- Horizontal/Lateral SCC I- Ampulla J- Anterior/Superior SCC
93
True or False? The semicircular canals are located within the membranous labyrinth, contain periplymph and are surrounded on the outside by endolymph and the bony labyrinth?
False
94
The semicircular canals work as complimentary pairs during head/body rotation. What are the pairs?
Left anterior SCC & Right Posterior SCC Left Horizontal SCC & Right Horizontal SCC Left Posterior SCC & Right Anterior SCC
95
For the horizontal SCCs, endolymph movement toward the ampulla (i.e., ampullopetal) results in an __________ response, whereas endolymph movement away from the ampulla (i.e., ampullofugal) results in an __________ response.
excitatory, inhibitory
96
For the anterior and posterior SCCs, endolymph movement toward the ampulla (i.e., ampullopetal) results in an __________ response, whereas endolymph movement away from the ampulla (i.e., ampullofugal) results in an __________ response.
inhibitory, excitatory
97
What are the 3 vestibular reflexes?
Vestibuloocular Reflex (VOR) - produced equal and oppsite reactions to the direction of the head movement. The purpose it to stabalize gaze during head and body movement. Vestibulocollic Reflex (VCR) - works with the muscles in the neck to stabalize the head Vestibulospinal Reflex (VSR) - maintains posture
98
If an individual was reporting oscillopsia, which vestibular reflex would you expect to be impaired?
VOR
99
What are the 3 cranial nerves involved in eye movement?
Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV) and Abducens (VI)
100
Describe this nystagmus type.
Jerk Nystagmus
101
Describe this nystagmus type.
Pendular Nystagmus
102
Describe this nystagmus type. Which eye is being displayed?
Left-Beating & Left eye
103
Is this nystagmus occurring in a vision allowed (goggles open) or vision denied (goggles closed) condition?
Vision Denied
104
What is the phenomena denoted by the red arrows in the recording?
Eye blink artifact
105
How fast do you need to move the head during headshake or head impluse testing to ensure that you are testing only the peripheral system (VOR) and not the central system?
2Hz (120 bpm) or faster
106
What is the difference between a active and passive head rotation test?
For active head rotation the pateitn is directed to move their oown head and for passsive the examiner or moter driven chair moves the head
107
Tell me about the video head impulse test (vHIT)
- it can be performed in all planes to evaluate all SSC's - the test is based upon the Halmagyi head thrust screening - Head acceleration must be rapid (>200 deg/sec)
108
What are the two parameters we evaluate when interpreting vHIT results and give a brief description of each? Be sure to include both types of saccade abnormalities also in your description (that is, which can we see with the naked eye and which required high speed video)?
gain: eye movement (VOR) relative to head movement re-fixation saccades: saccades which occur in response to those with abnormal VOR. Types are covert and overt.covert = saccades that occur during the head movement, difficult to impossible to see with the naked eye. overt = saccades that occur after the head movement, can be seen with the naked eye.
109
The image shows vHIT data from a patient who had a severe onset of vertigo several momths prior with symptoms now mostly resolved. what is your interpretation of the data?
normal gain without re-fixation saccades for rightward impulses, reduced gain with both covert and overt re-fixation saccades for leftward impulses
110
What are the advantages and disadvantages to performing vHIT versus traditional caloric testing?
Advantages: faster, more tolerable to patient, provides high frequency information (more natural), can be used on kids, can be used on people with ear pathology, can test all canals and bbith vestibular nerves, & gives us information about central compensation phase Disadvantages: can miss milder hearing loss, may not be sensitive to certain pathologies such as meniere's disease, most systems are monocular (single eye), technique can be challenging, & currently no CPT code for 3rd party reimbursement
111
what does H.I.N.T.S. stand for and briefly what is it being reported to be useful for?
Head Impulse Nystagmus Test of Skew Used to diagnose stroke from vestibulopathy in acute settings such as the ER, is more sensitive to and less costly than MRI for ear (<24 hours) stroke
112
True or False: Currently there is no CPT code approved for use with vHIT testing?
true
113
What are the 3 rotational chair tests that we discussed?
1. Sinusoidal Harmonic Accelerations (SHA) 2. Impulse Accelerations (Step Velocities) 3. Visual Fixation (VFx) / Visual Enhancement (VVOR)
114
why would you perform rotational chair testing on a patient?
- to confirm of rule out bilateral vestibular hypofunction/loss - to evaluate central compensation - to evaluate rehab potential - serial monitoring for vestibulotoxicity - to gain more information regarding central vestibulopathy - to be used when calorics can not be performed such as in young children, handicapped, and atresia
115
True or false: a rightward (clockwise) rotation will generate a left-beating nystagmus and a leftward (counterclockwise) rotation will generate a right-beating nystagmus
false
116
what are the limitations of rotational chair testing?
- only tests VOR at low to mid frequencies with standard paradigms - only tells us about function of HSCC and SVN branch - cant be performed on some patients (clausetrophobic or greater than 300 lbs) - can miss mild to moderate unilateral HL - takes up a lot of space - costly and not readily available
117
Vestibular abnormalities can occur following head injury/mTBI often mimicking post-concussive symptoms and confounding diagnosis and treatment. What condition is most likely to occur following a head injury?
Post-traumatic BPPV
118
true or false: when analyzing nystagmis, we "describe" nystagmis based upon the direction of the slow phase (peripheral componenet) but "measure" nystagmus based upon the direction of the fast-phase (central component)
false
119
true or false: for paretic lesions nystagmus typically beats away from the affected ear and for irritative lesions (like meniere's) nystagmus often beats toward the affected ear
true
120
what is BPPV? describe the 2 variants?
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo Otoconia become dislodged from the utricle and end up in the SCC's. Movement of the head causes otoconia to shift and stimulates the vestibular system causing false sense of vertigo. Canalithiasis = otoconia freely moving in the endolymph Cupulothiasis = otoconia in contact with the cupula
121
in order for static positional nystagmus to be considered "abnormal" it has to meet specific criteria, what are the criteria?
- nystagmus is present in ALL positions - nystagmus changes direction in any single head position - nystagmus is equal or greater than 6 deg/sec in any head position - nystagmus is persistant in atleast 3 head positions
122
What is the proper way to bill a VNG exam using correct CPT codes? Assume you completed a full VNG exam with 4 caloric irrigations.
CPT 92540 (basic vestibular evaluation) & CPT 92537 (caloric irrigation bilateral bi-thermal)
123
What is denoted by the red arrows (blue lines) in the caloric pod images? What do they tell us?
The red arrows (blue lines) represent where the caloric values were measured (the maximum SPV of the response). It is significant because you want to be certain that you measure at the peak of the response which they did properly in these examples
124
true or false: water caloric irrigations have greater variability and are more prone to operator error than air caloric irrigations?
false
125
list 2 reasons why you might perform ice water caloric irrigations
- may be used when traditional bi-thermal irrigations are very low or to help confirm diagnosis of bilateral loss - may be useful for confirmation of successful abalative procedures such as gentamycin injections or vestibular nerve section - may be useful when there is a strong pre-existing spontaneous nystagmus (reversing the bias in the system) - may be useful to determine if there is any residual vestibular function in the system (even minimal) which may help determine further course of treatment either surgically or rehab
126
The image below shows nystagmus recorded during caloric stimulation. What is your interpretation of this image.
Left beating nystagmus that is suppressed with visual fixation (normal)
127
true or false: hyperactive caloric responses are uncommon and when they do occur are more likely to be attributable to technical error (such as incorrect temperature irrigation) or due to abnormal middle ear space. CNS pathology is rare
true
128
true or false: caloric reversal is the phenomena where oblique or vertical nystagmus is recorded with caloric irrigation
false - caloric perversion
129
true or false: a unilateral caloric weakness (UW) helps to pinpoint the EXACT site of lesion within the system?
false
130
true or false: the CNS exerts control over the vestibular end organ/nuclei and should therefore be able to attenuate any caloric induced nystagmus when the eyes are open and gaze is fixed on a target. We call this metric fixation suppression or fixation index
true
131
what is the caloric position?
supine head elevated 30 deg
132
why do we place patients in the "caloric position?"
the caloric position (supine head elevated 30 degrees) brings the horizontal SCC into an orthogonal relationship with the gravity vector thereby ensuring maximum amount of stimulation during irrigation. perpendicular to the floor for max stimulation.
133
what are the BSA recommended temperatues and irrigation time for AIR caloric irrigations. Warm air _____ degrees. Cold air ______ degrees. Irrigate for _____ seconds.
warm air = 50 degrees cold air = 24 degrees irrigate for = 60 sec.
134
what are the BSA recommended temperatues and irrigation time for WATER caloric irrigations. Warm water _____ degrees. Cold water ______ degrees. Irrigate for _____ seconds.
warm air = 44 degrees cold air = 30 degrees irrigate for = 30 sec.
135
what does COWS stand for? what does it mean?
COWS = Cold Opposite Warm Same a cold irrigation will produce a nystagmus that beats in the opposite direction of the ear being stimulated and warm irrigation will produce a nystagmus that beats in the same direction of the ear being stimulated. this has to do with the direction of endolymph flow (ampullopetal=less density = excitatory flow) (ampullofugal = more dense = inhibitory flow). the stimulus doesnt transfer to the other side of the head. it only tells you direction of the nystagmus based upon endolymph movement toward or away from ampullla (occurs on same side as irrigation).
136
Below are results of caloric testing on a patient. Use Jongkee's formula to calculate unuilateral weakness. Is there a unilateral weakness and if so, what percentage and what side is affected? RW= 30 deg/sec LW= 15 deg/sec RC= 20 deg/sec LC= 10 deg/sec
(RW+RC) - (LW+LC) divded by (RW+RC+LW+LC) times 100 yes there is a left unilateral weakness of 33% which is abnormal
137
Below are results of caloric testing on a patient. Calculate the total eye speed for this individual. Is this normal or abnormal? RW= 5 deg/sec LW= 4 deg/sec RC= 2 deg/sec LC= 2 deg/sec
Total eye speed = RW+RC+LW+LC = 13 deg/sec this is low overall caloric repsonse (total SPV <26 deg/sec) concerning for bilateral vestibular hypofunciton or loss. I would recommend rotary chair or vHIT to conform results.
138
true or false: caloric inversion is defined as having an entire caloric response that beats in the opposite direction of what is expected (for example, a right warm irrigation yielding a left-beating nystagmus and a right cool irrigation yielding a right-beating nystagmus).
true
139
what are some limitations of caloric testing?
- only tests VOR at very low frequency and non-natural head movement (0.002-0.004 Hz) - only tells us about function of HSCC function and superior vestibular nerve function with no information from other canals or otolithic organs - variable and slightly uncomfortable for patients - cant be performed / evaluated on some patients such as young kids, those with microtia/anotia, surgical ears (perforation, PE tube, otorhhea) - can infer but not definite for bilateral vestibular loss (BVL) diagnosis
140
a patient has a VNG exam performed at your office which was normal. the following week he has an MRI study that shows a small vestibular schwannoma arising from his left inferior vestibular nerve. how is this possible?
VNG testing only addresses horizontal SCC function and superior vestibular nerve branch function it is therefore possible to have lesions in other parts of the labyrinth that will not show up on VNG (otolithic or IVN branch dysfunction).
141
for the horizontal SCC's, endolymph movement toward the ampulla (ampullopetal) results in an ________ response, wheras endolymph movement away from the ampulla (ampullofugal) results in an ________ response. for the anterior and posterior SCC's, endolymph movement toward the ampulla (ampullopetal) results in an ________ response, endolymph movement away from the ampulla (ampullofugal) results in an ________ response.
excitation inhibition inhibition excitation
142
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
treacher-collins syndrome or mandibulofacial dystosis - 40% of cases are autosomal dominant - 100% pentrances - 60% of cases are new mutations (majority are deletions or nonsense mutations) - abnormal facial structures from first pharyngeal arch syndrome - hypoplasia of zygomatic bones and mandible - coloboma of iris - larger fish like mouth - intelligence is typically normal - atresia - complete absence of ME implant - mild to moderate conductive HL
143
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
branchio-oto-renal (BOR) - autosomal dominant - affects structures developing from branchial arches - renal abnormalities including polycystic kidneys - oligohydraminos (too little amniotic fluid during pregnancy) - HL can be conductive, SNHL, or mixed - brachial fistulas on the lower 1/3 of the neck - stenosis - can be delayed onset, rarely progressive - unilateral or bilateral pre-auricular pits
144
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
oculo-auricular-vertebral (OAV) - multifactoral inheritance - may not be inherited but cases appear in clusters within a family - facial asymetry - cardiac and vertebral anomalies - deafness/blindess can be unilateral/bilateral - internal organs can be unilateral absent or underdeveloped - conductive HL is common, SNHL is rare - craniofacial structures developing from 1st and 2nd branch arches
145
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
CHARGE - Coloboma of the eye - Heart defects - Atresia of nasal choanae - Retarded growth and/or development - Ear anomalies and/or deafness (SNHL & progressive) also infertile, intellectual disabiltiy, and renal issues
146
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
ushers syndrome - autosomal recessive - mild to severe SNHL - progressive blindness (retinitis pigmentosa which typically develops in the 2nd decade) - difficulty seeing at night, tunnel vision, then blindness - Type 1: severe to profound SNHL, traditional amplification is ineffective, abnormal vestibular function, delayed motor milestones, gait ataxia - Type 2: mild to severe SNHL, hearing aids are effective, normal vestibular function - Type 3: (rare) progressive HL and vestibular function, possible founders effect in Ashkenazi jews and finnish
147
what is charot-marie-tooth syndrome?
- autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked - neurological disorder (affects motor & sensory) - absent limb reflexes - muscle wasting below the elbows and thighs - 100% penetrance - age of onset 12-20 (not life-threatening) - slow SNHL progression from childhood (looks like ANSD)
148
what is ANSD?
- autosomal recessive - etiology is genetic or environmental (meaning infectious disorder due to viral involvement like mumps & measles) - present OAE's - present cochlear microphinic - abnormal/absent reflexes - severe impairment of speech perception especially in noise due to disruption of synchonrous CN8 firing
149
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
jervell & lange-neilsen syndrome (JLNS) - autosomal recessive - long QT syndrome - potassium channel causes congenital deafness and long QT - can have syncope, seizures, and sudden death, require a cardiologist to monitor them - genetic counseling is super important - avoid elevated heart rate
150
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
friedrich's ataxia - autosomal recessive - neurodegenerative - manifests before adolescence - hypoactive knee reflex, incoordination, nystagmus, dysarthria, absent babinski reflex, scoliosis, and large heart
151
what syndrome is this? give me the transmission and facts about this syndrome
waardenburg's - autosomal dominant - deficit of neural crest cells - 4 types , type 4 is very rare - different colored eyes - white strip of hair
152
what is otosclerosis?
- autosomal dominant - incomplete pentrance - more commonly a complex genetic disorder (many genes, hormones, the environment) - more common in white females - worse after pregnancy
153
how is nystagmus described?
described by the fast phase and meausred by the magnitude of the slow phase
154
what is the equation for unilateral weakness?
(RW+RC) - (LW+LC) ÷ (RW+RC+LW+LC) x 100
155
what is the equation for directional preponderance?
(RW+LC) - (LW+RC) ÷ (RW+RC+LW+LC) x 100
156
what do these head impulse results tell us?
normal - everything is in the white which is normal - no refixation saccades
157
what do these head impulse results tell us?
left unilateral vestibular loss - the left side has low gain, putting it in the gray area which indicates abnormal - the left also has covert (during head movement) and overt (after head movement) refixation saccades
158
what do these head impulse results tell us?
The left side superior vestibular nerve is affected - the left is low so are the left anterior canal (LA) in the second row, telling us the superior vestibular nerve is affected because that nerve is connected to the anterior canals - the left also has covert (during head movement) and overt (after head movement) refixation saccades
159
what are the vestibular nerve and canal connections?
SVN: lateral and anterior canals IVN: posterior canals
160
what do these head impulse results tell us?
bilateral loss vestibular loss - left and right are in the gray - covert and overt saccades in both ears
161
what do these head impulse results tell us?
the right inferior vestibular nerve is affected - Right posterior canal (RP) is affected which is linked to the inferior vestibular nerve - covert and overt saccades in the right ear
162
what is sound localization?
difficulty in spatial awareness, following multi-speaker conversations and maintaining attention in a classroom
163
what is temporal processing?
deficits can lead to problems with auditory discrimination or resolution, difficulty with reading, spelling, and writing
164
what is auditory figure ground?
deficits lead to difficulty understanding speech in noisy environments leading to challenges in classroom discussions or group learning
165
what is auditory closure?
deficits may affect understanding in noise affecting language learning, and academic success
166
what is auditory analysis?
challenges with decoding, crucial for reading and spelling, reading difficulties
167
what is frequency resolution?
deficits may affect phonemic processing, suprasegmental cuesand therefore language learning
168
who is eligible for a diagnostic CAPD evaluation? - age (how young can we test and why) - hearing loss - cognitive issues - ADHD - speech and language issues - autism - other confounding factors such as executive function, developmental delays, behavioral problems, etc
age : 7+ hearing : normal and no ME dysfunction cognition : intelligence should not be a factor (meaning it needs to be ruled out) ADHD : must be ruled out S/L : minimum language should be at least 6 years or within a year of chronological age autism : must be ruled out
169
which diagnostic criteria for CAPD do we use? MUST KNOW
intermediate criteria
170
what is lax criteria? MUST KNOW
Abnormal performance on a single test (> 2 SD below mean) better sensitivity and poor specificity A more lenient approach, where failing just one test is enough to receive a CAPD diagnosis
171
what is intermediate criteria? MUST KNOW
Abnormal performance on at least 2 tests (> 2 SD below mean) Abnormal performance on at least 1 test (> 3 SD below mean) Most reliable criteria
172
what is strict criteria? MUST KNOW
Abnormal performance on all tests (> 2 SD below mean) better specificity and poor sensitivity Patients must fail every test they take in order to receive a diagnosis.
173
what are the causes and outcomes of concussions? how do concussions effect the auditory system?
Caused by a bump, blow, or jolt to the head or by a hit to the body that causes the head and brain to move rapidly back and fort outcomes: short term (headache, nausea, dizziness, cognitive changes, emotional changes) and long term (depression, anxiety, Chronic traumatic encephalopathy, sleep distrubances) Concussions can impair listening abilities and processing auditory information Tinnitus An inability to ignore distracting sounds Inability to remember and follow oral directions Difficulty understanding speech in noisy environments
174
what is chronic traumatic encephalopahty (CTE)? what causes it? what is the clinical presentation?
beleived to be caused by an accural of concussive events over time. rare neurodegenerative injury the symptoms of which do not manifest until years after the repeated head injuries. leads to mood disorders, short term memory loss, depression, cognitive decline, and dementia
175
what is central deafness? causes? site of lesion? signs and symptoms?
type of CAPD where person cannot hear or recognize sounds and may appear deaf despite normal or near normal peripheral function acquired disorder causes: TBI, tumors, anoxia, infections, degenerative diseases, cerebral strokes SOL: bilateral A1, thalamic relay, bs s/s: cannot perceive speech and/or environmental sounds, able to speak read and write, normal OAEs and ABR
176
what is the age for the SCAN-3C?
5-13 except for gap detection thats 8-13
177
what are the differential diagnoses for central deafness with justifications?
NOHL - Inconsistency between pure tone thresholds and speech audiometry CAPD - may have issues with difficulty understanding speech but can detect sounds Dementia - PTs may not hear or respond to sound due to cognitive decline and not auditory deficits tumors - can directly affect central auditory structures causing symptoms mimicing central deafness but the symptoms are usually asymmetric, gradual, progressive and involve other neurological signs (vision, cognition, etc.)
178
what is the age for ACPT?
6-12
179
what is the age for PSI?
3-6 format 1 = 3-4 format 2 = 5-6
180
what is the age for PPST?
7+
181
what is the age for GIN?
7+
182
what is the age for DPT?
9+
183
what is the age for SSI?
8+
184
what is the age for dichotic digits?
5+
185
what is the age for LiSN-S?
6-30
186
what is the age for MLD?
5+
187
what is the age for RGDT?
5-12
188
what is the age for SSW?
5-70
189
what are the CAPD differential diagnoses
central deafness, ANSD, ADHD, DLD, dyslexia
190
what is the ease of language understanding model?
descibes the relatonships between the listeners cognitive resources, stimulus factors, and listeners knowledge of language and experience
191
what is bottom up processing?
procssing beginning with raw sensory input from the environment and builds to a perceptual experiences detect the physical stimulus, travels to the brain to be analyzed step by step doesn't require prior knowledge or context and the perception is built from the sensory information alone processes what you are actually hearing
192
what is top down processing?
processing influenced by prior knowledge, experience, expectations and context brain uses what it already knows to interpret the incoming stimuli to fill in gaps, make predictions and guide attentino to relevant cues predicts/fills in what you expect to hear
193
what is the active model of speech perception?
stresses link between speech perception and speech production assumes the listener is actively involved in interpreting speech by using: Cognitive resources (e.g., attention, working memory) Linguistic knowledge (e.g., syntax, semantics, phonology Contextual cues (e.g., the topic or speaker) uses top down processing
194
what is the passive model of speech perception?
speech perception is almost entirely sensory little to no use of cognitive resources suggests that speech perception is mostly automatic and stimulus-driven, relying primarily on the acoustic signal without significant cognitive or linguistic effort bottom up processing
195
what is implicit processing?
automatic, bottom up processing, low awareness, fast, ex: instantly recognize familiar voice
196
what is explicit processing?
deliberate/intentinoal, top down processing, conscious awareness, high cognitive effort, slower ex: actively trying to understand someone in a noisy room
197
what is the predictive vs. postdictive role of working memory?
predictive roles you predict based on the knowledge of sound, the context, the speaker etc. implicit process predictive role of WM helps the brain anticipate upcoming information based on: Context Past experiences Syntax and semantics Conversational cues Postdictive roles you figure out what it was after and you use the context you heard to figure out the missing piece postdictive role of WM allows the brain to hold onto recent input and re-evaluate or reinterpret it in light of new information explicit process
198
how does hearing loss affect speech perception?
reduced audibility, distorts the signal, Difficulty processing rapid changes in speech, Reduced ability to track pitch, intonation, or timing, The auditory system struggles with figure-ground separation (identifying speech from competing noise), increased cognitive load
199
why do we assess speech in noise?
- most common complaint and probably the reason they are in your office - gives us a more accurate understanding of how they do in real life - makes them feel like you care about their problem and are taking the time to test it
200
what information does speechreading give us? how does it contribute to the bimodal perception of speech?
Place of articulation Prosody and rhythm Emotional and pragmatic cues Some phoneme visibility (but not all) Speechreading can compensate for reduced auditory clarity, especially in high-frequency hearing loss Visual cues fill in the blanks when auditory input is missing, unclear, or masked Helps reduce listening effort and supports language development, especially in people with hearing loss
201
how is working memory involved in processing speech in simple vs. complex environments?
simple: Low cognitive load: Auditory input is clear and easy to decode, Relies more on automatic, implicit processing, Less demand for active attention or complex manipulation complex: High cognitive load: Signal is unclear or masked by noise, Involves explicit, effortful processing requiring attention and executive control, actively engages WM
202
what is the difference between listening effort and listening fatigue?
specific form of mental effort that occurs when a task involves listening
203
what is our role as a professional vs. when we would refer out to a counselor?
if they are having problems not related to their hearing loss/balance problems then refer out. ex: a divorce
204
what is psychosocial adaptation? what are some of the stages?
denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, guilt, etc. not linear you can bounce back and forth on how you feel
205
what multicultural considerations should be used when counseling?
cultural awareness & humility communication styles language barriers health beliefs and practices attitudes toward disabilty and stigmas family involvemnet
206
what is motivational interviewing?
client-centered counseling approach designed to help people resolve ambivalence and strengthen their motivation to change behavior
207
when would we use scale questions with patients?
To measure severity or intensity of symptoms (e.g., “On a scale from 0 to 10, how loud is your tinnitus right now?”) To gauge difficulty or effort (e.g., “How much effort does it take to understand speech in noise?”) To assess motivation or confidence (e.g., “On a scale of 1 to 10, how ready do you feel to use your hearing aids consistently?”) To evaluate emotional reactions like frustration or anxiety.
208
what does resisting the righting reflex mean?
resist correcting your patients
209
Carbon mic function: describe the process of converting an acoustic signal to an analog electric signal.
Carbon microphones collected acoustic signal & converted it into an analog (identical) electric signal, the receiver then converts the analog electrical signal back to an acoustic signal Process: sound wave comes into the mic, hits the diaphragm and compresses it when the diaphragm is moved in the carbon balls are pushed together creating a positive voltage flow and when it is moved out it decompresses it the compression and decompression of the carbon creates the + and - electrical current so that it matches the acoustic sign wave analog - same shape of the signal that comes out of the mic is the exact same as the signal that came in to the mic
210
What was the name of the first hearing aid that contained an amplifier to increase the amplitude of the analog electric signal?
Vacuum tube hearing aid Vactuphone?
211
Differentiate high vs. low viscosity impression material and describe clinical applications for each.
high viscosity - thick, provides resistance during flow, stretches the aperture of the ear canal low viscosity - runny, flows easily with resistance, does not stretch the canal, more suitable for devices requiring deep insertion
212
Explain why it is important to stretch the aperture.
in order to get a well-fitted earmold if we do not do this we get an uncomfortable earmold because the skin rubs against the plastic
213
List case history questions to ask prior to every EMI and explain the clinical relevance of each question.
Immunocompromised? Diabetes? Are you on blood thinner? History of ear surgery? Allergies?
214
Describe impression precautions to consider based on case history, anatomy and otoscopic findings.
must remove excessive cerumen, can not do with active infection, collapsing canal may limit depth, may have to trim hair, malformation requires special precautions, perf/PE tubes
215
List the benefits associated with earmold canal that extends 2 mm beyond 2nd bend.
better HF gain & output deeper canal fit gets the sound closer to the eardrum reducing resonant losses and improved HF sounds reduced feedback allows for more gain with less acoustic leakage more retention & secure fit engages the bony portion of the canal reducing the likelihood it slips out reduced occlusion effect When the canal portion extends into the bony portion of the canal, movement-related vibrations (like chewing or talking) are less likely to cause the occlusion effect
216
What is the clinical purpose of using an open-jaw impression technique.
it increases the size of the aperture in order to get a snugger fit of the earmold
217
How does hearing loss impact audibilty?
Audibility softer phonemes are more difficult Dynamic range Range from threshold to uncomfortable listening level or the range between the softest audible sound and the loudest tolerable sound Individuals with threshold loss perceive sound shifting from too soft to too loud more rapidly Frequency resolution: Auditory systems ability to detect discrete frequencies in the cochlea Sharp peak supplies the frequency resolution needed for speech intelligibility in noise and with HL, the tuning curves become broad (no longer stimulate one frequency on bm, they stim a couple frequencies) leading to upward spread of masking temporal resolution: AS ability to detect small time related changes in acoustic stimuli over time gap detection: important to separate sounds in individual words, sentences etc and without it words form together Phonemic duration: Similar words are distinguished from one another by minute differences in duration and order temporal ordering: Time related aspects of acoustic signal suprasegmentals: Provides us with meaning (is it a question, a demand, etc.) spatial awareness
218
How does hearing loss impact dynamic range?
Range from threshold to uncomfortable listening level or the range between the softest audible sound and the loudest tolerable sound with sensory loss, OHC damage results in loss of amplification of soft signals while IHC continue to detect louder signals Individuals with threshold loss perceive sound shifting from too soft to too loud more rapidly *complaint = increased sensitivity to loud signals
219
How does hearing loss impact frequency resolution? Explain why changes to frequency resolution impact speech intelligibilty in noise.
Auditory systems ability to detect discrete frequencies in the cochlea Sharp peak supplies the frequency resolution needed for speech intelligibility in noise with HL, the tuning curves become broad (no longer stimulate one frequency on bm, they stim a couple frequencies) the primary signal is no longer enhanced making it difficult to differentiate the desired signal from the undesired signal leads to upward spread of masking (Intense low frequencies mask weaker higher frequencies)
220
How does hearing loss impact temporal resolution? Explain why changes to temporal resolution impact speech intelligibilty in general.
AS ability to detect small time related changes in acoustic stimuli over time gap detection: important to separate sounds in individual words, sentences etc and without it words form together Phonemic duration: Similar words are distinguished from one another by minute differences in duration and order temporal ordering: can we retain order the sounds come in to as or do they get mixed up/smeared suprasegmentals: Provides us with meaning (is it a question, a demand, etc.)
221
How does hearing loss impact spatial awareness?
ability to determine the direction of a sound source Localization relies on subtle differences in: Interaural Time Differences (ITD): Timing differences between ears Interaural Level Differences (ILD): Loudness differences between ears Hearing loss, especially asymmetric or bilateral, disrupts these cues
222
What is ILD reliance of high frequency signals vs. low frequency signals?
difference in the volume between the ears reliance of high frequency signals (>3 kHz) to identify ear to ear head shadow level differences Impact of head shadow on HF signals High-frequency waves have short wavelengths, which the head effectively block Low-frequency waves have long wavelengths that easily diffract (bend) around the head
223
What is the impact of the head shadow affect on HF signals?
The head acts as a physical barrier that blocks or attenuates sounds traveling to the far ear creating differences in sound intensity bw ears High-frequency sounds have short wavelengths (shorter than the size of the head) These short wavelengths do not bend (diffract) well around the head, so the head blocks much of the sound energy therefore the ear farther from the source receives an attenuated signal
224
How does lack of HF audibilty impact binaural loudness summartion and binaural squelch/suppresion?
Binaural Loudness Summation: When the same sound is heard in both ears, the perceived loudness is greater than hearing it in just one ear (about 3-6 dB louder) Reduced audibility of HF sounds means less spectral information available in both ears making the sound to seem less loud binaural squelch/suppression: The brain uses differences in timing and level between ears to separate speech from background noise, improving speech understanding in noise. with lack of HF information it is harder for the as to distinguish speech from noise leading to poorer speech in noise understanding
225
What is ITD relaiance on low frequency signals vs high frequency singals?
amount of time between sound arriving to one ear compared to the other ear reliance on low frequency signals The impact of monaural spatial cues (HRTF) has on spatial awareness Sounds from one side reach the near ear slightly earlier than the far ear Low-frequency sounds have long wavelengths (longer than the head diameter)
226
What is the impact of monaural spatial cues (HRTF) has on spatial awareness?
describes how an incoming sound is filtered by the shape of the head, outer ear (pinna), and torso before reaching the eardrum Binaural cues (ILDs, ITDs) mainly help with horizontal (left-right) localization. Monaural spectral cues from the pinna (HRTF) provide information about whether a sound is coming from above, below, or level with the ears The frequency shaping by the pinna helps distinguish sounds coming from in front vs. behind Some aspects of HRTF contribute to perceiving how far away a sound source is crucial for vertical localization and front-back sound discrimination, helping create a full 3D auditory spatial awareness beyond left-right cues.
227
Explain the six benefits associated with the use of bilateral amplification. Recognize how each benefit supports improved speech intelligibility in quiet or in noise.
Access to binaural cues (ILD, ITD & HRTF) these are essential for localizing sound sources and separating speech from background noise Binaural loudness summation Results in PT perceiving greater loudness w/ bilateral devices Less gain is needed to reach comfortable listening levels improved localization Bilateral input improves the ability to determine the direction and distance of sound sources Binaural squelch (binaural release of masking) improved intelligibility in noise & ability to focus on 1 signal while ignoring others by taking advantage of these differing SNRs Minimizes risk of “unaided ear effect” Bilateral amplification helps preserve auditory processing abilities in both ears, reducing the risk of long-term decline in the unaided ear Suppresses bilateral tinnitus Amplification in both ears can provide masking and distraction from tinnitus, especially when speech and environmental sounds are audible in both ears.
228
Explain the term binaural interference, its cause, its prevalence and the population it impacts
occurs when using both ears together leads to worse auditory performance (like speech understanding or sound localization) than using the better ear alone Progressive age-related atrophy of the corpus callosum reduces speech intelligibility with binaural inpu Reported in 5-10% of older PTs with bilateral amp
229
Acoustic benefits associated with CIC and IIC microphones and receiver depth
The microphone is located deep in the canal, past the concha bowl and near the ear canal entrance to preserve the natural pinna and concha effects reduced sound energy loss because it is closer to the ™ reduces OE effect being past the cartilaginous portion greater gain before feedback loops
230
Clinical use of CROS vs. BiCROS vs. AmpCROS and how each style impacts localization ability
CROS Contralateral routing of sound Single sided deafness - one ear is normal and poorer ear is unaidable no localization BiCROS Bilateral contralateral routing of sound Bilateral asymmetric HL - one ear has threshold loss & poorer ear is unaidable no localization AmpCROS For asymmetric HL bad ear is not good for hearing aids (poor discrimination etc.) but not unaidable fits two HA’s on the PT’s ear but in the two is a transmitter so you amplify both ears but then also routing the poor ear over to the other ear for extra boost of understanding May support some aspects of binaural hearing if auditory input is well-matched
231
Acoustic benefits associated when sound bores and receivers are placed close to the TM
Better delivery of high-frequency speech cues, like /s/ and /ʃ/, important for speech clarity. Improves speech understanding, especially in noise he closer the receiver is to the TM, the less influence the ear canal has on shaping the frequency response Less sound energy is lost to the ear canal wall or dissipated along a long sound tube Deep placement increases the physical distance between the receiver and microphone (especially in custom devices) improving feedback stability Deep fittings can go beyond the bony-cartilaginous junction of the ear cana to reduce the OE
232
Meaning and clinical usefulness of ingress rating
indicates the degree of protection a device has against: Solids (like dust) Liquids (like water, sweat, humidity) important when selecting hearing aids for patients based on their lifestyle, occupation, or environment
233
Clinical use/limitations of each earmold material
vinyl: use with high gain devices, infants, firm ear textures; adv: snug fit, easy to modify; disadv: shrinks quickly, needs annual replacement acrylic/lucite: use with adults, floppy or soft pinnas; adv: durable, easy to modify, easy to insert/remove; potential for injury, will not easily fit narrow/tortuous bends, increased risk of feedback w/ head movement silicone: use with high gain aids, allergies, or facial flex problems; adv: snug fit, little shrinkage, lower allergy reactions; disadv: hard to modify, tubing cannot be glued
234
Retention benefit associated with each custom mold style.
full shell: max retention and acoustic seal skeleton: max retention and acoustic seal canal mold: need 2mm past bend for retention; low acoustic seal canal lock: some retention half shell: improved retention
235
LF and HF output limitations of open, closed and power domes. (vent chart)
50-60 dB at 500: .5 to no vent 40-49dB at 500: 1-2mm 30-39dB at 500: 2-3mm or power 20-29dB at 500: 2-3.5 mm or closed
236
What is the purpose of venting?
to allow air and low-frequency sounds to pass between the ear canal and the outside environment. allows low-frequency sound (like the user's own voice) to escape, making speech sound more natural reduces the occlusion effect ( "boomy" or echoey sound people hear when talking or chewing while wearing a tightly sealed earmold) preserves residual hearing
237
What is the primary frequency range effected by vent effect?
below 500 and up to around 1000Hz
238
Clinical selection of vent size based on 500 Hz threshold
this is because the 500 Hz threshold is most affected by venting
239
How standing waves within a vent impact the output signal
impacts low to mids occurs when sound waves reflect and interfere within the vent tube causes constructive or destructive interference, leading to peaks and dips in the frequency response of the hearing aid
240
Impact of vent size on high frequency output
Vent size doesn’t directly reduce high-frequency output, but indirect factors like feedback management and reduced acoustic seal can limit how much high-frequency amplification is usable or effective
241
Describe solutions for occlusion effect complaints.
Vent size & stabalizing the device in the bony canal are two management techniques to reduce OE Move past cartilage to bony portion stopping vibrations & vent allows more energy to flow through
242
What is a sound bore?
hollow tube or channel inside an earmold or hearing aid shell through which the amplified sound travels from the hearing aid receiver into the ear canal
243
Impact of standing wave resonances in earhooks, and sound bores on the output signal
Earhooks Usually in the 1000–4000 Hz range, depending on length and diameter Peaks and dips in mid-to-high frequencies, causing uneven sound quality and possible distortion or feedback sound bore Often affects 2000–6000 Hz frequencies Can cause sharp boosts or cancellations in high frequencies, impacting clarity and comfort
244
Understand how a tube's internal diameter alters the frequency response curve. Specifically, the difference b/w standard tubes and thin tubes
Thin Tubes greater HF rolloff because of increased acoustic impedance and greater viscous and thermal losses narrower diameter raises the resonant frequency of the tube, boosting narrower and HF band ideal for open-fit fittings where amplified low-frequency sound is not needed, but less effective for patients needing high-frequency amplification and for mild losses Standard tubes wider diameter supports broader resonance peaks and lower frequencies Better high-frequency transmission
245
Describe the benefits associated with thick-walled tubing.
dampen internal vibrations and external sound transmission helps prevent feedback (whistling), especially in high-gain fittings Reduces standing wave resonances within the tubing
246
Names and describe uses of each specialty tube.
Tube lock Used w/ silicone molds Designed with brass grommet for increased friction fit into the mold tube retention system Designed to allow for a friction fit into earmold that is less damaging on removal Libby Horn as amp signal goes thru tube to horn you get a boost of amp in the high frequencies increase output of highs by about 6dB Continuous flow adapter (CFA) Used for small canals that cannot accommodate standard tube sizes Maintains internal diameter of sound bore bw a BTE & ear mold providing a continuous inner diameter & unimpeded flow of amplified sound Dry Tube Helps reduce moisture buildup problems in tubing white coating inside the tube roughens it up so moisture cannot collect
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Describe the impact of hardening tubes on frequency response output signal.
Length shrinks Displaces mold causing increased feedback Irritation on pinna Hardens HF gain reduces as inner diameter shrinks
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Name of bonding agent appropriate for each earmold material
Lucite/Acrylic Thin cement Heavy cement Vinyl Vinyl cement Super glue Only if ABSOLUTELY needed to hold the tube in place Difficult to remove
249
What is the purpose of damping?
Acoustic resistor Physical barrier to reduce sound Smooths the resonances in the final frequency response Does so by attenuating sounds slightly to smooth the peaks
250
Be prepared to explain the function of a Microphone o How does it collect compression (+) and rarefaction (-) soundwaves and then convert them to an analog electrical wave.
Sound waves enter the microphone, and consists of alternating areas of compression (+) and rarefaction (-) the pressure changes vibrate a thin diaphragm in the mic diaphragm moves inward during compression and outward during rarefaction backplate is attached to the diaphragm as the diaphragm moves the distance between the backplate and it changes altering the area causing electrical voltage that is analogous to the acoustic signal
251
What is the piezoelectric effect and what were the limitations of microphones that used this principle.
twisting, compressing or distorting a thin electrified crystal creates a +/- electrical voltage required to make an analog electrical signal *same mic, have salt crystal to replace carbon balls *this mic was short because it was affected by humidity and temps >110 deg
252
Describe the differences between an electret microphone and a MEMS Microphone. What are the benefits and limitations?
ECM benefit Still has a backplate & diaphragm but now backplate is coated to hold an electric charge for as long as it is in good condition no longer required to drain a battery to electrify the plate meaning HA’s battery lasted longer and didn’t need to charge the mic Stability: years of humidity, moisture, dirt, debris etc. degrades the mic & reduces sensitivity of the mic Diaphragm can absorb moisture causing sensitivity fluctuations Thick & heavy so it doesn’t move well and collect sounds as well Backplate loses charge at high temps (110) Environmental conditions break down the glue of diaphragm MEMS benefit: Diaphragm is now free-floating silicone disk and a pre-charged backplate that has a charge pump that automatically recharges the electrical field to maintain mic sensitivity Stability: more stable Silicone doesn't absorb moisture Has decreased battery drain in the device due to space being smaller bw diaphragm and backplate Stability remains even under harsh environment conditions due to the charge pump (-40 to 185 deg F)
253
What input range can a microphone collect?
Analog mic = 115 dB SPL (can collect input signals up to this before input distortion Digital mic = ONLY 96 dB SPL (anything > results in input distortion)
254
Define internal microphone noise How much internal noise is acceptable?
~ 25 dB SPL Anything that causes diaphragm to move will transduce into an electrical signal Acoustic - gasses & air flowing around us goes into sound port and moves the diaphragm Electrical - comes from circuits in HA that are after the mic in ha
255
Define front end-distortion in a digital device. What causes it? Can it be managed in modern hearing aids?
Front end distortion occurs when sounds picked up by the mic exceeds its dynamic range cause: overloading the mic results in distortion management: yes, WDR, AGC, dual mics
256
What are directional microphones?
directional mics: type of microphone that is more sensitive to sound from certain directions (usually the front) and less sensitive to sound from others
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How do directional mics function to create a polar plot null?
Mic focuses sound collection towards one azimuth while attenuating sensitivity from others uses two or more microphone ports separated by a small distance. These microphones capture sound from the environment with a slight timing and amplitude difference, depending on the direction the sound comes from When sound comes from the rear (or other unwanted direction), it hits the two mic ports at different times When combined, sounds from certain directions (like the rear) become out of phase and cancel each other out—creating a null in sensitivity in that direction Null: refers to the point of maximum attenuation Where mic stops collecting the sound Directional response happens when signals of two omnidirectional mics are combined HA has front and back mics As sound comes in it arrives to one mic at a different time than the other mic The delay aligns the signals adding them together to reduce level of sounds from behind Adaptive directional mics adjust the delay to steer the null or a shift in position of level reducing directional null
258
Be prepared to calculate and understand the meaning of signal to noise ratio (SNR).
If Signal was 76 and noise 74 what is SNR? 2 dB Real world snr is 2-3 because of head shadow and polar plots +10 = Speech is 10 louder than the noise -10 = speech is softer by 10 than the noise
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What SNR-50 is associated with normal hearing sensitivity
correctly understanding 50% of the speech material in background noise +2 to +3 dB SNR
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Directivity index measures directional mic SNR improvements of up to +6 dB in acoustic chambers. How much SNR improvement can be expected in the real world?
Real world snr is 2-3 because of head shadow and polar plots
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What are the limitations of directional microphones?
Directional roll off- cause and clinical solutions cause: phase cancellation reduces HF sounds solution: boost HF gain, adaptive mics, FL Importance of parallel mic port placement cause: mic ports are not parallel when worn solution: adjust placement, earmold fit and user counseling Microphone drift cause: mic degradation over time solution: test mics regularly and clean/replace when needed
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Directional roll off- cause and clinical solutions
Directional mics tend to attenuate high-frequency sounds more than omnidirectional mics
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Importance of parallel mic port placement
The two mic ports must be perfectly parallel and level with the ground when worn, or the directional pattern will be distorted
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What is microphone drift?
Over time, microphone sensitivity can change, especially if one mic degrades faster than the other. This is known as mic drift and it alters directional performance Moisture, debris, or aging components can cause mic mismatc
265
How does a telecoil use the induction principle to collect a signal and convert it to an analog electrical signal?
Telecoil uses this principle to transduce an electromagnetic signal to an analog electrical signal Mic is turned off (NO ACOUSTIC SIGNAL) Induction principle: takes electromagnetic signals and transduces it into an electrical sine wave Electromagnetic signals move a magnet with a copper coil This movement bw copper coil & magnet turns electromagnetic signals to a +/-analog electrical signal without adding an additional power source
266
Define amplifier
an electronic component that increases the strength (amplitude) of an electrical signal without altering its original content
267
Define compressor
automatically adjusts gain to keep sounds within the listener’s usable hearing range it amplifies soft sounds more and loud sounds less.
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What is AGC-o- output limiting compression (OLC)? What is the purpose? What are the compression rations and TK?
Purpose: prevent loud sounds from exceeding uncomfortable or damaging output levels at the hearing aid receiver Protects the listener’s residual hearing and prevents distortion caused by overloading CR: Very high compression ratio, often 10:1 or higher; >/= 5:1 Compression activates only for very loud inputs TK Set at a high input level, typically near the maximum comfortable loudness level (e.g., ~85-90 dB SPL or higher) Limitations Peak clipping is a simpler form of limiting that abruptly cuts off output peaks, causing distortion and unpleasant sound quality Improves: OLC smoothly compresses peaks rather than abruptly clipping them This reduces distortion, preserves sound quality, and improves comfort
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What are the limitations associated with peak clipping; how does OLC improve these limitations?
Limitations Peak clipping is a simpler form of limiting that abruptly cuts off output peaks, causing distortion and unpleasant sound quality Improves: OLC smoothly compresses peaks rather than abruptly clipping them This reduces distortion, preserves sound quality, and improves comfort
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What is AGC-i- WDRC? What is the purpose? What is the associated compression ratio and TK?
Purpose: To restore loudness perception by compressing the wide dynamic range of environmental sounds into the reduced dynamic range of the hearing-impaired listener Improves audibility of soft sounds while keeping loud sounds comfortable CR Moderate ratios, typically 1.1:1 to 4:1 lower than output limiting TK set at lower input level between 20-50 dB SPL
271
Explain how WDRC helps to restore loudness growth function of the hearing-impaired patient
Restore Soft sounds get more amplification (higher gain) to be audible Loud sounds get less amplification to avoid discomfort This mimics the natural loudness growth curve in normal hearing, soft sounds become audible, and loud sounds don’t become uncomfortably loud
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What is Expansion? What is the purpose? What are the associated compression ratios?
Purpose: To reduce the gain for very soft sounds near or below the hearing aid’s noise floor Helps improve signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) by making the hearing aid less sensitive to low-level ambient noise CR: Really low CR (lower than linear; <.9:1)
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Impact adjustments to TK have on output signal and its practical applications
lowering the TK to a softer input intensity will not change the output of the louder input signals raising the TK to a loader input signal decreases the output of signals below the TK lowering the TK to a softer input intensity increases the output of signals below the TK Practically, shift TK down if a PT needs more clarity of soft consonant sounds & shift TK up to reduce audibility of soft low frequency background noise
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How output signal is impacted by fast/slow attack and release time
Attack time= time it takes for level detector to identify input is loud enough to turn on and compress the signal Faster AT (<10ms) = Rapidly compresses sudden loud sounds (e.g., a door slam). Limitations: May make sound seem unnaturally squashed if too fast, Can degrade speech envelope cues (e.g., soft consonants following loud vowels) Slow AT (>30ms) = speech signals. May let brief loud sounds through, Preserving natural sound. Limitations: Risk of output overshoot, especially with sudden loud inputs, Might be uncomfortable or even unsafe for sensitive users. Release Time = How quickly the hearing aid restores gain after a loud sound ends Fast RT (<100ms)Quickly restores gain for soft sounds after loud ones, Improves speech audibility in fluctuating noise. Limitations: can cause noticeable fluctuations in background noise Slow RT = Comfort in steady or quiet environments fluctuations less noticeable. Limitations: May miss soft sounds immediately after a loud sound, making speech less audible in fluctuating environments
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Explain the difference b/w frequency shaping bands vs. compression shaping channels
Frequency Shaping Bands (ROWS) Frequency range is defined by the frequencies included in range based on dynamic range of loss Changing frequency band doesn’t change CR Gain for all input signals increase equally Compression shaping channels These are adjusted to shape compression characteristics into individuals dynamic range to restore normal loudness growth use these channels to squeeze gain for soft & loud into the persons dynamic range
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Define curvilinear compression
a type of nonlinear compression in which the compression ratio continuously changes as input levels increase, rather than remaining fixed Allows more natural loudness growth and better sound quality compared to abrupt changes in gain
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What is the purpose of ADC?
transforms continuous analog sound signals (like your voice or environmental sounds) into digital signals (binary code) that can be processed by a digital hearing aid electricle signal is sent through here and it samples the analog signal at regular intervals and quantifies it into a series of digital numbers. The digital signal represents the original waveform as discrete points, capturing the amplitude and frequency of the sound wave
278
Define sampling and Nyquist frequency
sampling= process of measuring an analog sound wave at regular time intervals to convert it into a digital signal Nyquist frequency = half the sampling rate, represents the highest frequency that can be accurately captured (without distortion) during sampling Nyquist Frequency = ½ × Sampling Rate
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Limitations of 16-bit processing, added distortion during conversion
16 bit HA can only collect up to 96 dB dynamic range of the mic
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Define quantization relationship to bit size and what happens when there is quantization error
Quantization is the process of rounding each sampled analog signal to the nearest digital value during analog-to-digital (A/D) conversion Relationship Higher bit depth = more amplitude steps = finer detail and less rounding error Lower bit depth = fewer steps = greater quantization error Quantization Error difference between the actual analog value and the digitized value after rounding introduces distortion, often heard as background hiss or graininess
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What is DAC? What is the primary function? What does it do?
Digital to Analog Conversion translates the digital signal into an analog waveform, which is then amplified and sent to a speaker or other output device
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What is DSP?
process of manipulating sound signals in a digital format using mathematical algorithms Microphone captures analog sound. ADC (Analog-to-Digital Converter) converts it to digital. DSP algorithms: Clean up background noise Amplify speech Apply compression for comfort Reduce feedback Manage directionality DAC (Digital-to-Analog Converter) converts it back to analog. Receiver delivers sound to the ear
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Function/clinical purpose of automatic switching mics
automatically senses if it is noisy or not & decides if omni or directionality is needed Function Omnidirectional mode: Mic picks up sound equally from all directions (best for quiet or one-on-one conversations) Directional mode: Focuses mic sensitivity toward the front and reduces input from sides/rear (best for noisy environments) improves speech understanding, best for those who cannot manually change programs, pediatrics, reduces listening effort
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Function/clinical purpose of adaptive directional mics (Broadband and multiband)
Adaptive: null repositions itself (steer) to the loudest signal behind the person Uses all the polar plots automatically adjust the directionality of the microphone based on the location of noise sources enhance sounds from the front (like a conversation partner) while reducing unwanted noise from other directions Broadband Adaptive Directional Microphones Treat the entire frequency range as one unit when adjusting directionality Microphone sensitivity pattern based on where the strongest noise is detected, across the full bandwidth Multiband Adaptive Directional Microphones Divide incoming sound into multiple frequency bands and apply adaptive directionality independently within each band Directional patterns for each band based on the location of noise in that frequency range
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Function/clinical purpose of automatic switching mics
Clinical purpose Improve speech intelligibility in noisy environments without sacrificing environmental awareness Helps patients focus on a talker in front of them (e.g., at a restaurant) while reducing distracting background sounds
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Function/clinical purpose of beamforming mics. Differentiate its function from a standard directional mic.
Directional mic focuses in on a very narrow field (25-30 deg) Good for talking with one person at a time and block out as much sound as possible use multiple microphones (often two or more) to create a highly focused "beam" of sensitivity toward a specific sound source typically the front of the listener Standard directional mics reduce sound from specific directions based on fixed or slowly adaptive patterns Beamforming mics create a precise, steerable beam that dynamically focuses on the speech target, offering greater noise suppression and clarity in complex environments
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Practical programming decisions related to adaptive vs. fixed directional microphones.
Fixed environments with relatively stable noise sources improves SNR when noise is predictable older adults & those less tech-savvy Adaptive Dynamic/noisy environments where noise sources move or multiple noise sources exist Maximize speech understanding by dynamically adjusting to noise changes younger, more active patients or those who frequently report difficulty in complex noise environments
288
Differentiate modulation rate and depth for speech and noise. what do both of these look like for speech and noise?
Modulation rate How fast the amplitude (loudness) of a sound changes over time Speed of the signal Speech = slow rate Noise = fast rate Modulation depth Amplitude variations bw loudest and softest portions of the signal Intensity of the variations Speech = highly variable Noise = steady over time fast modulation rate & depth is stable over time = noise
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How is poor SNR determined in a hearing aid?
determined by DSP algorithms that estimate and compare the levels of speech and noise in real-time, using acoustic, spectral, temporal, and spatial cues When the noise level is close to or greater than the speech level, the SNR is considered poor, triggering adaptive noise management strategies
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Digital noise reduction: describe the attenuated signal
Acts on any signal that is steady over a long period of time Steady state noise Idling engine, hair dryer, vacuum etc. Only acts on fast mod rates & low mod depths Attenuated signal: noise components that have been dynamically turned down to enhance speech understanding and listening comfort
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Describe the benefits and limitations of digital noise reduction
Limitation doesn’t improve speech intelligibility Benefits Can improve listening comfort, reduce listening effort, reduce cognitive load
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Methods of sound cleaning technology used in the spectral domain - The theory and limitations associated with low frequency output reduction
cutting LF noise improves speech clarity by focusing on mid/high frequencies critical for speech Hearing aids analyze the frequency content of incoming sounds to control amplification The theory behind reducing low-frequency output is based on the idea that: Most noise energy tends to be concentrated in the low frequencies (below about 1.5 kHz). Speech understanding mainly depends on mid- and high-frequency sounds. So, by attenuating (reducing) low-frequency amplification, the hearing aid aims to reduce noise and improve speech intelligibility in noisy environments.
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Digital feedback suppression - Understand both non-digital and digital methods for reducing feedback
Non-Digital (Mechanical/Physical) Methods to Reduce Feedback Reduce external feedback loop Improving mold snugness - makes the fit tighter, reducing the size of gaps (“slit leaks”) where sound can escape and re-enter the mic Decreasing vent size - smaller vents reduce the path for sound to leak back from the receiver to the microphone Digital Feedback Suppression Methods Digital Notch Filtering hearing aid identifies the feedback frequency (usually between 2–4 kHz) and applies a narrow notch filter to reduce gain specifically in that frequency range prevents amplification at the problematic feedback frequency, stopping feedback from occurring limitations Since 2–4 kHz is critical for speech intelligibility (about 35% of speech cues come from this range), applying a notch filter reduces audibility of important speech sounds reduction in speech clarity & intelligibility Digital Feedback Cancellation (Adaptive Feedback Suppression) monitors for steady-state tonal noises in the 2-4 kHz range (feedback) and when detected the algorithm creates a phase-inverted “clone” (a duplicate signal 180° out of phase with the feedback) This inverted signal is combined with the original amplified output, canceling out the feedback sound by destructive interference
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Digital wind noise reduction function
Wind can increase output by 20-25 dB and perceived as fluctuating, distracting noose reduces speech intelligibility How it works Wind noise is mostly concentrated in low frequencies (~300 Hz) Hearing aids detect wind by identifying uncorrelated low-frequency signals between microphones Once wind is detected, the hearing aid applies low-frequency filtering to reduce amplification in the affected range where wind noise energy is highest Microphone Signal Exchange (Cross-Streaming) Wind turbulence typically affects only one microphone diaphragm at a time (e.g., the microphone facing the wind) Hearing aids use wireless communication between the two hearing aids The cleaner audio signal from the least affected microphone is streamed to the hearing aid on the wind-affected side This signal is overlaid or replaces the noisy low-frequency content, effectively masking or cancelling the wind noise The directional microphones switch to an omnidirectional mode in the low-frequency channels because wind noise interferes mainly with directional mic performance helps stabilize the signal and reduce distortion caused by turbulence
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Frequency lowering: types, uses, limitations
Linear Frequency Transposition (LFT) Moves a band of HF sounds down by one octave to the LF region (cut & paste) and mixes it with existing LF sounds Useful for steep HF loss, shifts critical HF speech sounds down to audible range. Can cause spectral overlap, distortion by mixing transposed with original LF, some listeners dislike the altered sound quality Nonlinear Frequency Compression (NLFC) Compresses the HF region into a smaller LF band; maintains relative frequency spacing (squishes HF sounds into lower frequencies while preserving tonotopic order) More natural sound quality, better preservation of frequency relationships Some distortion possible, adaptation needed, complex fitting to avoid artifacts Spectral Envelope Warping (SEW) Keeps HF sounds in original place but also copies and lowers a portion of HF into LF region (simultaneous presence in both areas) Provides access to HF info while preserving some natural HF cues Can be confusing perceptually, may increase processing load and battery use
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Uses and benefits associated with wireless binaural processing technology - Explain how wireless binaural processing restores ILDs when WDRC is in use?
enables adaptive programming where the devices share information about the acoustic environment and coordinate digital feature settings Benefits Adaptive Acoustic Scene Analysis and Feature Control hearing aids detect the type of environment Wind Noise Management The hearing aid with clearer input shares its signal to the affected side, improving signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) and reducing perception of wind noise Dual Phone Streaming one hearing aid receives the audio and streams it wirelessly to the opposite ear Volume changes or program switches made on one hearing aid are automatically mirrored in the other Wide Dynamic Range Compression (WDRC) Coordination One ear may signal the other to reduce gain changes This preserves ILDs and improves spatial hearing, especially in noisy environments By sharing data, the hearing aids maintain natural loudness differences between ears This supports localization and helps in better separating speech from noise As it arrives to second ear it is lower and wdr adds more gain on that same side so the ILD are gone so you cannot hear well in noise so binaural wireless the one ha tells that ha to not add as much wdrc One ear will tell the other ear to not add as much wdrc so it doesn’t lose ILD when WDRC works independently in each hearing aid, it can cancel out ILDs: Example: A sound on the left is louder in the left ear and softer in the right If the right hearing aid adds more gain (because the sound is softer there), both ears now hear it at the same loudness, and the listener loses the ILD cue Result: Poor localization and more difficulty in noisy environments
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Receiver and soundbore impact on final output frequency response
low-output receiver + long/narrow bore = HF roll-off, leading to muffled sound powerful receiver + wide/short bore + horn = brighter, crisper sound, especially in HFs Mismatch between the two may result in poor sound quality, unmet gain targets, or increased risk of feedback
298
Describe how a receiver works
After the hearing aid microphone picks up sound and the processor amplifies and modifies it, an electrical signal is sent to the receiver Inside the receiver is a coil of wire and a small diaphragm The electrical signal passes through the coil, creating a magnetic field The magnetic field causes a tiny armature or diaphragm to move or vibrate The diaphragm's vibration matches the waveform of the amplified electrical signal As the diaphragm moves, it pushes and pulls air, creating sound waves These sound waves are then directed through the soundbore into the ear canal
299
How receiver size impacts HF output. Why does this impact occur?
Receiver sizes determine the final HF output Smaller contemporary receivers are capable of highr frequency responses As high as 10-12 kHz Large receivers (for severe losses) limit output bandwidth (frequency response) HF are lost due to increase armature flexibility Solution: two receiver system (dual receivers?) Output from both receivers added together when it reaches the ™ One is for LF One is for HF Benefit: Extended HF bandwidth in moderately high output receiver without compromising the LF Reduced battery drain Reduces saturation distortion potential
300
Receiver limitations: saturation and shock damage, moisture, and debris
Receiver Saturation This happens when the receiver output is reached resulting in peak clipping or the receiver having a higher voltage and battery drain HA output range has been exceeded leading to distortion due to peak clipping Shock damage Caused by a dislodged receiver where the vibration goes back into the mic adding extra frequencies to the input signal leading to distortion cerumen/moisture/debris **break because of moisture, debris, oil, gets into it and clogs it up Can block the receiver diaphragm and cause reduced output of the receiver
301
Define and explain the practical use of OSPL90/MPO
Loudest possible output point device can produce for a 90 dB input signal & represents a single frequency measures the maximum output a hearing aid can deliver when presented with a pure tone at 90 dB SPL, with gain control full-on and no volume limiting determine the maximum output level a hearing aid can produce Ensures the device doesn’t exceed safe loudness levels that could cause discomfort or damage to the user’s residual hearing
302
Define and explain the practical use of HF-Average SSPL 90
Calculates the average OSPL 90 output for 1, 1.6 and 2.5 kHz Gives a generalized view of how loud the hearing aid gets in the speech frequency range Helpful for comparing models or settings without analyzing every individual frequency
303
Define and explain the practical use of Total harmonic distortion
Measures signal distortion Determines if output signal contains harmonic frequencies that were not present in the input signal Should be below 5-10% High DL are indicators the device is close to failing (most likely the receiver) & needs sent in for a repair
304
What is TMFS and what is the purpose in telecoil measurements? Be prepared to interpret test findings
Electromagnetic test signal that is emitted from TMFS Simulates the magnetic field generated by a telephone handset
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What is SLIV and what is the purpose in telecoil measurements? Be prepared to interpret test findings
SPL in a vertical magnetic field Looped environment Measures the output of the telecoil when exposed to vertical magnetic fields, which simulate telephone placement output of telecoil
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What is SPLITS and what is the purpose in telecoil measurements? Be prepared to interpret test findings
Measures the output (SPL) of the hearing aid when receiving a signal via telecoil through a magnetic field from the TMFS SPLITS - measured output response of the HA w/ electromagnetic signal in the horizontal field Signal starts at telecoil, goes through all the other circuits until it gets to receiver and output going out of it is the SPLITS
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What is RSET and what is the purpose in telecoil measurements? Be prepared to interpret test findings
standardized setting for programming the hearing aid during telecoil testing calculates the difference between the mic output and the telecoil output (SPLITS) + RSETS = telecoil output it louder than the mic output PT will turn HA down when telecoil is on - RSETS = telecoil ouput is softer than the mic output PT will turn HA up when telecoil is on
308
Recall the meaning of the WHO descriptors: functional limitations, activity limitation, participation limitations
Functional limitation: structure and body function (actual diagnosis) Ex: cochlear hair cell loss at the base like severe HF SNHL, stiffening of stapes footplate in oval window (OTSC), & dislodging of otoconia causing BPPV Activity limitations: restrictions experienced when executing an activity or specific task Ex: issues hearing in background noise, difficulty localizing a sound source, difficulty hearing and understanding the TV Participation restrictions: when a person avoids certain activities or experiences that they would normally participate in due to their activity limitation Ex: not attending family dinners because they cannot follow the convo in noise, avoid watching TV or raising the volume to hear it, & avoiding a symphony they used to attend due to not hearing it and sounding distorted now
309
Are audiometric thresholds a good predictor of activity limitations and participation restrictions? Why not?
Audio is a measure of individual’s ability to detect quiet tones when using headphones Audio thresholds ONLY diagnoses functional sensory deficits Not an indicator of degree of communication deficit
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SII- explain measure and its clinical uses
a measure, ranging from 0 to 1, that quantifies the proportion of speech information available to a listener, essentially indicating how well someone can understand speech
311
The rationale for identifying systemic health conditions linked to progressive loss
Certain medical conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, or autoimmune disorders can affect hearing. A thorough case history can help audiologists identify these conditions and understand their potential impact on auditory health. By reviewing symptoms across different systems, audiologists can differentiate between primary auditory disorders and those secondary to other health issues the entire systemic process interacts with the as and impacts it in some way
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Rationale, test protocol, scoring and clinical use of LDL. What are the norms for this test?
313
Rationale, test protocol, scoring and clinical use of QuickSIn. What are the norms for this test?
314
Rationale, test protocol, scoring and clinical use of ANL. What are the norms for this test?
315
Rationale, test protocol, scoring and clinical use of Binaural Interference.
316
List the multidimensional factors audiologists should assess in a functional and communication needs protocols which support patient specific decision making.
Audiological factors HL, speech understanding, processing skillsm tinnitus, vestibular status functional needs - daily listening environments - communicaiton partners - phones & streaming - specific listening challenges - assistive technology - language and cultural - considerations - social and lifestyle factors - values and preferences
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Clinical use of HHIE, APHAB, Social Network Index, ECHO, HASP, COSI
COSI = Helps to tailor interventions that address the technical aspects of hearing as well as the emotional and pyschological needs the patient expresses HHIE (Hearing Handicap Inventory for the Elderly) = Identifies perceived participation restrictions in daily life due to hearing loss; informs counseling and intervention needs APHAB (Abbreviated Profile of Hearing Aid Benefit) = Measures both unaided and aided listening challenges to quantify hearing aid benefit and participation restrictions Social Network Index = Evaluates potential social participation limitations due to hearing loss by assessing social engagement and support ECHO (Expected Consequences of Hearing Aid Ownership) = Helps predict adherence and satisfaction; identifies unrealistic expectations that could hinder participation in care HASP (Hearing Aid Selection Profile) = Guides hearing aid selection while considering personal factors that may affect consistent use and participation
318
Differentiate cognitive vs. affective goals. What is the benefit of including both types of goals in your plan of care?
cognitive goals (desired environments that require improvements) -affective goals (desired improvements relating to feelings/emotional needs)
319
What is the rationale for screening dexterity, vision, motivation, general health, depression, anxiety
impacts their ability to follow treatment plans, perform certain tasks with the devices, see instructions or parts, motivation, limitations with other medical conditions, reduce participation and affect adaptatioin with the new devices or strategies
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Rationale for investigating occupation, lifestyle, support systems
Occupation = Work environment may present specific communication, noise exposure, or physical demands that affect device choice, rehabilitation goals, and accommodations needed Lifestyle = Daily activities, hobbies, and routines influence the type of interventions that are realistic and meaningful for the patient. For example, active versus home-based lifestyles may require different device features Support systems = Family, friends, and caregivers play a critical role in encouraging device use, providing reminders, assisting with care tasks, and offering emotional support. Lack of support may require additional counseling or services
321
Describe the Federal Drug Administration (FDA) Packaging warnings of 8 red flags of ear disease.
deformity of the ear, active drainage within the previous 90 days, sudden or rapidly progressive HL within the previous 90 days, acute/chronic dizziness, unilateral HL within the previous 90 days, ABG at 500/1000/2000 Hz, significant cerumen accumulation and pain in the ear
322
Differentiate and describe the use/limitations of Type 1 and Type 2 test signals
type 1 : pure tone swept over frequencies type 2 : complex speech like signals with random frequencies
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REM Acronyms: Understand the meaning and use of each
REUR = measurement of the absolute SPL level of an open ear canal response, across all frequencies, at the tympanic membrane REOR = measurement of insertion loss occurring because of the presence of a mold/dome in the ear canal REAR = absolute aided output and frequency response when a hearing aid is turned on REIG = difference between the AIDED response and the UNAIDED response of the ear canal RECD = difference in decibels across frequencies, between an ear canal resonance and the resonance of the 2cc coupler
324
Describe how the substitution method of calibration is performed
Substitution method - soundfield equalization - Done before the PT arrives, placed at where subject’s head would be, stored as a reference point, used to calibrate the reference mic and probe - Impacts results if the subject changes location or moves
325
Describe how each modified methods of calibration are performed (Concurrent equalization and stored equalization) and differentiate their uses
Concurrent equalization reference mic monitors test signal throughout test to equalize and adjust, calibration signal replays every 10 seconds (pink noise segment) Stored equalization probe is calibrated one time on PT’s ear & stored for fitting process Used to avoid ref mic contamination (stops it) - happens when amp output escapes ear canal through open dome
326
What does the phrase “reference microphone contamination” indicate. What is the impact of this concern and how is it resolved?
reference microphone contamination occurs when the amplified output escapes the ear canal through open domes -reference microphone measures and reacts to the intensity of the HAs output signal lowering the intensity of the speakers input signal
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What is the impact will standing waves have on the measured output? How is this resolved?
- causes peaks and nulls in amplitude resulting in inaccurate measurements - distortion - move the probe tube
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Describe each probe tube insertion technique: Acoustic method
present pink nosie while inserting probe tube. once correct distance is found move the marker
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Describe each probe tube insertion technique: Constant depth method
premeasure the probe tube marker to a premeasured position male 30 mm female 28 mm child 20-25 mm
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Describe each probe tube insertion technique: Geometric positioning method
probe tube places along the outer ridge of the intertragal nothc of device
331
Name all the tests that would allow you to use the CPT-4 code named “conformity evaluation”
REM, RECD measurement and test box programming, aided functional gain, aided speech intelligibilty measures, aided subjective ratings
332
What is RECD? How is it performed What is its practical purpose?
difference in decibels across frequencies, between an ear canal resonance and the resonance of the 2cc coupler PERFORMED Measure coupler resonance measure REM placement of tube with constant depth and acoustic methods place recd transducer in earmold and place earmold in PTs ear measure real ear PRACTICAL PURPOSE correct & convert individuals HL audiometric thresholds to SPL values (allows for precise adjustments for differences in ear canal volume and impedance variations) & predicts the real–ear output when the HA measurements are made in the test box
333
What is the protocol for verification with probe microphone measures?
constant depth acoustic method
334
What is the protocol for verification using aided functional gain measures? What are the limitations associated with this verification protocol?
Compares aided thresholds to unaided thresholds using puretone signals in the sound field Patient position: 0º azimuth to soundfield speaker Signal: pulse pure tone or warble signals Masking is presented via headphone to opposite ear to assess one device at a time Unaided SF thresholds obtained for key octaves 500 - 4k Hz to ensure accuracy of measurement You can’t use the audiogram threholds Aided SF thresholds obtained for the same frequencies Aided Verification of Adaptive Speech in Noise Performance Test signal: Adaptive QuickSIN Performed in soundfield at 50 dB HL (increase to soundfield MCL, if needed)
335
Recognize what kind of information can be visualized in the Speech spectrum envelope
- frequency-dependent measure of time averaged sound pressure level of speech - calculated by averaging a measured signal for 10 seconds - Visual representation of modulated speech sounds
336
Rationale for use of various prescriptvie meausres: - Loudness equalization/ NAL NL 2 - NAL-RP - Loudness normalization / DSL - Audibility
NAL2. = balances perception of loudness, targets for tonal lanuguages, use if Pt is desiring increased intelligibilty, adults only NAL-RP = more gain for sounds that contribute to speech intelligibility (severe to prof HL) DSL = assist in language development, use it patient is desiring increased comfort or REUR is not avaerge, adults and kids
337
What speech envelope crest factors and acoustic valleys are associated with average speech? VALUES!!
crest +12 valleys -18
338
Define LTASS
Long-Term Average Speech Spectrum. Basically, it shows which frequencies are louder or softer on average during everyday talking.
339
How do crest factors and acoustic valleys differ in music?
Crest factor measures the ratio of peak to average loudness in music, indicating dynamic range. Acoustic valleys are the quieter gaps or dips in sound energy within the music or frequency spectrum, contributing to the overall texture and contrast.
340
What special fitting considerations should you make for these circumstances? - Asymmetric hearing loss - Reverse slope loss - NIHL loss - Severe to Profound loss - Conductive loss
asymmetric - benefit from bilateral HA even though they wont get the full binaural advantage, try 1 or more formula reverse slope - add 15 to 20 dB in lows and mids, add 10 to 15 at 2k and above if they are WNL NIHL - basically try to get audibilty where they dont have it severe to profound - very low CR, use NAL-RP conductive - additional gain is needed
341
Describe the difference between occlusion and ampclusion and the different strategies used to determine which is causing your patients complaints
occlusion Increased perception of ones own voice when there is something blocking the ear canal Physical blockage of the ear canal (e.g., deep ear mold, closed fitting) trapping low-frequency energy ampclusion sensation of loudness or distortion of one's own voice due to hearing aid amplification settings Over-amplification, especially of low frequencies
342
Describe programming changes to you might make to alleviate common user complaints
party noise = increase HF CR slightly, raise HF TK to 60 dB paper crinkling - reduce loud channel for all freq toilet flushing - decrease LF loud channels water running - decrease MPO utencils - lower loud channel for all freq dishes clattering - decrease loud HF gain to increase CR speech in LF (malls) - decrease LF below 1500 Hz, increase HF above 1500 Hz HA is booming - decrease LF bands, decrease overall gain and MPO I cant hear well with HA - increase over gain, HF, and MPO plugged - increase vent size and LF band gain
343
Differentiate functional, activity, and participation limitations based on real-world examples
functional = Problems with body functions or structures (physical or mental) that impact a person's capabilities. activity = Difficulties performing basic tasks or actions due to functional limitations. participation = Problems being involved in life situations or social roles.
344
Differentiate fluid vs. crystallized intelligence, understanding how they change with age
fluid = The ability to reason, solve novel problems, and think abstractly without relying on prior knowledge. crystalized = The ability to use knowledge, experience, and skills that have been accumulated over time.
345
Validation/Outcome measures: provide examples of objective and subjective assessments
subjective - HHIA, APHAB, GHABP, SSQ, COSI objective - Aided Quicksin
346
Describe the core principles of patient-centered care
Respect for Patients’ Values and Preferences Coordination and Integration of Care Information and Education Physical Comfort Emotional Support Involvement of Family and Friends Continuity and Transition Access to Care
347
Describe the evidence-based benefits of group Aural Rehabilitation
Improved communication skills Enhanced hearing-related quality of life Increased use and benefit of hearing devices Peer support and motivation Cost-effectiveness Reduced listening effort and fatigue
348
Review each type of facilitative strategy. Whats involved and how does each benefit communication
349
Understand the concepts supporting the Lexical Neighborhood Activation Model
a model that deals with how our brain integrates information of speech into separate groups based on spoken words and visual representation of words automatically
350
Describe when an audiologist may use the CPT-4 code 92626, Evaluation of Auditory Function (specific services)
the first hour of evaluation of auditory function for surgically implanted devices, candidacy or post-op status
351
What is the candidacy criteria for a middle ear implant?
-18 years + -SNHL in the moderate to severe range -WRS greater then 40-60% (depends on manufacturer) -normal ME anatomy/function -experience with appropriately fit HAs -ABGs no larger than 10 dB
352
When do you recommend a middle ear implantable device to a patient?
Has moderate to severe sensorineural hearing loss and cannot use or benefit sufficiently from conventional hearing aids due to issues like chronic ear infections, ear canal problems, or feedback issues. Has conductive or mixed hearing loss where traditional hearing aids are ineffective or not tolerated. Experiences discomfort, cosmetic concerns, or limitations with conventional hearing aids. Requires improved sound quality and clarity, especially in challenging listening environments. Has intact middle ear structures suitable for implantation. Has realistic expectations and motivation for undergoing surgery and device use.
353
What are the differences between partitally and totally implantable middle ear hearing devices?
The key differences between partially and totally implantable middle ear hearing devices** lie in how much of the system is placed inside the body versus outside, and how the components are powered and managed. partially implantable the power source is outside while totally implantable the power source is inside the head.
354
What are the contraindications for a middle ear implant?
-conductive HL -retrocochlear or central auditory disorders -active or history of recurrent ME infections -TM perforations -disabling tinnitus -any skin or scalp conditions/sensitivities
355
What are the advantages and limitations of middle ear implants?
advantages: greater gain, improved comfort, higher fidelity sound, not needing as much gain due to the nature of the implants, aesthetic appeal, and good for patients who want continuous wear disadvantages: surgical procedure, cost is high as insurance does not often cover the devices, hearing implications as a result of disarticulation potentially needing to occur, not MRI compatible beyond 1.5 T and there are troubles with verification as there is no acoustical output to measure within the canal
356
What is the bone conduction device candidacy criteria for patients with a CHL/MHL?
-average BC of less than or equal to 65 dB HL -average ABG of greater than 30 dB HL (additional consideration and not necessary)
357
What is the bone conduction device candidacy criteria for patients with SSD?
-poor ear has profound SNHL of greater than or equal to 80 dB HL -good ear has a PTA of less than 20 dB
358
What are the componenets of a bone conduction device and their functions?
-external sound processor, captures the signal and converts it to mechanical vibrations, delivering those vibrations to the internal components -titanium component which is surgically implanted in the skull and uses those mechanical vibrations to the cochlea through bone conduction -abutment, sits on the fixture holding it into place
359
Bone conduction: what is skin drive vs. direct drive?
skin drive: vibrations are transmitted to the bone through the skin using an external device that is placed on the skin surface direct drive: vibrations are directly transmitted to the bone through an implanted transducer, without the need for skin transmission
360
Bone conduction: what is active vs. passive?
active: transducer is implanted and the generated vibration is directly applied to the bone. gives optimum BC sound transmission as it is not attenuated. transducer is within the implant passive: transducer is within the speech processor and the stimulation is applied from the outside onto the skin.less optimal as the skin attenuates the signal before it reaches the bone. transducer is within the speech processor on top of the skin
361
Bone conduction: what is percutaneous vs transcutaneous?
percutaneous: the skin is not intact as the implant is penetrating the skin. titanium fixture is implanted into the skull and protrudes outward transcutaneous: the skin is intact and the vibrations from the sound processor are transmitted across the skull. titanium component is coupled to a magnetic plate that rests on top of the skull
362
Bone conduction: What is osseointegration? What is the process? What are the surgical approaches?
the process in which bone cells attach/adhere to the surface of a metal titanium surface -the bone cells adhere to the surface of the fixture implant screw is surgically placed and eventually will become osseointegrated to the temporal bone -one stage process occurs when implant and abutment is placed as a single piece -two stage process occurs when the implant is implanted first then at another date the abutment is placed after osseointegration has taken placed
363
Bone conduction: Differentiate between percutaneous and transcutaneous implants in terms of design, sound transmission, and indications for use?
Percutaneous bone conduction implants feature an abutment that penetrates the skin, allowing direct vibration transmission to the skull bone for efficient sound conduction but requiring regular skin care and posing a higher risk of skin infections. In contrast, transcutaneous implants are fully implanted beneath intact skin and use magnetic coupling to transmit sound vibrations through the skin, offering better cosmetic results and fewer skin complications, though with slightly reduced sound efficiency. The choice between these implants depends on patient factors like skin condition, hygiene, cosmetic preference, and the need for optimal hearing performance.
364
Bone conduction devices: current devices and their classifications (I think she means percutaneous vs trans)
365
Bone conduction devices: what are the listening test protocols for patients with CHL, MHL, & SSD?
366
What are the external components of a cochlear implant and their functions?
367
What are the internal components of a cochlear implant and their functions?
368
What is the basic operation of cochlear implant devices?
-microphone picks up sound, amplifies it and converts it to an electrical signal -electrical signal goes to speech processor -processor converts the signal to digital information -this then gets sent to the transmitting coil which transmits both this signal and power to the internal receiver -the receiver decodes the signal and delivers electrical stimulation pulses to the electrode array that is within the cochlea -the electrodes stimulate the auditory nerve terminals using current pulses
369
What are the types of stimulation modes for cochlear implants?
monopolar - ground is larger, common ground is extracochlear, results in broad excitaton, requires less current, not good at showing short circuit anomalies bipolar - next to eachother, requires more current, focused stimulation
370
CI: what are speech coding strategies? what is their purpose?
speech coding strategies are the algorithms used to convert incoming sounds (especially speech) into electrical signals that stimulate the auditory nerve. They determine which electrodes are activated, when, and with how much intensity, based on the input sound.
371
What are the contraindications for a cochlear implant?
-absent cochlea/cochlear nerve -neurological damage impeding auditory processing -damaged auditory cortex -medical conditions preventing surgery -any medical risks of surgery that exceed the expected benefits
372
CI: what is the difference between FDA labeled and off-label use?
labeled : manufacturer defined indications listed on the package insert off label : provisions of a CI to a patient who does not meet the approved indications
373
When to refer patients based on the 60/60 guideline?
Better ear PTA equal to or worse than 60dB ear (60+) Better ear UNAIDED WRS score equal to 60% or worse (60% and below) When the study was done you needed both now some of the studies say one or the other
374
What procedures are required prior to conducting a CI candidacy assessment?
375
What are the procedures and protocols for determining candidacy in traditional CI candidates and those with good low-frequency hearing (EAS), SSD, & AHL?
376
Tell me about pre and post CI implantation counseling, goals, and elements?
377
CI: What are lower stimulation levels?
least amount of stimulation a recipient can detect when electrical signal are delivered to individual electrodes -T levels, THR
378
CI: What are upper stimulation levels?
upper limit of electrical stimulation, the loudest that they can tolerate -M, MCL or C levels
379
CI: What is DR?
the difference b/w the patients T & M levels different for each electrode bc each threshold is different
380
CI: What is frequency allocation?
the controls how frequencies are delivered across active channels
381
CI: What are the consequences of improperly setting lower and upper stimulation levels?
too little stimulation = the patient not getting enough sound/auditory input, understimulation too much stimulation = overstimulation, loss of speech clarity
382
CI: What are signs of overstimulation in children?
-holding breath -exhibiting facial expressions of mild concern -looking to caregiver for reassurance -tensing or stiffening of the body -playing more actively -wringing hand, clothes or toes -producing blinks in response to the stimulus
383
CI: Tell me about the use of ESRT and ECAP in CI fitting including their utility in determining over or under stimulation
ESRT: measuring the contraction of the stapedial muscle in response to intensive electrical stimulation from the CI -we are evoking it from the implant -preferable method for setting M levels in children ECAP: shows the auditory nerve response to electrical stimulation from the cochlear implant. It reflects activity from the nerve fibers near the implant. - ECAP thresholds almost always occur above T levels and they tend to occur in the upper portion of the behavioral dynamic range -more likely to exceed the M levels for faster stimulation rate
384
CI: What are strategies for managing facial nerve stimulation?
reduce stimulation levels, widen the pulse width
385
CI: What is a soft surgery?
refers to the techniques designed to minimize intracochlear trauma, preserve residual hearing and to optimize electrode placement within the scala tympani
386
CI: What are the indicators that the map is optimized and the patient is ready to transition to the maintenance phase?
-SF thresholds better than 30 dB -10+ hours per day with data logs -post operative CNC scores in the implanted ear of around 56% or better OR patients score in the implanted ear have improved by at least 20%
387
CI: What is the ratioanle for electrode placement in the scala tympani?
-larger diameter which avoids damage to the nerve fibers -allows for insertion below the cochlear duct -closer proximity to the round window -less intracochlear trauma -better preservation of residual hearing -better implantation outcomes and reduced postoperative vertigo
388
CI: What is impedance?
measure of the opposition to electrical current flow across an electrode when a certain voltage is applied -confirms that electrodes are functioning properly
389
CI: What causes impedance and how do we identify it?
partial circuit, short cicuit, open circuit
390
What is an open circuit?
incomplete path for current to flow, a discontinuous circuit -infinite resistance, prohibiting the flow of current -anything greater than 30
391
What is a short circuit?
low resistance between two points in a circuit that differ in potential which are separated by higher resistance resulting in an increase in current flow -anything less than 1
392
What is a partial short circuit?
characterized by relatively low resistance resulting in increased current flow, but less so than for a true short circuit -impedances decreasing over time and those impedances changes relative to the other electrodes
393
What is voltage complianace?
there is a fixed amount of current that is specified within the software, and if those impedances are using an amount of fixed voltage that agrees with the battery, then it is in compliance -this level cannot be exceeded, and if it is, then the device is out of compliance
394
What is voltage compliance?
software specifies a fixed amount of current if voltage amount that agrees with the battery = in compliance can not exceed this level or it is out of compliance
395
What is an ABI?
surgically implanted device that provides auditory sensation to individuals who cannot benefit from a CI
396
What are the FDA-approved indications for an ABI?
-12+ that are diagnosed with NF2 -rendered deaf due to bilateral resection of neurofibromas of the nerve
397
What is the site of electrode placement for an ABI?
the cochlear nucleus of the brainstem
398
What are non-auditory sensations associated with ABI programming?
signs such as facial stimulation when levels continue to be increased
399
What are the factors contributing to the complexity of programming ABIs compared to CI devices?
-presence of non auditory sensations -more central focus of stimulation -uncertainty and irregularity of tonotopic stimulation -potential central disease from
400
What are the overall outcomes of ABIs versus CIs and reasons for differences?
401
Define "oxidation" & "reduction" as they relate to oxidative stress
Oxidative stress happens when there’s an imbalance oxidation = A chemical reaction where a molecule loses electrons. reduction = A chemical reaction where a molecule gains electrons.
402
What is oxidative stress?
disturbance/imbalance between the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) ROS: free radicals and peroxides Disturbances in the redox environment results in too much ROS —> can damage cell components like proteins, lipids, and DNA Antioxidants can combat excess ROS Oxidative stress and inflammation go hand in hand, resulting in: Aging, neurodegeneration, and diseases (diabetes, cancers, atherosclerosis, Parkinson’s, and Alzheimer’s) Severe oxidative stress results in cell death (necrosis) Moderate oxidative stress results in apoptosis (cell “popping” and dying) ROS can be beneficial: kills pathogens and helps cells signal Overproduction of ROS causes cell death, so we use antioxidants to prevent this (through natural body processes or nutrition)
403
What is the enzyme-substrate complex?
enzymes and substrates can have specific shapes so if they don't match a reaction may not occur OR the enzyme can slightly modify its shape to accommodate several substances
404
Identify important neurotransmitters and their roles in the body
acetylocholine - voluntary movement of skeletal muscles norepinephrine - arousal dopamine - wanting pleasure, addiction and love serotoin - memory, emotion
405
Tell me about the process of inflammation
part of the immune response of vascular tissues to stimuli such as: pathogens, physical, and chemical trauma It is a necessary response that allows us to destroy invaders and repair itself (wound healing) In some disorders, the immune system can’t repair itself and it can result in a chronic inflammatory disease
406
What are the major factors that influence the development of new drugs?
cost and time
407
What is pharmacokinetics?
essentially what the body does with the drug. there are 4 major components: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
408
Describe the routes by which drugs are administered in the body and their pros and cons
enteral - given directly into the gastointestinal tract (oral or rectal). pros- easy administration, portable. cons - exposes the drug to harsh environments, stomach can affect absorption rate topical - applied to bodys surface. parenteral - usually injectable. pros - bioavaibibilty, more controlled. cons - high addiction tisk, costs more, most dangerous route
409
Discuss the different membrane barriers that can affect drug absorption
cell membrane BBB BLB BPB
410
Discuss the differences in drug absoprtion between oral and different forms of parental administration
411
Discuss phase 1 & 2 of drug metabolism and the role of the CYP enzyme
phase 1 - modifies chemical structure of a drug through oxidation reduction & liver has enzymes to facilitate these rxns phase 2 - Conjugation/Hydrolysis. these reactions hydrolyze or conjugate a drug to a larger polar molecule by adding other molecular groups such as glutathione, sulfate, and acetate This reaction inactivates the drug or enhances the drug solubility and excretion rate into urine or bile
412
What is "first pass effect" ?
(also called first-pass metabolism) is a process where the concentration of a drug is significantly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation.
413
What are potential barries to drug distribution in the body
cell membrane, blood brain barrier, blood labyrinth barrier and the blood placental barrier
414
Describe the mechanism of drug transport from the plasma to tissue sites
Drugs move from the bloodstream into body tissues primarily through passive diffusion, where the free (unbound) portion of the drug crosses capillary walls and enters surrounding tissues. This process is influenced by factors like blood flow to the tissue, the drug’s fat or water solubility, and whether it can pass through barriers like the blood-brain barrier. Fat-soluble, small, and uncharged drugs cross cell membranes more easily, while others may require special transport proteins. Once in the tissue, drugs may bind to components like fat or muscle, affecting how long they stay in the body and how they work.
415
What is drug biotransformation?
also called drug metabolism if the process by which biochemical reactions alter within the body
416
Describe the concept of drug redistribution for termination of drug activity
redistribution to a nonspecific sites will terminate the drug’s action
417
How are drugs eliminated from the body?
drugs are eliminated from the body through two main steps: metabolism and excretion. metabolism - The liver breaks down the drug into smaller, less active parts. This makes it easier for the body to get rid of. excretion - After metabolism, the drug (or its pieces) leaves the body, mainly through: urine and feces
418
Differentiate first order and zero order drug elimination kinetics
zero order elimination - elimination of a constant quantity per time unit, rare occuring mostly when the elimination system is saturated first order elimination - elimination of a constant fraction per time unit of the drug
419
What is the "half-life" of a drug?
the amount of time required for the drug concentration to decrease to 50%
420
What is a loading dose?
higher initial dose of drugs administered to compensate for drug distribution in the tissues from plasma
421
Differentiate between agonist and atagonist receptors
agonist: Binds to a receptor and activates it, causing a biological response. antagonist: Binds to a receptor but blocks or prevents activation. It does not trigger a response.
422
What is a maintenance dose?
once steady state is reached, subsequent drug doses must replace only what is lost through metabolism and excretion
423
What is drug efficacy?
how well a drug produces its intended effect in the body.
424
What is a ligand?
a molecule that binds to a specific site on a target protein—usually a receptor, enzyme, or ion channel—to trigger a biological response or block activity.
425
What is drug potency?
refers to the amount of a drug needed to produce a certain effect.
426
Differentiate between a therapeutic and adverse drug reaction?
therapeutic = The intended, beneficial effect of a drug when it is used properly. adverse = An unintended, harmful, or undesired effect that occurs when taking a drug at normal doses.
427
What is the difference between graded and quantal dose-repsonses?
quantal - describes the effects of various drug doses on a population graded - effects of various drugs on an individual
428
What is the difference between a toxicity reaction and a drug side effect?
toxicity reaction = A harmful, potentially serious or dangerous effect caused by excessive drug levels (overdose) or prolonged use. drug side effect = An unintended, usually mild or moderate effect of a drug that occurs at normal therapeutic doses.
429
what antibody crosses the placental barrier into the fetus
IgG
430
What is the difference between a drug allergy and anaphylaxis shock?
drug allergy = An immune system reaction to a drug, where the body mistakenly identifies the drug as harmful. anaphylaxis shock = A severe, rapid-onset allergic reaction that can be life-threatening.
431
What are drug hypersensitivity reactions?
abnormal and harmful immune responses to a medication. Unlike common side effects, these reactions involve the immune system and can range from mild to life-threatening.
432
What is drug teratogenicity?
refers to the ability of a drug or substance to cause birth defects or developmental abnormalities in a fetus when a pregnant person is exposed during pregnancy.
433
What is the role of the FDA in regulating teratogens?
will still be approved by the FDA if the therapeutic benefit outways the risk and physician lableing clearly contraindicates use during preganacy
434
Describe the field of pharmacogenetics
the study of how a person’s genetic makeup affects their response to medications.
435
Provide examples of how gene mutations affect drug actions including SNP mutations
gene mutations make individuals highly susceptible to aminolycoside ototoxicity
436
What are the potential benefits/limitations affecting the field of pharmacogenetics?
complex, time consuming, knowing a persons genetic make up will not be helpful if 2 drugs available are contraindicated and no other alternative is avaible, little incentive for manufacturers to spend huge amounts of money for a small portion of the population
437
Discuss how to conduct a good medical history review to facilitate audiologic testing
especially ask about medical and drug history. gives us incite into what we might see based on history and can help explain results
438
What are patient, disease, and metabolic factors that can affect adverse drug reactions including ototoxcity?
age, pregnancy, diet, environment, disease, preexisting disorders, polypharmacy
439
What is compliance? What factors affect patient compliance with drugs?
the degree to which a patients behavior matches medical advice factors: intellectual status & physical status
440
What polarity should you not use when diagnosing ANSD?
Alternating because it will cancel out the cochlear microphonic
441
What are important physiologic differences in pharmokinetics in children and elderly patients? How do they afect drug dosing and drug effects?
Children and elderly patients have important physiological differences that affect how drugs are processed in the body. In children, immature liver and kidney function, as well as differences in body composition (more water, less fat), can slow drug metabolism and excretion, requiring careful weight- and age-based dosing. In the elderly, decreased kidney and liver function, changes in body fat and protein levels, and increased drug sensitivity often lead to slower drug clearance and longer drug effects. These differences mean that both groups are more vulnerable to side effects and require careful dose adjustments and monitoring.
442
Discuss the use of medications in pregnant and lactating women
ideally no drug should be given during pregnancy because we are worried about teratogenicity and side effects
443
What is the difference between ED50 & LD50?
ED50 = It measures how much drug is needed to achieve effectiveness in half of the people treated. LD50 = how much drug is needed to be fatal to half of the subjects (usually tested in animals).
444
Descibe the issue of polypharmacy
taking 5 or more medications at the same time, meaning within a 24 hour time period
445
What is ototoxicity?
ear poisoning—damage to the inner ear (cochlea or vestibular system) caused by certain drugs or chemicals.
446
What is the thearapeutic index?
measures how safe a drug is TI = TD50 ÷ ED50
447
What is vestibulotoxicity?
damage to the vestibular system—the part of the inner ear responsible for balance—caused by certain drugs or toxins.
448
What is hepatoxicity?
liver damage caused by a harmful substance—usually a drug, chemical, or herbal supplement.
449
What is nephrotoxicity?
kidney damage caused by a drug, chemical, or toxin.
450
What is neurotoxicity?
damage to the nervous system caused by a harmful substance—like a drug, chemical, or heavy metal.
451
What is the rationale for HF SNHL related to ototoxicity?
ecause the base of the cochlea, where high-frequency sounds are detected, is more exposed, more metabolically active, and more vulnerable to damage from toxic drugs.
452
What are antibiotic antagonsim and synergism?
antibiotic synergism: When two antibiotics together work better than the sum of their effects alone. antibiotic antagonism: When two antibiotics together interfere with each other, making the combination less effective than one alone.
453
What are the risk factors for ototoxicity?
dosage (higher the dose, the more of a risk there is), hepatic function (liver diseases impact metabolism, increasing risk), renal function (increase risk with any renal impairment), polypharmacy, age (very young and very old are at higher risk), pre-exisiting SNHL
454
What are the signs/symptoms of ototoxicity?
SNHL that can be progressive, onset typically will occur within a few days or weeks, tinnitus, aural fullness, recruitment, abnormal/absent OAEs, abnormal/absent reflexes and poor speech perception
455
What is the difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?
gram-positive: bacteria that stain dark blue/violet by gram staining because of high amounts of peptidoglycan in cell wall gram-negative: bacteria cannot retain the crystal violet stain because they lack the outer membrane found in gram-positive bacteria
456
What are the risks and benefits of antimicrobial combination therapy?
Antimicrobial combination therapy can improve effectiveness, broaden coverage, and prevent resistance—but it also carries risks like toxicity, drug interactions, and higher cost. It should be used judiciously, usually in serious, resistant, or mixed infections, and guided by clinical judgment and lab results.
457
What are the sites of lesions and cells affected (pathophysiology) in ototoxicity/vestibulotoxicity?
ototoxicity - cochlea vestibulotoxicity - Vestibular apparatus (semicircular canals, utricle, saccule)
458
Which antibiotics are most often associated with ototoxicity?
aminoglycosides macrolides (generally reversible) Loop diuretics (generally reversible, irreversible when given with IV aminoglycosides)
459
Which antibiotics are commonly used to treat otitis media?
penicillin cephalosporin macrolides
460
Describe the challenges associated with antineoplastic combination chemotherapy
While combination chemotherapy can improve cancer treatment by targeting tumor cells in multiple ways, it poses challenges including increased toxicity, drug interactions, resistance risk, patient variability, complexity of treatment management, and higher costs. Successful use requires careful planning, monitoring, and individualized care.
461
Identify the most ototoxic antineoplastic drugs and why
cisplatin - Causes oxidative stress and damage to cochlear hair cells, especially outer hair cells in the cochlea’s basal turn, leading to high-frequency hearing loss. It accumulates in the inner ear fluids and generates reactive oxygen species that damage sensory cells. carboplatin - Less ototoxic than cisplatin but can still cause hearing loss at high doses or with prolonged use. Similar mechanism of cochlear damage.
462
What are the clinical indications for the use of platinum-derived compounds, folate analog inhibitors, and vinca alkaloids?
463
What are the common clinical systemic and ototoxic manifestations associated with salicylates (tinnitus)?
HF tinnitus and a reversible SNHL (mild-mod)
464
What are the common clinical systemic and ototoxic manifestations associated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDS) (tinnitus and renal damage)?
NSAIDs can cause systemic issues like renal impairment by reducing kidney blood flow and prostaglandins, and ototoxic effects such as tinnitus and mild reversible hearing loss, especially with high or prolonged dosing.
465
What are the common clinical systemic and ototoxic manifestations associated with quinine (cinchonism)?
Cinchonism from quinine presents with systemic symptoms like headache, dizziness, nausea, and visual changes, along with ototoxic signs such as tinnitus, hearing loss, and vertigo. Symptoms are often dose-dependent and reversible with drug discontinuation but can become permanent in severe cases.
466
What are the common clinical systemic and ototoxic manifestations associated with acetaminophen (rare and not significant ototoxic effects, hepatotoxic)?
no reported temporary or permanent ototoxic or vestibulotoxic however overuse/abuse can cause rapidly progressive profound permanent SNHL -which only occurs with multi-ingredient substances such as vicodine (acetaminophen and hydrocodone)
467
What are the ototoxic effects of systemic exposure to industrial solvents/chemicals (more vestibulotoxic than ototoxic)?
468
Tell me about pediatric ototoxic monitoring
469
What is the need for ototoxic monitoring?
allows for informed medical decisions -performed for two purposes including early detection of changes to hearing status and audiologic intervention can occur when significant hearing impairment has occurred
470
How can blood thinners, bleeding disorders, and diabetes impact the management of an audiologic patient?
small nicks can lead to severe bleeding -it is important when making impressions, particularly deep canal impression, and cerumen management -clearance from a physician or written consent from patients informing risk is prudent
471
What is the timeline for ototoxic and radiation monitoring as recommended by ASHA (1994)?
baseline evaluation should occur before or no later than 24 hours after administration of chemotherapeutic drugs, prior to each dose, 1-2 times per week for patients receiving ototoxic antibiotics. frequency of monitoring depends on drug regimin and physician recommendations
472
List the criteria used to detect significant change in hearing sensitivity based on ototoxicity.
- greater than 20 dB puretone shift at one frequency - greater than 10 dB shift at 2 consecutive test frequencies - threshold response shifting to "NR" at three consecutive test frequencies
473
What potential damage is caused to the auditory system with radiation therapy?
it can damage any of the auditory structures within the radiation field, extending from the external ear to the higher auditory pathways conductive - radiation can degrade the external ear and middle ear systems through thickening the TM, stenosis of the ear canal, changes in the ET and ossicles resulting in temporary or permanent conductive HL SNHL - as dose increases, it can cause degeneration of the OHCs, IHCs and the 8th nerve fibers
474
How do we know OAEs come from the OHC?
because when you damage the OHC with ototoxic drugs it shows absent/reduced OAE. Meaning that even though your IHC are not damaged you will not get OAEs
475
What is atresia?
a condition where the external ear canal is underdeveloped or completely absent.
476
What will you see with a cerumen blockage (OAE, Tymp, Reflexes etc)?
Tymp - abnormal ECV & peak compliance OAE - absent/reduced Reflex - absent/elevated
477
What are collapsing canals?
literally what it sounds like the canals collapse causing occlusion as much as 50 dB. typically in younger children and older adults because of soft and deteriorating cartilage
478
What is multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system (CNS)—which includes the brain and spinal cord. HALLMARK IS PLAQUES
479
What is ANSD? What is a CM?
480
What is SSCD?
A rare condition where there is an abnormal opening (dehiscence) or thinning in the bone that covers the superior semicircular canal of the inner ear. This opening creates a “third window” in the inner ear, disrupting normal fluid movement and balance/hearing signals.
481
What is BPPV?
the most common cause of vertigo of peripheral orgin. acute: resolves spontaneouly over 3 months intermittent: active and inactive periods over several years chronic: continuous symptoms over long durations
482
What is the difference between labyrinthitis and neuritis?
labyrinthitis - Inflammation of the entire inner ear (labyrinth), including both the cochlea (hearing part) and vestibular system (balance part). neuritis - Inflammation of the vestibular nerve only (the nerve that carries balance signals from the inner ear to the brain).
483
What is SSHL?
A rapid onset of hearing loss, usually in one ear, that develops within 72 hours.
484
What is CHARGE?
Coloboma of the eye Heart defects Atresia Retarded growth Genital and/or urinary abnormaltiies Ear anomalies or deafness
485
What is hidden HL?
refers to a type of hearing impairment where a person has normal results on a standard hearing test (audiogram) but still experiences difficulty hearing, especially in noisy environments.
486
What will you see in age-related vs. noise-induced hearing loss?
Age-related hearing loss (presbycusis) is a gradual, bilateral, and symmetric decline in high-frequency hearing that typically begins in middle to older age, causing difficulty understanding speech, especially in noisy environments. In contrast, noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) results from acute or chronic exposure to loud sounds and is characterized by a distinct high-frequency notch around 4,000 Hz on the audiogram. NIHL often presents earlier with prominent tinnitus and may be asymmetric depending on noise exposure. Both types primarily affect high frequencies but differ in onset, pattern, and progression.
487
What is ossicular disarticulation?
is a condition where one or more of the tiny bones in the middle ear—called the ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes)—become disconnected or separated from each other.
488
What is a cholesteatoma?
is an abnormal, noncancerous growth of skin cells in the middle ear or mastoid (the bone behind the ear).
489
How do you differentially diagnose CAPD?
490
What are the accommodations associated with CAPD?
cant get an IEP (specific disorder, formal document. request more and get more) but they can get a 504 (assessibilty stuff, sit at front, fm system)
491
What is top-down processing?
information processing that is guided by higher level cognitive processes that draw on experiences and expectations to contract perceptions -occurs any time a higher level concept influences interpretation of lower level sensory data
492
What is bottom-up processing?
information processing that is guided by input -most sensory information such as sound is a example -senses allow us to interpret the scene around us
493
Differentiate ADHD & CAPD
ADHD: top down global disorder (C)APD: bottom up primarily auditory perceptual disorder -can differentiate with the digit span test in auditory and visual modalities, if does not do well in visual then would be looking more at ADHD
494
When using CAPD tests, they fall into categories. What are those categories, and what tests are in each one?
495
What is comodulation masking?
the detection of a tone masked by a modulated noise will improve significantly if if another band of noise with the same temporal characteristics is added. detection of the tone improves bc the two modulated bands of noise are percentually grouped by the CANS
496
What is the duplex theory for sound localization?
there are two sound cues used for localization, ITD & ILD.
497
What is sensitivity?
How good a test is at detecting people who have the condition. of true positives
498
What is the difference between forward and backward masking?
forward masking: When a loud sound comes before a quieter sound and makes the quieter one harder to hear. backward masking: When a loud sound comes after a quieter sound and still makes the quieter one harder to hear.
499
What is specificity?
How good a test is at identifying people who do not have the condition. of true negatives
500
What is masking level difference?
MLD is a test that checks how well your brain can tell apart sounds in noisy environments using both ears. The “difference” in how loud the sound needs to be before you can hear it in different setups is called the Masking Level Difference.
501
What is right ear advantage?
the right ear crossed pathway has direct input to the left hemisphere which is predominant for language
502
What is first pass metabolism and the drugs impacted by it?
these drugs enter the liver prior to entering circulation which allows for any unnecessary toxins to be removed -occurs to enteral
503
What is half-life?
time required for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
504
What is pharmacoepidemiology?
the study of drug outcomes as documented in observations of clinical data from large populations f typical patients receiving routine care
505
What is a controlled substance?
drugs that have some potential for abuse of dependence
506
What is a redox reaction?
(combination of oxidation and reduction): reactions that transfer electrons Reactions are a matched set, with only one, it’s called a half-reaction Oxidation: loss of electrons Reduction: gain of electrons All metal atoms can be oxidized (lose electrons), which forms a cation (positively charged ion). The electrons released are then reduced onto a non-metal (which is then an anion)
507
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
redness, swelling, heat (fever), pain, and loss of function
508
What are the roles and responsibilities of the FDA?
regulating manufacturing, marketing, and distribution to protect the public health
509
What is the margin of safety of a drug?
LD50 ÷ ED50 If LD50 is 10 mg and ED50 is 2 mg then the margin of safety is only 5. This means the lethal dose is only 5x the effective dose.
510
What is quinine?
Quinine from tree bark treats malaria (banned in the US) 1st specific drug to treat an infectious disease!
511
What are teratogenic drugs?
medications that can cause birth defects or developmental abnormalities in a fetus when taken by a pregnant person
512
What are NSAIDS?
Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs. A class of medications used to reduce pain, inflammation, and fever without using steroids.
513
What is cinchonism?
a syndrome caused by quinine toxicity, characterized by a group of symptoms affecting the ears, eyes, and nervous system. It typically occurs with high doses or prolonged use of quinine, a drug used to treat malaria.
514
What is cisplatin?
the most ototoxic drug used for germ cell tumors, bladder cancer, gynecological, lung tumors, tumors of the head/neck region and from childhood tumors such as neuroblastomas
515
What are aminoglycosides?
a type of antibiotic that is used to treat infections caused by gram negative bacteria that can cause life threatening infections such as endocarditis, septicemia and kidney infections
516
What are loop diuretics?
medications that help your body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production.
517
What is acetaminophen?
brand name tylenol useful for treating mild pain and fever but it is not an anti-inflammatory agent. no reported temporary or permanent ototoxic or vestibulotoxic effects.
518
What needs to be stopped 24 hours prior to a vestibular treatment?
sleeping pills, pain medications, & otoalcohol
519
What is anaphylaxis?
severe, progressive, whole-body allergic reaction to a chemical that has become an allergen
520
What is pharmacogenomics?
the study of the role of the genome in drug response - a combination of pharmacology and genetics
521
What is a graded dose response vs a quantal dose response?
graded dose response - relationship that describes the effect of the various drug doses on an individual quantal dose response - relationship describes the effect of various drug doses on a population
522
What are schedule drug levels?
controlled substances schedule 1 - the most dangerous, no current accepted medical use and they have a high potential for abuse. potentially severe psychological/physical dependence ex: heroin schedule 2 -high potential for abuse but less than schedule 1. can potentially lead to severe psychological/physical dependence. ex: morphine and fentanyl schedule 3 - moderate to low potential for physical/psychological dependence, abuse potential is less than schedule 1 and 2. ex: ketamine and marijuana schedule 4 -low potential for abuse. ex: xanax and ambien
523
What is the blood-labyrinthine barrier?
an important homeostatic mechanism that protects the inner ear. disruption of the BLB can result in a functional disruption of the auditory system.
524
What is polypharmacy?
taking 5 or more medications at the same time. increases the risk of adverse drug interactions.
525
What is bioavailability?
the fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
526
What is compliance?
the degree to which a patients behavior matches medical advice
527
What is patient centered care?
When the patients wants and needs are the priority. The audiologist and the patient work together to make decisions.
528
What is communication mismatch?
occurs when the audiologist’s approach does not align with the patient’s needs or expectations
529
What is family centered care?
When the patient & the family work with the audiologist to develop a plan
530
What is a decision aid?
An organizational tool used to review a set of treatment options. This opens up conversations with the patients to help them decide on a treatment option. gives information for each option and has boxes the patient can check if they are interested in learning more.
531
Define the technocentric rehabilitative model
when we use technology to improve hearing (HA’s) components: audiometry, HAs, HA orientation, real-ear verification, and accessories
532
Define audiologic rehabilitation
Helps patients with hearing loss adapt to their condition and manage it. It is personalized based on the needs and preferences of each patient. It should also reflect whole-person healthcare. Stresses the importance of having aspects other than technology involved components: patient story, self assessment of auditory wellness, technology, communication strategies, speech/visual perception training, peer support and validation
533
What are the overarching goals of audiologic rehabilitation?
reduce deficits related to loss of function, activity limitations, participation restrictions and quality of life enhance conversational fluency recognize HL imposes a multi-dimensional loss of function (impacts the body, and mind, as well as social aspects)
534
Audiologic rehabilitation aims to reduce which hearing-related limitations?
Function: loss of integrity of the sense organ Activity: sensory loss limits the ability to understand communication, especially in noise Participation: limited desire to participate in life Quality of life: lack of participation leads to isolation and reduction of self-worth
535
How can we determine if hearing aids are improving the activity limitations the patient faces?
We can test them with their hearing aids in quiet and in noise. If we want to increase the difficulty we can also take away their visuals.
536
List the benefits associated with the use of standardized questionnaires
Questionnaires can be used as a baseline and again after their fitting to analyze the benefit. They can also help us determine the patient’s quality of life & auditory wellness.
537
Describe how the brain processes an auditory signal to gather meaning
An echoic memory of the signal is created (replica), then pattern recognition occurs, then it goes to short term memory, and lastly long term memory
538
Explain the role allocation of attention plays on a person’s ability to decode signals and determine its meaning
higher levels of attention allow us to select a limited amount of information we want to focus on and block out the irrelevant information
539
Explain the role capacity and load play on a person’s ability to decode signals and determine their meaning
when there is more load (amount of energy that must be expended) than capacity (total energy available) it leads to fatigue, causing the processing speed to slow.
540
Describe changes that occur in the aging auditory system and how this negatively affects communication
broader neural tuning curves with diminished frequency resolution, neural recovery taking longer and diminished brain connectivity slows hemispheric transmission
541
What life experiences preserve an older adult’s ability to understand speech in noise?
music training and physical activity
542
Why are slow-acting AGC-i compression settings easier to process for patients with poor working memory and cognitive decline?
Slow-acting compression does not change the speech envelope but fast-acting compression does. It retains the speech envelope and the fine temporal cues needed in order to match to long term memory
543
How does music training affect an adult’s ability to understand speech in noise
Learning to play an instrument teaches the brain to extract critical information. Musicians show better abilities with brainstem encoding because music engages intricate systems in the brain (corpus callosum).
544
What is the multi-faceted rehabilitation model?
Provides patient-centered benefits because it provides expectations, rehabilitation process, habituation, and involves the whole family. It helps patients recognize that amplification is just one component.
545
What is the problem with cognitive screening tools?
They are auditory-based so if the patient can not hear the directions or questions the information you get will not be accurate
546
What happens when the synthesized auditory memory is compared to long-term memory?
Pattern recognition occurs. This can be impacted by audibility, situational content, attention, and knowledge of language.
547
What is a suprasegmental?
Variations in Loudness: changes in stress of syllabes which leads to words having different meanings Variations in Pitch: changes in intonation which leads to different meaning Variations in Duration: changes to vowels, syllables, or sentences to convery a different meaning
548
What is auditory mismatch?
When the auditory signal that arrives to the brain is degraded by the auditory system and therefore does not match the auditory memory. This is more prevalent in complex listening environments.
549
What core components of speech perception training?
Used to improve someone’s ability to perceive and understand speech auditory discrimination, auditory closure, auditory memory and auditory attention
550
What is auditory closure?
The ability to fill in missing speech sounds.
551
What is auditory discrimination?
The ability to distinguish between similar sounds.
552
What is auditory memory?
The ability to retain and recall auditory information
553
What is auditory attention?
The ability to focus on relevant auditory information and ignore background noise.
554
What is crystalized intelligence?
The ability to use skills, experimental knowledge, and repetitive activities and skills
555
What is fluid intelligence?
The ability to think logically, solve problem, & think through challenges.
556
What are communication strategies (conversational fluency)?
Asking clarifying questions, using visual cues and gestures, & and repairing communication breakdowns (asking people to repeat)
557
What are the 2 things that contribute to cultural norms, practices, and ideologies?
Familism - a sense of obligation, the family’s needs are more important than mine Stigmatism - HL is something to hide bc it negatively reflects on me
558
What are social and emotional factors (conversational fluency)?
Feeling confident and comfortable in social situations, and minimizing anxiety and frustration
559
What is the average amount of SNR adults need?
+3-5 dB (greater than the noise) There is a decrease in neural ability as we age - decreased neural firing & longer refractory periods.
560
What is advanced brainstem encoding? Who is usually good at this?
The ability to understand speech in noise despite age-related hearing loss and auditory structure changes. Muscians = in their brain speech & music overlap Tonal language speakers = can identify subtle changes in words that change the meaning Bilingual speakers = better at encoding the fundamental frequency
561
What is the OPERA Hypothesis?
Proposes that music facilitates speech encoding when -neural networks for speech & music OVERLAP -music entails more PRECISE processing than speech -music brings strong positive EMOTION -REPETITION in the signal -listening requires focused ATTENTION
562
How does learning music benefit children?
It can help them acquire language faster
563
What is cross-modal reorganization?
When the brain reorganizes itself because it lacks input like vision or hearing, it uses that area for something else. Research shows that if we can fit patients with well fit amplification, we can promote typical cortical function and provide them with cognitive benefits.
564
Bottom-up processing only supplies?
The perception of sound
565
Top-down processing relies on?
A clear amplified signal with low distorion
566
What is synthetic training (speech perception training)?
uses top down processing to take in and analyze info without attempting to identify every word or sound
567
What is analytic training (speech perception training)?
uses bottom up processing to improve recognition of phonemic speech elements
568
What is transfer appropriate processing (TAP) (speech perception training)?
training tasks that match the patients desired outcome
569
What is meaning based orientation training (speech perception training)?
use of training stimuli that activate language processing centers of the auditory cortex just like real communication
570
What is active filter hypothesis training (speech perceoption training)?
recognizes that emotional factors block effectiveness of listening skills
571
List four primary sources of communication breakdown
listener’s speech recognition skills, speaker’s delivery of the message, environment, and message complexity
572
List the 3 stages of communication repair
detect the breakdown (requiring attention and active listening), choose a course of action, and take a course of action
573
Specific repair strategies
giving specific information regarding what was missed exactly, both conversation and supportive repair strategies
574
Nonspecific repair strategies
not adding specific information in for what you did not understand or what you missed -can be simply saying ‘what’ or ‘huh’ -leading to simple repetition of the phrase
575
How does dual-sensory loss impact the PHL
leads to the individual missing out on visual cues and will be more impacted by their HL due to the dual sensory loss
576
Define anticipatory repair strategies explain how this is accomplished
when the PHL prepares for conversational interactions in advance by anticipating conversational content and potential listening environments
577
Maladaptive Strategy
coping behaviors that provide short-term benefits with long-term consequences -can look like dominating the conversation, ignoring the CP, bluffing, overreacting to miscommunication and withdrawing from social interactions
578
Instructional strategies
listener instructs the speaker on a specific way to change the delivery of the message -explanation, specific direction, and positive reinforcement
579
Message tailoring strategies
listener asks close-ended questions to limit potential answers and the amount of repetition required by the speaker
580
Define adaptive repair strategies and prepare recommendations for one to techniques to recommend to the patient use
methods to counteract maladaptive behaviors (emotions) that stem from HL -can use relaxation techniques or grounding techniques
581
Facilitative Repair Strategy
an attempt to identify and avoid communication breakdowns from occurring -including both nonspecific and specific strategies
582
Constructive Strategies
actions are taken to change an environment for improved communication -lighting, visual, angles, distance, reverberation, noise, and visual distractions
583
Articulation
forming clear and distinct sounds
584
Grounding techniques
techniques to reduce stress
585
3rd party disability
a disability of family members due to the health condition of their significant other -describes a range of activity limitations and participation restrictions experienced by the CP
586
Linguistic Boundary
a line or area that seperates regions where different dialects are spoken
587
Describe the research findings of the ACHIEVE project
hearing intervention provided significant benefits to a heart-healthy group of subjects
588
Define aided validation measurement and describe the purpose and benefits associated with monitoring these healthcare analytics. (when do you do these)
4-6 weeks after fitting. occurs after the patient has adjusted and is used to see if the Pt’s goals were achieved. compare aided assessments to pre-fitting. demonstrates the benefit.
589
what is speechreading
utilizes visual, auditory, gestural and contextual cues to understand speech
590
where are phonemic cues gathered from? where are prosodic cues gathered from?
phonemic = mouth and lip prosodic = eye area
591
visemes
sounds that look identical when produced
592
homophones
words that look identical on the mouth when produced
593
coarticulation
visible elements will appear different depending on the surrounding sounds -impacts lipreading by how surrounding sounds impact the current sound both by visual cues and auditory cues
594
dense neighborhoods
word groups which contain many words that sound and/or look the same -processing speed slows down
595
sparse neighborhoods
word groups which contain few words that sound and/or look the same -processing speech is faster
596
what helps shift a dense neighborhood to a sparse neighborhood
audio visual integration -by using what we saw and what we heard, we are able to integrate that to a smaller subset of potential words based on the context
597
what is validation with usage
reviewing datalogging to determine patterns of daily usage -can use any aspects to counsel and talk with the patient regarding their experience with the technology
598
You began testing a toddler in the soundfield using VRA at 30 dB, but there was no response. Your next step is: - Switch to insert earphones - Increase level by 20 dB and try again - Increase level of reinforcement - Change test assistant
Increase level by 20 dB and try again
599
Which of the following is a true advantage of the BOA procedure? - It allows the audiologist to obtain valuable behavioral responses in infants, supporting the cross-check principle. - It can be conducted in sound fields, with earphones, bone oscillators, hearing aids, or cochlear implants. - It can be used to verify access to speech sounds with amplification - All of the above.
all of the above
600
You are testing a 14-month-old baby using VRA. The child has been cooperative, and you have obtained the results listed below. Assuming that the next threshold will be the last one you can obtain from this baby, what would be your next step? - Measure threshold at 4000 Hiz in the right ear - Measure threshold at 4000 Hz in the left ear - Measure threshold at 1000 Hz in the right ear - Measure threshold at 1000 Hz in the left ear - Recheck thresholds at 2000 Hz in the left ear
Measure threshold at 1000 Hz in the left ear
601
An infant with severe to profound hearing loss will exhibit less babbling as he/she grows older due to: - Weakness in aural musculature - Lack of auditory feedback - Birth order - None of the above
lack of auditory feedback
602
When testing a 13-month-old baby, which of the following stimuli would provide more frequency-specific information? - Speech - Music - Ling-6 sounds - BBN
Ling 6 sounds
603
To obtain a more realistic assessment of the child's ability to perceive speech in everyday situations, which of the following speech tests would you select for a 6-year-old child with an auditory language age of 3.9 years? - WIPI, closed set - WIPI, open set - NU-CHIPS, open set - NU-CHIPS, closed set
NU-CHIPS, closed set
604
Children with minimal to mild hearing loss may benefit from which of the following: - Preferential seating - Personal FM system - Hearing aid - All of the above
all of the above
605
Your patient is a 9-month-old baby boy who is accompanied by his mother. In the case history, it was reported that he was born 8-weeks premature. All developmental milestones are delayed. What is his corrected age? - 10-months - 9-months - 8-months - 7-months
7 months
606
You have identified a five-year-old as having severe unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. As you discuss the potential impact of this hearing loss on the child's educational development, you would tell the parents: - With preferential seating, hearing loss will probably have no impact on the child's educational development - A hearing aid for the affected ear would be the best strategy for alleviating problems that hearing loss may cause. - A much higher risk for educational difficulties exists for this child than for children with two normal hearing ears. - A binaural FM system would be the best strategy for alleviating problems that the hearing loss may cause.
A much higher risk for educational difficulties exists for this child than for children with two normal hearing ears.
607
Since many children do not respond at threshold during auditory tests, their responses are often referred to as ....... - Conditioned responses - Unconditioned responses - Better ear responses - Minimum response levels - None of the above
Minimum response levels
608
Head lateral turn towards the sound source are expected in infants by: - 0:4 months - 4:7 months - 9-13 months - 13+ months
4:7 months
609
Language and speech will not develop spontaneously when very young children have .... - Mild SNHL - Moderate SNHL - Moderately severe SNHL - Severe SNHL
Severe SNHL
610
A 4-week-old infant's startle response or Moro reflex to a loud sound in the soundfield may indicate: - Normal hearing in both ears - normal or near normal in one ear - A unilateral moderate hearing loss in the better ear - A mild hearing loss in both ears - All of the above
all of the above
611
Which of the following should not be included in the test protocol when evaluating infants younger than 6 months? - Case history - Visual reinforcement audiometry - OAES - ABR
visual reinforcement audiometry
612
Which of the following is not recommended when counseling parents on strategies to encourage language development in children with hearing impairment? - Using infant-directed speech that incorporates high pitch, varied intonation, and simple, concrete words. - Regularly speaking and reading to the infant to promote language development. Introducing the infant to multiple languages early to speed up language acquisition. - Providing consistent emotional and physical support to boost the infant's motivation to communicate. - Frequently naming objects during interactions to aid vocabulary development.
Introducing the infant to multiple languages early to speed up language acquisition.
613
When using the sucking response method as the primary procedure for behavioral observation audiometry, all of the following can be accepted as a response except: - Cessation of sucking - Increased sucking rate - Eye widening - Responding only at stimulus offset
Eye widening
614
KJ is an 18-month-old baby girl who was brought to the clinic by her mom, who is concerned about the possibility of hearing loss. Which of the following information in her case history is not considered a red flag? - Apiar score of 3 at 1 minutes and 5 at 5 minutes - KJ can only say 3 words: mama, baba, dada - KJ did not start babbling until she turned 7 months old - KJ consistently reacts to loud sounds but less often to softer levels
KJ did not start babbling until she turned 7 months old
615
If a significant sensorineural hearing loss is suspected, behavioral testing in infants should begin with ..; otherwise, it is reasonable to start at - 500 Hz; 2000 Hz - 1000 Hz: 4000 Hz - 2000 Hz; 500 Hz - 4000 Hz; 500 Hz
500 Hz; 2000 Hz
616
Sylvia, a 5-year-old, is being evaluated. By case history report, Sylvia started kindergarten this year. She is in the process of having her speech and language evaluated by the school speech-language pathologist. According to her parent, they can understand approximately half of Sylvia's speech. The parents feel she understands them when they talk to her. You find a mild bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. You now want to test word recognition for Sylvia. Which of the following is the best option: - PBK words - WIPI, open set - BKB-SIN - WIPI, closed set
WIPI closed set
617
You are reviewing the case history of a 3-month-old infant, Alex, brought in after failing the newborn hearing screening. Alex was born full-term via C-section after prolonged labor. The birth weight was 3.2 kg (7.05 lbs), and the Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Post-delivery, Alex developed mild respiratory distress and spent 48 hours in the NICU for observation but required no mechanical ventilation. The initial newborn hearing screening was inconclusive. Alex's parents noted that they are concerned because Alex does not startle at loud noises and seems not to respond to their voices consistently. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hearing loss in this case? - Stay in the NICU - Lack of startling to noise - Apgar scores - Failing initial newborn hearing screening - None of the above
apgar scores
618
Which of the following speech tests would you use for a 6-year-old child with an auditory language age equivalent to 4 years? - PBK-50, open set - WIPI, open set - NU-CHIPS, open set - NU-CHIPS, closed set - NU-6
NU-CHIPS, closed set
619
Jamie, an eight-year-old boy, has recently been diagnosed with mild hearing loss. His parents are hesitant about using hearing aids, concerned that such a mild loss may not warrant the use of these devices. Given Jamie's condition and his parents' concerns, which recommendation would you provide to best explain the impact of his hearing loss on his ability to participate in classroom activities? - Assure the parents that children with mild hearing loss do not require any form of hearing assistance and can manage well without any modifications. - Inform the parents that while Jamie may face some challenges, mild hearing loss generally does not significantly affect academic performance or peer interactions. - Explain to the parents that mild hearing loss can pose substantial challenges in noisy environments, and that hearing aids can help Jamie better follow classroom discussions and alleviate his frustration. - Suggest that the parents monitor Jamie's academic and social progress for six months before deciding on any intervention, as children often adapt to mild hearing impairments naturally. - All of the above
Explain to the parents that mild hearing loss can pose substantial challenges in noisy environments, and that hearing aids can help Jamie better follow classroom discussions and alleviate his frustration.
620
The auro-palpebral reflex and Moro reflex are unconditioned responses observed in infants younger than 6 months in response to sounds. Which of the following is a limitation of using the auro-palpebral reflex and Moro reflex for determining auditory thresholds in infants? - Responses are obtained at supra-thresholds - Responses are not repeatable - Infants can habituate to stimuli fast - They do not provide frequency specifc information - All of the above
all of the above
621
The ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who dont have a disease
specificity
622
When child’s PCP takes responsibility for coordinating comprehensive health care and collaborates as a team member with the family and other key professionals is referred to as
Medical Home
623
Following passed NBHS. according to JCIH (2019) guidelines for risk factors, which of them should receive at least one audiologic assessment by 24-30 mos of age - Child with family hx of early and progressive HL - Full term typically developing child who spoke first words at 13 mos of age - Healthy 15 mos old who has not been immunized for childhood diseases like measles or mumps - 3 mo old who was in neonatal intensive care unit for 7 days after birth
child with family history of hearing loss and early progressive HL AND 3 month old who was in neonatal intesive care unit for 7 days after birth
624
2 mo old infant referred after failing NBHS at birth. Which is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
ABR
625
3 physical features of infants HAs that are important for retention and safety are - Ped earhooks, tamper-resistant battery doors and a retention cord - Volume control covers, HA desiccant jar and listening tube - Colorful stickers, carrying case, and a storybook - Battery tester, listening tube, and user’s manual
Ped earhooks, tamper-resistant battery doors and a retention cord
626
WB tymps offers the advantage of - Assessing entire frequency range with one stimulus - Examining absorbance, reflectance and impedance with one measurement - Wide frequency range as a function of air pressure - Increased sensitivity for some pathologies - All
all
627
Which of the following explains why children and adults have different needs when it comes to HAs - Adults only need ITE HAs - Children only need FM systems - Children acquire language through aided sound - Adults require higher SNR
Children acquire language through aided sound
628
One way which wideband acoustic immittance testing differs from conventional single frequency or multifrequency tymps - Probe seal in ear canal is not needed - Uncalibrated stimuli are used - Use of click or chirp stimuli - Measurements are made near the TM
Use of click or chirp stimuli
629
A 3-year-old with CHARGE syndrome is fit with binaural amplification in the form of traditional BTEs coupled with half shell silicone earmolds. His parents report persistent feedback from the devices after the first 10 to 15 minutes of use each morning. The feedback stops when the earmolds are pushed back into the ear. What steps can be taken to reduce feedback for the patient? - Remake the earmolds with a larger vent. - Enable feedback cancellation. - Purchase a different hearing aid style. Instead of a BTE, the patient could try a RIC. - Remake the earmolds to be a full shell with a helix lock for better retention.
remake the earmolds to be a full shell with a helix lock for better retention
630
Common earmold features in children's hearing aids include: - The use of bright colors and decorations - Partial insertion of the earmold tubing through the mold to prevent crimping - Use of thick-walled tubing to prevent feedback in high power fittings - All of the above
all of the above
631
A preschool child demonstrated a conditioned play response to a pure tone presented in the sound booth. What level of auditory skill development was demonstrated? - Identification - Comprehension - Discrimination - Detection
detection
632
What is the most appropriate procedure to estimate George's hearing ability? - BOA in the soundfield - Soundfield VRA thresholds - VRA thresholds under headphones - Air- and bone-conduction ABR thresholds
Air- and bone-conduction ABR thresholds
633
When conducting VRA testing, a head turn observed during a control trial is evidence of …. - A false response - A true response - Distraction - Auditory fatigue
a false response
634
A 4-year-old patient with moderate conductive hearing loss is seen for a hearing aid evaluation. Which is the best air-conduction HA and coupling option? - RIC with open-dome modular fitting - RIC with closed-dome modular fitting - BTE with open-dome modular fitting - BTE with traditional tube and custom earmold
BTE with traditional tube and custom earmold
635
Baby’s actual age in weeks minus number of weeks the baby was preterm
corrected age
636
Measurement of acoustic immittance that accounts for the acoustic immittance of the EAC
Compensated tymps (essentially removes the influence of the ear canal's volume and acoustic properties from the overall measurement, allowing clinicians to better isolate and analyze the behavior of the middle ear.)
637
Term used to refer to a specific and limited time in early childhood during which language acquisition must occur; if missed, it can lead to long term abnormalities and the brain’s wiring becomes harder to change
critical period
638
From the earliest appearing to latest appearing (in msec) what is the correct order of the major AEPs listed below: - ABR - ALR - AMLR - EcochG - P300
ECochG, ABR, AMLR, ALR, P300
639
Which of the following are TRUE regarding the click stimulus commonly used in AERs? Select ALL that apply. - A click has a rapid onset and wide bandwidth which stimulates a broad portion of the cochlea and causes many neurons to fire at one time - Because many neurons fire at one time, a click stimulus evokes a larger amplitude response than most tonal AER stimuli - Responses to click stimuli can be used in isolation to program hearing aids similar to behavioral thresholds on audiogram - The click has a long duration (slow rise and fall time) which makes it more frequency specific - A click contains energy from many frequencies but correlates best with thresholds in the 2000-4000 Hz range
A click has a rapid onset and wide bandwidth which stimulates a broad portion of the cochlea and causes many neurons to fire at one time & Because many neurons fire at one time, a click stimulus evokes a larger amplitude response than most tonal AER stimuli & A click contains energy from many frequencies but correlates best with thresholds in the 2000-4000 Hz range
640
Polarity type where stimulus pressure wave moves toward the tympanic membrane first causing the stapes footplate to move toward the oval window and basilar membrane to move downward
Condensation polarity
641
Stimulus onset and offset (i.e., envelope) can affect AERs. Which of the following is the most commonly used envelope for AERs? - Blackman - Hanning - Hall - Picton - Trahan
Blackman
642
Polarity type where stimulus pressure wave moves away from the tympanic membrane first causing the stapes footplate to move away from the oval window and basilar membrane to move upward
Rarefaction polarity
643
Polarity type where stimulus pressure wave is alternated on successive trials
Alternating polarity
644
Has the earliest latency of the 3 polarity types
Rarefaction polarity
645
Polarity used for ECochG and bone conduction testing
Alternating polarity
646
Polarity type that can be split with split buffering feature yielding three responses for a single run
Alternating polarity
647
Stimulus polarity type that reportedly produces the largest wave V amplitudes at low levels and may be better for estimating hearing threshold
Condensation polarity
648
True or false: For auditory evoked responses, as stimulus rate increases, latency of responses also increases slightly.
true
649
True or False: For auditory evoked responses, as a stimulus intensity decreases the latency of landmarks increases.
True
650
True or False: For auditory evoked responses, as a stimulus intensity decreases, amplitude increases:
false
651
true or false: For auditory evoked responses, as stimulus rate increases the amplitudes of earlier response components may decrease or become more difficult to identify.
true
652
10-20 Electrode Montage. Match the location/name with the corresponding letter.
A - Cz B - Fz C - Fpz D - A1 E - M1 F - M2 G - A2
653
What are the devices below called?
Pre-amp box
654
Which of the following is FALSE regarding ABR? - ABR is a test of hearing - The ABR response represents neural activity generated at several anatomic sites along the auditory pathway from the cochlea to the low brainstem - The ABR is characterized by up to 7 peaks or landmarks but we primarily focus on I-V - ABR may also be referred to as BAER - The later waveform peaks of the ABR most likely have multiple generators involved in the response
ABR is a test of hearing
655
generators for the abr waves
Wave I - distal CN8 Wave II - Proximal portion of the CN8 Wave III - cochlear nucleus Wave IV - superior olivary complex Wave V - lateral lemniscus and inferior colliculus
656
true or false: Absolute latency is the most robust and reliable parameter and provides the mainstay for interpreting ABR responses.
true
657
Examine the latency-intensity function (LIF) graphs below and match the correct LIF with the type of hearing loss exhibited
A - normal hearing B - CHL C - cochlear HL D - retro cochlear (neural) HL
658
At what age does ABR become adult-like?
2-3 years old
659
true or false: As hearing loss increases wave I amplitude typically increases?
false
660
List 3 reasons why you might perform a rate study (neurologic) ABR?
You would perform a rate study if an individual presents with asymmetric hearing loss, they have unilateral tinnitus or if they have unexplained dizziness/vertigo.
661
List 2 reasons why you might perform a threshold ABR?
You would perform a threshold ABR in newborns or if you were unable to get reliable behavioral results like in a patient with nonorganic hearing
662
Which type is displayed in the image below? And, what type of stimulus do you think was used to make these recordings (HINT: Look at the latencies at 75 dBnHL)?
threshold toneburst
663
If you have noise (artifact) in your EP recordings, list 3 things you can try to improve them.
You can braid the lead wires, try to reduce the noise in the room like turning off or moving cell phones and moving other electrical devices away from the testing, or you can make sure the patient is relaxed and not tense.
664
What is the difference between a click stimulus and the CE chirp stimulus?
The click stimulus is a transient stimulus, so it is brief and has a rapid onset. The click stimulus includes a broad range of frequencies so it is not very frequency specific but it creates nice big waves in order for interpretation. These are short duration stimuli and are great for use in a rate study. The chirp stimulus is a narrowband stimulus and is more close to the tonebursts. It is more frequency specific and is good to use for threshold ABRs. These are long duration stimuli.
665
Select the correct answer based upon your interpretation of the ABR rate study recordings and latency data listed below. - Right ear normal ABR, Left ear prolonged Ill and V waves and abnormal interpeak latencies with poorer overall morphology. Results suggestive of left retro-cochlear pathology. - Right and left ear normal ABR exam - Right ear normal ABR, Left ear prolonged III and V waves and abnormal interpeak latencies with poorer overall morphology. Results suggestive of left conductive pathology. - Right ear normal ABR, Left ear prolonged absolute and interpeak latencies and reduced amplitudes consistent with cochlear hearing loss. - Right ear normal ABR, Left ear reversed cochlear microphonic and poorer morphology on the consistent with ANSD
Right ear normal ABR, Left ear prolonged Ill and V waves and abnormal interpeak latencies with poorer overall morphology. Results suggestive of left retro-cochlear pathology.
666
A normal bone-conducted click or tone burst ABR would show missing wave(s) ________ with normal wave V
1-3
667
Let's analyze these ABR results for a three-month-old who did not pass the initial ABR assessment for the right ear after failing a newborn OAE screening. The ABR results for the left ear were consistent with normal hearing. Insert earphones and all appropriate test parameters were used, and accepted pediatric procedures were followed during the assessment. Below are the recordings: A 2000 Hz air conduction tone burst ABR for the right ear and a bone conduction tone burst ABR showing threshold recordings at 2000 Hz and 500 Hz. Based on these figures and case history, please answer the following questions: - Based on the ABR recordings provided, what type of hearing loss for the right ear does this three-month-old MOST LIKELY have? - The unit of the stimulus intensity levels shown in the recordings are dB nHL. What would be the baby's approximate pure tone air conduction threshold in dB HL for 2000 Hz?
conductive 50 dB HL
668
A seven-month-old baby girl was seen at an audiology clinic with a history of failing the newborn hearing screening for the left ear. Repeated newborn hearing screening was performed using OAEs. The baby was a "refer" for the first two screenings for the left ear but "passed" the third screen, which delayed referral for a diagnostic hearing evaluation. Insert earphones and all appropriate test parameters were used, and accepted pediatric procedures were followed during the assessment. The audiogram and ABR results are shown below: - Based on the case history and test results, what is the MOST LIKELY condition for the right ear? - Based on the case history and test results, what is the MOST LIKELY condition for the left ear?
right ear = normal hearing sensitivity left ear = a severe to profound SNHL
669
Which of the following regarding electrocochleography (ECochG) is FALSE? - ECochG is an endogenous response - ECochG is an evoked response arising from the cochlea and cranial nerve VIII - The ECochG response occurs within the first 2 to 3 msec after stimulus onset - ECochG is best acquired with an alternating polarity stimulus - The ECochG response typically consists of a base, SP and AP landmark (and sometimes CM).
ECochG is an endogenous response
670
When performing ECochG for diagnosis of endolymphatic hydrops (Meniere's), which of the following would be considered abnormal and suspicious for active hydrops? Assume tiptrode electrode use and conservative (standard) criteria for normal/abnormal. - SP/AP ratio of 45-50% or greater - SP/AP ratio of 20-25% or greater - An abnormally large AP amplitude (>400 microvolts) - SP/AP ratio of 0% or less - Prolonged SP/AP latencies
SP/AP ratio of 45-50% or greater
671
Which of the following types of electrodes or electrode setups can be used to reliably record ECochG responses? Select ALL that apply. - Tiptrode - Tymptrode (or canal electrode) - Trans-tympanic needle electrode - Ear (lobe) clip electrode - Mastoid electrode
Tiptrode Tymptrode (or canal electrode) Trans-tympanic needle electrode
672
If you are recording an ECochG response and your landmarks are difficult to identify, which of the following strategies could you employ to improve your response (i.e., increase your amplitude)? Select ALL that apply. - Utilize a slower rate - Utilize a higher intensity - Utilize a faster rate - Try to get your electrodes closer to generator site (i.e., deeper in canal) - Use the bone oscillator to attempt a BC response
Utilize a slower rate Utilize a higher intensity Try to get your electrodes closer to generator site (i.e., deeper in canal)
673
true or false: The AP landmark of ECochG response arises from activity in the afferent fibers from the distal portion of cranial nerve VIII (nearest to the cochlea) and therefore should correlate with wave I of the ABR response.
true
674
Use the images below to match the ECochG electrode type with the corresponding name.
A = Tiptrode electrode B = Trans-tympanic needle electrode C = Tymptrode Wick (canal electrode) D = Tymptrode Gel (canal electrode)
675
Which of the following ECochG responses (below) are labeled correctly?
A
676
Do these characteristics describe an ABR or ASSR? - Uses continuous tone stimulus with variations in amplitude and frequency modulation - Can be used to estimate hearing thresholds on newborns, non-organic losses or those who cannot perform behavioral testing - Response is based upon amplitude and phase in the frequency domain with an "objective" response detection algorithm - Use a 1-channel or 2-channel, inverting, non-inverting and ground electrode montage - Is better at estimating hearing threshold in the severe to profound range than it's counterpart - Can be used to detect auditory activity at the brainstem level - Can be used to detect auditory activity at the cortical level (auditory cortex) - Is often performed binaurally at the same time with multi-frequencies - Can be used in soundfield for functional gain testing
ASSR
677
Wallerian degeneration is a slow active process of degeneration that results when a nerve fiber is cut or crushed but during which time the nerve or parts of the nerve remain viable. How long does it take for Wallerian degeneration to complete?
up to 72 hours
678
Do these characteristics describe an ABR or ASSR? - Uses transient stimuli or frequency specific tone burst stimuli - Can be used to estimate hearing thresholds on newborns, non-organic losses or those who cannot perform behavioral testing - Can be used for neuro-diagnostic site of lesion testing / neural synchrony - Can be used in diagnosis of ANSD - Can detect conductive and mixed hearing losses more easily - Response is based on amplitude and latency in a time domain with "subjective" response detection - Use a 1-channel or 2-channel, inverting, non-inverting and ground electrode montage - Can be used to detect auditory activity at the brainstem level - Is measured in microvolts (millionths of a volt) which is larger in scale than its counterpart
ABR
679
What is the ideal time frame to perform ENOG testing (i.e., the interval at which Wallerian degeneration has subsided and not too far out for highest chance of recovery with surgical intervention).
3 days to 21 days after injury onset
680
What is most likely occuring on each side? There is a small positive peaks at 4-5 msec on the right side ENOG, what is this most likely from?
The left side is the injured side and based upon ENOG value, immediate medical intervention is likely warranted Masseter mucle response
681
Use the image and information below to interpret the ECochG response. Left: SP/AP amplitude ratios = 25-27% Right: SP/AP amplitude ratios = 56-60%
Normal SP/AP ratios for the left ear and Elevated SP/AP ratios for the right ear. Results suggest right cochlear dysfunction of the type commonly seen with active endolymphatic hydrops (Meniere's) or third window fistula.
682
Use the image and information below to interpret the ABR response. Wave I = 3.4 msec Wave III = 5.3 msec Wave V = 7.6 msec Interpeak I-III = 1.9 msec Interpeak III-V = 2.3 msec Interpeak I-V = 4.2 msec
Prolonged peak latencies but with normal interpeak latencies most likely consistent with conductive hearing loss. Should perform BC testing next to confirm.
683
Which of the following is considered an endogenous response? - The Pa component of the auditory middle latency response (AMLR) - The N1 component of the auditory late response (ALR) - The P2 component of the auditory late response (ALR) - The N2 component of the auditory late response (ALR) - The Pb component of the auditory middle latency response (AMLR)
The N2 component of the auditory late response (ALR)
684
The mismatch negativity (MMN): - Is a negative exogenous ALR response - It is affected by attention and sleep stages - Shows little to no inter-subject amplitude variability - It is a positive waveform often recorded simultaneously with the P300 - It is a biologic marker for chronic alcoholism
Is a negative exogenous ALR response
685
The ECochG can be abnormal in all the following conditions EXCEPT: - An autoimmune condition causing endolymphatic hydrops - Central auditory processing disorder (CAPD) - Superior semicircular canal dehiscence (SSCD) syndrome - Meniere's Disease - Perilymphatic fistula
Central auditory processing disorder (CAPD)
686
Clinical utility of the auditory middle latency response (AMLR) is limited because (Check all that apply): - Lack of appropriate equipment to record these responses - AMLRs cannot be recorded till the late teen years because of neuromaturation effects - The variability of AMLR responses within normal individuals - Absence of normative latency data for these responses - Effects of sleep stages on the responses
The variability of AMLR responses within normal individuals & Effects of sleep stages on the responses
687
Which of the following trouble shooting measures would NOT be effective in eliminating the artifact shown here? - Moving inverting electrodes from the mastoid to the earlobe location - Making sure the patient is alert and awake during the recording - Making changes to the filter width and decreasing the filter slope. - Decreasing the intensity level of the stimulus - Ensuring that the patient is not tense
Making sure the patient is alert and awake during the recording explanation: The image shows a stimulus artifact — a sharp deflection occurring immediately after the stimulus, before any neural response like wave Na. This type of artifact is electrical in nature, typically caused by the stimulus delivery system or electrode configuration, not by the patient's state or behavior.
688
Which of the following structures is NOT believed to be a neural generator of the P300? - Primary auditory cortex - Frontal cortex - Temporal cortex - Multisensory temporal cortical areas - Ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei
Ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei
689
P300 is considered an endogenous response because (Check all that apply): - It is a cognitive or discriminatory auditory evoked response - It is generated by the thalamus - It reflects brain processing associated with stimulus recognition and novelty - It is absent when the listener is in REM sleep - It has a long latency reflecting the time taken to process the signal
It is a cognitive or discriminatory auditory evoked response & It reflects brain processing associated with stimulus recognition and novelty
690
Clinical applications of the P300 include potential diagnosis of all the following conditions EXCEPT? - Schizophrenia - Mild Alzheimer’s disease - Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Type 2 diabetes - Severe Alzheimer’s disease
Severe Alzheimer’s disease
691
Fill in the Appropriate Components of the Auditory Evoked Responses (AERs) based on the Latencies Provided. 50 ms = ? 30 ms = ? 40 ms = ? 20 ms = ? 10 ms = ?
50 ms = Pb/P1/P50 30 ms = Pa 40 ms = Nb 20 ms = Na 10 ms = P0
692
Which auditory evoked response would be MOST appropriate for detection of each of the following? Hemispheric laterality/asymmetry ADHD: Benefits of auditory training: Predisposition to alcoholism: Sensory gating:
Hemispheric laterality/asymmetry:AMLR ADHD: P3/P300 Benefits of auditory training: ALR/P1 Predisposition to alcoholism: P300/P3 Sensory gating: Pb/P50/P1
693
The speech-in-noise testing setup shown below is used when assessing?
Patients with SSD being assessed for cochlear implantation
694
what is the primary advantage of percutaneous implantable bone conduction devices?
They provide direct sound transmission for optimal signal delivery and secure retention, especially for active users
695
All of the following practices may lead to inappropriate recommendations regarding Cl candidacy, potentially resulting in either under- or over-qualifying patients, EXCEPT for: - Using 70 dBA as the presentation level for speech testing - Conducting aided speech testing in the soundfield without audiometer output calibration - Conducting aided speech assessment without hearing aid verifications - Isolating the test ear during assessment in the soundfield
Isolating the test ear during assessment in the soundfield
696
Which of the following patients would be considered an appropriate candidate for a bone-anchored hearing device due to SSD? - A patient with profound SNHL in the poorer ear and moderate SNHL in the better ear - A patient with profound SNHL in the poorer ear and mixed hearing loss not greater than 50 dB in the better ear - A patient with severe MHL in the poorer ear and PTA ≤ 20 dB HL in the better ear - A patient with profound SNHL in the poorer ear and PTA ≤ 20 dB HL in the better ear
A patient with profound SNHL in the poorer ear and PTA ≤ 20 dB HL in the better ear
697
Which FDA center is responsible for overseeing cochlear implant devices?
Center for Devices and Radiological Health
698
What is the current FDA-approved minimum age for cochlear implantation in children?
9 months
699
The Vibrant Soundbridge is a type of middle ear implant. What is the name of the component that directly vibrates the middle ear structures?
Floating Mass Transducer
700
Bone conduction hearing solutions are generally most effective for patients with CHL or MHL when the air-bone gap is at least:
30 dB
701
An electroacoustic stimulation (EAS) implant system is an appropriate solution for patients with _________ hearing loss.
high frequency
702
What is the primary benefit of bone conduction implants for individuals with SSD?
reduction of the head shadow effect
703
what is is an AUDITORY advantage of middle ear implants compared to traditional hearing aids?
they eliminate issues realted to ear canal occlusion and acoustic feedback
704
A 3-year-old child is referred for Cl candidacy evaluation. The child cannot complete open-set speech test. What is the most appropriate next step? - Attempt the CNC word test with parental support - Administer a closed-set speech perception measure such as the ESP or NU-CHIPS - Base candidacy solely on electrophysiologic test results - Reschedule testing in 6 months when the child is older
Administer a closed-set speech perception measure such as the ESP or NU-CHIPS
705
Which type of transducer used in middle ear implants is most likely to be affected by head and jaw movements?
Electromagnetic
706
In the U.S., who defines the candidacy criteria listed in the physician's package insert for Cl devices?
Device manufacturers
707
Which of the following is considered a true contraindication for cochlear implantation? - Prelingual deafness - Aplasia - Mild cognitive impairment - Previous history of meningitis
aplasia
708
Under Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) guidelines, what is the maximum allowable score on open-set sentence recognition in the best-aided condition for a candidate to qualify for Cl?
60%
709
Based on the appearance and design of the bone conduction device shown in the image below, it can be classified as:
Transcutaneous, passive, non-osseointegrated
710
Jessy Bennett, a pleasant 61-year-old woman, presents to the clinic for an audiologic evaluation. She reports congenital single-sided deafness in her left ear. Her primary concern is difficulty understanding speech in background noise, especially in social settings such as restaurants and large gatherings. She also expresses concern about the possibility of losing hearing in her right ear. Audiologic results are shown below.While more than one intervention could be considered, which of the following represents the most appropriate recommendation to optimize Jessy's auditory outcomes based on her case history and audiologic findings?
Recommend a formal trial with a bone conduction implant for the left ear to assess potential benefit
711
Changes in device design, labeling, or manufacturing often require submission of ______
premarker approval (PMA)
712
In a one-stage surgery, the implant and ________ are placed in a single operation.
abutment
713
The fixed part of the electromagnetic transducer is called the ______
Yoke
714
For Cl users, aided soundfield thresholds should ideally range from ______ to _____ dB HL across 250 to 6000 Hz using ________ stimuli
20-30 warble
715
Output calibration during aided speech testing in the soundfield is completed using ______ signal.
speech noise
716
What is the bone conduction candidacy for SSD
- poor ear profound SNHL (80+) - good ear PTA 20 dB or better
717
What is the bone conduction candidacy for CHL/MHL
- average BC less than or equal to 65 dB - average ABG greater than 30 dB
718
What is the bone conduction candidacy for percutanous device
- 5+ - CHL cant benefit from HA - MHL with mild-mod SNHL & BC thresholds 65 or better - skull thickness 2.5 mm
719
What is the bone conduction candidacy for a transcutanouse device
- 5+ - skull thickness 2.5 mm - skin thickness 3 mm - BC 45 or less
720
What is the traditional CI candidacy?
- 18+ - mod-profound bilateral SNHL (lows are more moderate and highs are profound) - limited HA benefit
721
What is the SSD/AHL CI candidacy?
- 5+ - unilateral severe-profound SNHL (poor ear) - normal or mild-mod SNHL (better ear) - limited HA benefit - CNC score less than 5%
722
What is the CI candidacy for children?
- bilateral severe-profound or profound SNHL - no HA benefit 3-6 months
723
What is the hybrid CI candidacy?
- 18+ - normal-moderate LH HL - severe to profound HF HL
724
Charlie Hearmore recently received a CI in his right ear and presents to your clinic for initial activation. His preoperative audiogram showed moderate low frequency hearing at 125 and 250 Hz. The surgical report notes that electrode array was inserted into the scala vestibuli. Charlie and his wife are optimistic about the outcome. Based on the advantages of electrode placement in the scala tympani, which of the following would be an appropriate expectation? - It is likely that Mr Hearmore will have reduced perception of speech stimuli due to electrode placement in the scala vestibule - Electrode placement in the scala vestibuli will have no impact on his benefit, as placement is irrelevant to overall outcomes - Mr. Hearmore will be able to hear through his implant, but the overall outcome is less likely to be optimal - Mr. Hearmore's residual hearing will most likely be lost, but that should not affect the overall outcome, as the Cl is designed to replace inner ear function
Mr. Hearmore will be able to hear through his implant, but the overall outcome is less likely to be optimal
725
What is the primary advantage of piezoelectric transducers used in middle ear implants
Limited output and narrow bandwidth
726
Which patient groups are evaluated using the following test setup?
Patients with bilateral severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss being considered for Cls
727
Michael, a 45-year-old adult, received a Nucleus 7 Cl in his left ear. At his six-month follow-up, he reports ongoing difficulty understanding speech despite consistent device use. Surgical records indicate that the electrode array was only partially inserted. Based on this information, which of the following best explains his current challenges, and what should the audiologist recommend? - Partial insertion may have limited loudness growth due to reduced dynamic range. Increasing overall volume to maximum will likely restore clarity - High-frequency information is now delivered to apical regions, leading to distorted pitch cues. Adjusting treble gain in the app may correct this - Partial insertion results in low-frequency input being mapped to more basal, high-frequency regions, causing spectral mismatch. Auditory training may help the brain adapt to the shifted input over time - Incomplete insertion prevents mid-frequency cues from being stimulated. Reducing bass gain in the app will realign frequency mapping and improve performance
Partial insertion results in low-frequency input being mapped to more basal, high-frequency regions, causing spectral mismatch. Auditory training may help the brain adapt to the shifted input over time
728
Sarah is a 24-month-old girl who received a Cl at 12 months due to bilateral profound sensorineural hearing loss. She initially demonstrated strong progress in speech and language development. However, over the past three months, her parents have observed a decline in her hearing performance. Sarah now refuses to wear her speech processor, tolerates it only briefly, and then begins crying as if in pain. Concerned, her parents brought her to the Cl audiologist. All objective testing confirmed that the device is functioning properly. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for Sarah's recent behavioral change and reduced implant use? - Typical behaviors associated with the "terrible twos" developmental stage - Implant soft failure - Middle ear infection - Overstimulation
implant soft failure
729
In patients with severe to profound SNHL who cannot benefit from traditional Cls, ABI may be considered. This device bypasses the damaged cochlea and auditory nerve, and directly stimulates the ________________
cochlear nucleus
730
A 30-year-old patient with conductive hearing loss and chronic middle ear effusion presents for a consultation to explore management options for her hearing loss. She previously trialed hearing aids but discontinued use due to persistent earwax buildup. She is now interested in middle ear implants, believing they may better align with her lifestyle preferences.. What is the most appropriate recommendation? - Recommend the Esteem MEl as a lifestyle-compatible solution - Discuss bone conduction devices as a more appropriate option given her middle ear status - Inform the patient that she is a candidate for MEl, but defer implantation until the effusion resolves - Review various MEl types, their benefits, and expected outcomes
Discuss bone conduction devices as a more appropriate option given her middle ear status
731
The dynamic range (DR) refers to the difference between the lower (T-level) and the upper (C-level) stimulation levels on each channel. When programming a Cl device, this range can help the audiologist evaluate whether the stimulation levels are appropriately set. Based on the DR shown in the MAP for a Cochlear Nucleus device below, which of the following statements is most accurate?
The patient is likely experiencing overstimulation because we want a dynamic range of only 40-60
732
ESRTs have become a standard part of Cl fitting in many clinics. Which parameter is most strongly correlated with ESRTs?
upper stimulation levels
733
In Cl programming, adjusting the pulse rate can significantly influence several aspects of auditory stimulation. A clinician's understanding of how pulse rate interacts with other parameters is essential for optimizing the patient's MAP. Which of the following parameters is inversely related to pulse rate?
pulse width
734
What is the primary objective of using a soft surgery approach in cochlear implantation?
To minimize intracochlear trauma and preserve residual hearing
735
Which of the following design limitations most directly restricts the number of usable intracochlear electrodes in a Cl array? - The trade-off between increasing electrode contacts and the risk of channel interaction - The physical size of the magnet in the receiver-stimulator package - The maximum allowable stimulation rate supported by current Cl hardware - MRI safety requirements and compatibility at 3 Tesla
The trade-off between increasing electrode contacts and the risk of channel interaction
736
Which of the following is most likely to cause a short circuit in a Cl electrode array? - Presence of an air bubble near the electrode tip - Fibrous tissue growth surrounding the electrode contacts - Broken lead wire - Kinked array causing contact between adjacent electrodes
Kinked array causing contact between adjacent electrodes
737
Which of the following statements about voltage compliance in Cls is true? - When an electrode exceeds voltage compliance, the system increases current to maintain loudness - Exceeding voltage compliance can lead to imbalanced loudness across the electrode array - Electrodes that exceed compliance limits are automatically disabled in the programming software - The supply voltage is not influenced by electrode impedance or surrounding tissue
Exceeding voltage compliance can lead to imbalanced loudness across the electrode array
738
What is the primary rationale for selecting a perimodiolar electrode array in cochlear implantation?
To position the electrode closer to the auditory nerve fibers for more focused stimulation
739
A 30-year-old ABI user with NF2 presents for her 1-year follow-up appointment. She reports increased awareness of environmental sounds and improved communication when combining auditory input with lip-reading. Her open-set sentence recognition score in quiet is 24%. What is the most appropriate counseling point?
Her performance is consistent with typical outcomes for ABI users with NF2
740
Why is the scala tympani is preferred over the scala vestibuli for Cl electrode placement?
- Closer proximity to spiral ganglion cell bodies - Lower risk of intracochlear trauma - Improved potential for residual hearing preservation
741
what are the 3 types of transducers that are used with MEI?
piezoelectric, electromagnetic, and electromechanical
742
what is a piezoelectric transducer, and how does it work?
this transducer possesses a unique property, as when they come in contact with electricity,y they oscillate -when they are coupled to the ME, the material delivers mechanical energy, converting sound-induced vibrations into electrical signals for processing -the intensity and frequency generated are proportional to the intensity and frequency of the driving force
743
what are the advantages of a piezoelectric transducers?
there is no external power source required, and they have relatively robust durability
744
what are the limitations/disadvantages of a piezoelectric transducers?
may not provide enough amplification due to limited output and a narrow bandwidth
745
what is an electromagnetic transducer, and how does it work?
this transducer features a biocompatible magnetic coupled to the ossicular chain or ME structure and is positioned near a wired coil within the canal -as an electrical current goes through the coil, it generates a fluctuating magnetic field, causing the magnet to oscillate and transfer mechanical energy to the ossicular chain -the magnet moving along with the ossicle,s giving a back-and-forth movement between the magnet/coil
746
what are the limitations/disadvantages of an electromagnetic transducers?
the output depends on the magnet-coil proximity -decreasing with longer distance -with this type of transducer, since the magnet is on the ossicular chain and the wire is in the canal, the fluctuations that occur depend on the proximity
747
why was the electromechanical transducer designed?
this transducer was designed to eliminate the limitation of distance with electromagnetic transducers -the coil and magnet are within one unit, ensuring mechanical energy transfer to the coupled structure within the ossicles
748
what are the advantages of an electromechanical transducers?
delivers higher output levels/wider frequency response and is not impacted by variable output due to changes in magnet coil distance
749
what are the limitations/disadvantages of an electromechanical transducers?
complex design and is more prone to mechanical failure
750
what is apgar?
evaluation that all newborns receive shortly after birth to detect obvious abnormalities -used to identify if the baby is in distress -based on heart rate, respiratory effort, reflex irritability, muscle tone and color
751
when does the cochlea begin to function
24-26 weeks -the auditory nerve is hooked up
752
what are the red flags that indicate potential issues in speech and auditory development
no babbling or gesturing by 12 months, no single words by 16 months, no 2 word combinations by 24 months, no 3 word combinations by 3 years, unintelligible speech at 3, limited number of consonants at 2 years, simplified grammar at 3.5 years, difficulty formulating ideas and using vocab at 4 years and language not used communicatively
753
conditioned play audiometry (CPA)
method of testing hearing in toddlers and preschoolers through conditioned motor response to sound using game activities -ages 30 months to 5 years
754
what are the three types of responders
false responders, reluctant responders and off responders
755
NU-CHIPS
closed set picture pointing, scored as a percentage -ages 3 to 5
756
WIPI
consists of picture plates containing 6 images with 4 rhyming -ages 5 to 8
757
PBK-50
open set, scored as a percentage and required a verbal response -ages 5 to 8
758
BKB-SIN
speech in noise test that uses sentences that are recorded in four talker babble on the same channel of the CD -ages 5+
759
visual reinforcement audiometry (VRA)
audiometric technique that involves training the infant to make a conditioned head turn in response to a stimulus -5/6 months to 36 months -child needs to be able to turn their head to identify the sound
760
behavioral observational audiometry (BOA)
measuring an infant's awareness of sound, it doesn't provide threshold information -birth to 6 months, but can be used on older children with developmental delays or other disorders preventing body responses
761
if you see up-beating nystagmus which SCC is affected?
posterior SCC
762
if you see down-beating nystagmus which SCC is affected?
anterior SCC
763
if you see tosional nystagmus which SCC is affected?
anterior or posterior SCC
764
if you see geotropic or ageotropic nystagmis which SCC is affected?
horizontal scc
765
Ampullopetal
toward the ampulla
766
Ampullofugal
away from the ampulla
767
what is gain? (vestib)
eye movement relative to something else head impulse →eye movement relative to head movement rotary → eye movement relative to chair movement pursuits → eye movement relative to target moving in front
768
tell me about the romberg
Performed as part of a neuro exam to evaluate balance, proprioception (requires healthy function of dorsal colums in spinal cord & location of joints), and coordination (ataxia)
769
what is the dix-hallpike
a test that assess for PC/AC BPPV
770
what is the supine head roll
it is a positional test that assesses for HC BPPV
771
what is the static positional nystagmus criteria ?criteria needed
1. Nystagmus that changes direction in any head position 2. It is present in at least 3 head positions 3. It is intermittent in all head positions (little here, little there) 4. One or more positions that has a slow phase magnitude (velocity) >/=4-6 deg/s
772
what is the epley
most treatment for canalithiasis AC/PC BPPV
773
what is the semont
treatment for cupulolithiasis AC/PC BPPV
774
what is the BBQ roll?
treatment for horizontal canal BPPV used for the geotropic/canalithiasis variant
775
what is the gufoni
treatment for horizontal canal BPPV used for the ageotropic/cupulolithiasis variant
776
what is the difference between canalithiasis and cupulothiasis symptoms
canalithiasis is a delayed onset and lasts for less than a minute cupulothiasis is an immediate onset and doesn't fatigue
777
if you are performing dix hallpike and see Delayed onset, upward & rightward torsional fast phases, & <1min response duration, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
canalithiasis, posterior SCC treatment = epley
778
if you are performing dix hallpike and see Immediate onset, upward & rightward torsional fast phases, >1min response duration, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
cupulothiasis, posterior SCC treatment = semont
779
if you are performing dix hallpike and see Delayed onset, downward & leftward torsional fast phases, <1min response duration, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
canalithiasis, anterior SCC treatment = epley
780
if you are performing dix hallpike and see Immediate onset, downward & leftward torsional fast phases, >1min response duration, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
cupulothiasis, anterior SCC treatment = semont
781
if you are performing the supine head roll and see Horizontal, geotropic fast phases (toward down ear), stronger w/ R ear down, may have delayed onset & will fatigue over time, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
canalithiasis, horizontal SCC treatment = BBQ roll
782
if you are performing the supine head roll and see, Horizontal, ageotropic fast phases(beats away from ear down), stronger w/ L ear down, more immediate onset & longer response duration, what type of BPPV is it and what is the treatment?
cupulothiasis, horizontal SCC treatment = modified semont
783
what is a good apgar score?
7 and above
784
at what age can you begin using an open set test?
5 years old
785
how do you identify a soft failure?
occurs after evaluation by the CI team and manufacturer -can only be confirmed by a removal examination
786
what is implant soft failure and what will it look like? symptoms?
an uncommon occurrence in which the device malfunction is suspected but cannot be proven -declining performance, aversive symptoms such as popping or shocking and intermittent function
787
what is implant hard failure?
when a device malfunction is suspected and indeed confirmed with the available assessment tools
788
what needs to be present for a hard failure
implant integrity testing shows device malfunction AND a noticeable drop in a patients performance
789
differentiate exogenous vs. endogenous responses
exogenous: early and mids ; an obligatory response endogenous: most lates ; arising from components that depend on cognitive processing
790
what is the moro reflex
also known as the startle reflex, it is a normal, involuntary reaction in newborns. triggered by a sudden loss of support or a loud noise causing the baby to extend their ams and legs and quickly rin them back in. this reflex typically disappears by 3-6 months.
791
when do you do a closed vs. open set test?
Closed-set tests are typically used for individuals with limited language or speech production skills, or when assessing specific aspects of auditory perception, like phoneme recognition, in a controlled environment. Open-set tests are used when a more comprehensive assessment of real-world listening and speech understanding is desired
792
What waves are in each section for ABR, AMLR, ALR/P300? What msec does each wave occur?
793
when does PAM occur?
12-20 ms. similar to wave Na which occurs at 18-20 ms
794
the crying phase occurs?
birth to 6 weeks
795
the cooing phase occurs?
7 weeks to 3 months
796
babbling occurs?
after 4 months
797
the first understanding of language occurs?
8-10 months
798
first words occur?
approx 12 months
799
the first 50 words occur?
18 months
800
a vocabulary spurt occurs?
18-20 months
801
two-word sentences occur?
24 months
802
the developement of grammer occurs?
after 30 months
803
if there is a problem in the outer ear what results will you see?
CHL, SRT in agreement with PTA, normal WRS, abnormal tympanograms, present/absent OAEs, & present/abnormal/elevated ARTs
804
what do the audiologic results look like for ramsey hunt?
tinnitus, vertigo normal tymps, abnormal or absent reflexes on the affected side, unilateral sudden onset of SNHL or normal hearing, WRS/SRT abnormal or normal, ABR normal or prolonged waves I-III absolute latencies
805
what do the audiologic results look like for otitis externa
Type B or A tymps, Normal or CHL, SRT matching HL but with normal WRS, present/absent OAEs, ARTs present or elevated/absent
806
what do the audiologic results look like for keratosis obturans
CHL, Type B tymps w/ SECV, Elevated SRT & normal WRS, absent/elevated ARTs, Absent, reduced OAEs
807
if there is a problem in the middle ear what results will you see?
acoustic reflexes are absent or abnormal
808
what do the audiologic results look like for otitis media
otoscopy (Bulging or retracted TM, discolored, Perforations, Fluid lines/bubbles, & Discharge), Immittance, Type B tymp (High ECV w/ perf or Normal ECV intact TM) OR Type C tymp (ET dysfunction), ARTs with UNILATERAL OM will be abnormal/absent on affected side of ipsi & Elevated/abnormal contra, ARTs with BILATERAL OM will be Ipsi and contras bilaterally abnormal or absent, Pure tones can be WNL/CHL/MHL/SNHL, SRT & PTA in agreement, WRS normal
809
what do the audiologic results look like for a cholesteatoma
otoscopy normal or perforation, pure tones can be WNL/MHL they can also be conductive if ossicular disarticulation has occured Immittance Depending on size, location, and what has been damaged A = normal As = stiffness in ME cavity Ad = ossicular disarticulation B LECV = perf & ME space is filled B HECV = perf & ME not filled
810
what do the audiologic results look like for otosclerosis
Otoscopy usually normal but can have the schwatze sign (reddish glow to the TM), only middle ear disrder with normal tymps, ARTs abnormal or absent, tone decay is negative (tests retrocochlear)
811
what do the audiologic results look like for ossicular disarticulation
Otoscopy normal/performation/bleeding from the ears, type Ad tymps, abnormal ARTs, Pure tones CHL & MHL
812
what do the audiologic results look like for glomus typanicum
Pulsatile tinnitus, red ™ & CHL, SNHL, FN dysfunction, vertigo, smaller w/ earlier symptoms
813
what do the audiologic results look like for glomus jugulare
Silent for years, grows large, CHL/SNHL/MHL, otalgia, aural fullness, vertigo, hoarseness & dysphagia
814
if there is a problem in the inner ear what results will you see?
SNHL
815
what do the audiologic results look like for cytonmegalovirus (CMV)
otoscopy is normal, pure tones will be late onset, progressive & profound SNHL by age 3-5 (CI candidates)
816
what do the audiologic results look like for meningitis
normal otoscopy, normal tymps, sudden onset bilateral/unilateral SNHL, poor WRS ARTs Affected ear = absent/elevated ipsi & contra Unaffected ear = normal ipsi & contras
817
what do the audiologic results look like for Noise-Induced Hearing Loss vs. Presbycusis
NIHL: Temporary threshold shift (TTS): reversible shift that can resolve 15 mins after exposure or persists up to 14 hours OR Permanent threshold shift (PTS): persistent change in sensitivity, persists after approx. 14 hrs Presbycusis: Slow progressive HF sloping SNHL seen in older PTs
818
what do the audiologic results look like for SSCD
Normal ARTs since it is not a true ME pathology, so there isn’t a true ABG CHL or fluctuating HL mimicking OTSC or Meniere’s Most have LF ABG from 250-1000 Hz *not a true CHL because BC bypasses the dehiscence, causing artificially large ABGs even with normal ME
819
what do the audiologic results look like for MS
SNHL is neither an initial symptom or a prominent one but you might see a bilateral low-frequency rising hearing loss
820
what do the audiologic results look like for shwannoma
nilateral HF SNHL (asymmetry), tone decay can be positive, OAE are probably normal as long as the hearing loss is not significant, WRS worse than expected especially in noise, positive rollover ratio, normal tymps, ARTs can be abnormal/absent (not 100% sensitive for finding schwannomas), abnormal ABR (increased wave 5 latency & interwave latencies)
821
what do the audiologic results look like for ANSD
Pure tones any configuration & severity, Poor WRS in noise, absent reflexes, ECochG - absent, ABR - absent w/ presence of CM with reversal of polarities OAEs Present (unless ischemia) Absent contralateral suppression
822
what do the audiologic results look like for meneires
Audiological findings: normal tymps, ARTs present but lower SL, ECochG - >.42 SP/AP ratio Pure tones Usually unilateral but some bilateral Early - LF rising SNHL Middle - reverse cookie bite Late (burnout) - flat severe SNHL & rarely progressing
823
for a cochlear hearing loss in the left ear what reflexes would be present
right ipsi and contra reflex values would be low
824
for a retrocochlear hearing loss on the left side what reflexes would be present
right ispi and contra reflexes values would be high
825
for a conductive hearing loss in the left ear what reflexes would be present
right ipsi and left contra
826
for a brainstem pathology what reflexes would be present
ispi of both ears
827
for a facial nerve problem on the left side what reflexes would be present
left contra and right ipsi
828
for ANSD what reflexes would be present
nothing
829
What are you measuring in R ipsi ARTs and what does the set up look like
testing r ART stim - right probe - right
830
What are you measuring in R contra ARTs and what does the set up look like
testing L ART stim - right probe - left
831
What are you measuring in L ipsi ARTs and what does the set up look like
testing L ART stim - left probe - left
832
What are you measuring in L contra ARTs and what does the set up look like
testing R ART stim - left probe - right
833
what is normal for unilateral weakness
below 20-25% is normal for unilateral weakness
834
what is normal for directional preponderance?
below 30-35% is normal for directional preponderance
835
what is abnormal for total eye speed?
anything less than 26
836
whats alexanders phenomenon?
when the patients nystagmus increases when they look the same way of the beating & decreases or is eliminated when they look the opposite way. in order for it to be alexanders law they MUST have central gaze nystagmus
837
what is interstimulus interval and why does it matter?
time bw each stimulus Why it matters (refractory periods) Too short = neural elements do not recover and miss or have weak waves Long enough = full neural recover and have clearer, stronger responses
838
CAPD & ADHD
ADHD is top down and has vision issues while CAPD is bottom up
839
CAPD & Developmental learning disability
depends on who they are sent to, we would diagnose as CAPD while a SLP would say learning disability. No significant performance differences
840
CAPD & Dyslexia
reading issues
841
CAPD & ANSD
ANSD will have abnormal ABR
842
CAPD & Central Deafness
pure tones and WRS scores will be inconsistent in central deafness. can hear but dont understand so would do bad WRS
843
how does the ASSR vary from the ABR?
stimulus: ASSR is a continuous tone with variations, ABR is a transient stimuli measurement: ASSR is time locked to a period of time, ABR is time locked to a stimulus detection: ASSR is looking at phase and amplitude, ABR is looking at latency
844
what are the similarities between ASSR and the ABR?
both are EPs, both can be used to estimate thresholds for patients who cannot do behavioral measures, same electrode set ups
845
what are the differences between ABR and ASSR?
ASSR can assess multiple frequencies in both ears at once, ASSR can assess hearing at higher stimulus levels (up to 100-120), ASSR is measured in nanovolts whereas ABR is measured in microvolts
846
tell me about the neural generators of the ASSR
-at slower modulation rates we are assessing the auditory cortex -at faster modulation rates we are assessing the brainstem