Chapter 7 - Storage Devices

Question 1

What are the two major internal HDD interfaces?

Answer 1

SATA (Serial ATA) and SAS (Serial Attached SCSI).

Question 2

Which storage device uses nonvolatile flash memory with no moving parts?

Answer 2

SSD (Solid-State Drive).

Question 3

What drive type combines a spinning disk with flash cache?

Answer 3

SSHD (Solid-State Hybrid Drive).

Question 4

What are the two common HDD form factors in PCs/laptops?

Answer 4

3.5-inch and 2.5-inch.

Question 5

What is a ‘head crash’ in an HDD?

Answer 5

When a read/write head contacts the platter, risking data loss.

Question 6

What is the maximum link rate of SATA 3 (SATA III)?

Answer 6

6 Gb/s (about 600 MB/s theoretical).

Question 7

Which slot provides the fastest consumer SSD performance?

Answer 7

M.2 slot using PCIe/NVMe (typically x4).

Question 8

NVMe stands for ____ and benefits SSDs by ____.

Answer 8

Non-Volatile Memory Express; reducing latency and increasing throughput over PCIe.

Question 9

What are the two required steps after installing a new drive?

Answer 9

Partition the drive, then perform a high-level format.

Question 10

Which Windows file system supports encryption, compression, quotas, and permissions?

Answer 10

NTFS.

Question 11

Which Apple file system is used across macOS, iOS, iPadOS, and supports strong encryption?

Answer 11

APFS (Apple File System).

Question 12

Which Windows tool manages partitions and volumes?

Answer 12

Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc).

Question 13

What is a ‘spanned volume’ in Windows?

Answer 13

A JBOD volume that extends across multiple disks with no fault tolerance.

Question 14

Which RAID level stripes data for performance but no redundancy?

Answer 14

RAID 0.

Question 15

Which RAID level mirrors data for fault tolerance?

Answer 15

RAID 1.

Question 16

Which RAID level stripes with parity and needs at least three disks?

Answer 16

RAID 5.

Question 17

What does ‘hot-swappable’ mean for a drive?

Answer 17

It can be added/removed while the system is powered on (hardware/OS support required).

Question 18

What Windows feature aggregates disks into flexible virtual disks?

Answer 18

Storage Spaces.

Question 19

Which tool checks a drive for file-system errors and bad sectors?

Answer 19

Error Checking GUI or chkdsk.

Question 20

What is file fragmentation on an HDD?

Answer 20

File clusters are scattered non-contiguously, slowing access.

Question 21

Which tool consolidates files on HDDs to improve performance?

Answer 21

Optimize Drives (defragmentation for HDDs).

Question 22

Why should you not defragment an SSD?

Answer 22

It adds unnecessary writes that reduce SSD lifespan with no benefit; use TRIM/Optimize instead.

Question 23

If UEFI detects a new drive but the OS does not, what likely step was missed?

Answer 23

Initializing and partitioning the drive.

Question 24

What do loud clicking/grinding noises from an HDD suggest?

Answer 24

Impending failure—back up immediately and replace.

Question 25

What does a S.M.A.R.T. alert indicate?

Answer 25

Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology predicts possible drive failure.

Question 26

A 'No boot device' error: what should you check first?

Answer 26

Boot order and that the correct boot disk is selected.

Question 27

What are the two major internal HDD interfaces (recall)?

Answer 27

SATA and SAS.

Question 28

Which SSD form factor plugs directly into a motherboard slot and comes in lengths like 2242/2260/2280?

Answer 28

M.2 (NGFF).

Question 29

What is the advantage of NVMe over SATA for SSDs?

Answer 29

Lower latency and higher IOPS/bandwidth via PCIe.

Question 30

What are the two main steps to prepare a new disk in Windows?

Answer 30

Create partitions; format with a file system.

Question 31

MBR vs GPT: key differences?

Answer 31

MBR: up to 4 primary partitions and ~2 TB limit; GPT: many partitions and very large disks (UEFI boot).

Question 32

Which Windows file system is preferred for removable flash media?

Answer 32

exFAT (better than FAT32 for large files).

Question 33

What is a spanned volume also called?

Answer 33

JBOD (Just a Bunch of Disks).

Question 34

RAID 0: main benefit and risk?

Answer 34

High performance; zero fault tolerance.

Question 35

RAID 1: storage efficiency?

Answer 35

~50% (since data is duplicated).

Question 36

RAID 5: fault tolerance characteristic?

Answer 36

Can survive a single disk failure; rebuild required.

Question 37

Which RAID level combines mirroring and striping (min 4 disks)?

Answer 37

RAID 10 (1+0).

Question 38

Why is RAID not a backup?

Answer 38

It doesn’t protect against deletion, corruption, ransomware, or site loss.

Question 39

What utility is used for drive tasks like create/format/extend partitions?

Answer 39

Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc).

Question 40

What does chkdsk /f do?

Answer 40

Fixes file-system errors.

Question 41

What does chkdsk /r do?

Answer 41

Locates bad sectors and recovers readable data (implies /f).

Question 42

What is the M.2 size code '2280'?

Answer 42

22 mm wide, 80 mm long.

Question 43

What do M.2 key types indicate?

Answer 43

Physical notches and interface: B-key (often SATA/PCIe x2), M-key (PCIe x4), B+M (compatibility; often SATA).

Question 44

Can an M.2 drive be SATA or NVMe?

Answer 44

Yes; M.2 is a form factor—drives may be SATA or PCIe/NVMe.

Question 45

What is U.2 (SFF-8639)?

Answer 45

A 2.5-inch enterprise SSD connector for PCIe/NVMe over cable/backplane.

Question 46

What SATA feature improves random I/O by reordering commands?

Answer 46

NCQ (Native Command Queuing).

Question 47

What command helps SSDs manage free space?

Answer 47

TRIM (allows efficient garbage collection).

Question 48

Which Windows tool issues TRIM to SSDs?

Answer 48

Optimize Drives (on SSDs it sends TRIM, not classic defrag).

Question 49

SATA data vs power connector pin counts?

Answer 49

Data: 7-pin; Power: 15-pin.

Question 50

What is eSATA?

Answer 50

External SATA interface (data only; power provided separately).

Question 51

Which interface is typical for enterprise HDD/SSD backplanes with dual-port and full-duplex?

Answer 51

SAS.

Question 52

Can a SAS controller use SATA drives?

Answer 52

Yes; SAS is backward-compatible with SATA (but not vice versa).

Question 53

Typical SAS link rates?

Answer 53

12 Gb/s common (higher in newer revisions).

Question 54

What is the typical max real throughput of SATA SSDs?

Answer 54

~550 MB/s (limited by SATA 6 Gb/s).

Question 55

Typical NVMe Gen3 x4 max throughput?

Answer 55

Up to ~3.5 GB/s.

Question 56

Typical NVMe Gen4 x4 max throughput?

Answer 56

Up to ~7 GB/s.

Question 57

What Windows command opens the Defrag/Optimize GUI?

Answer 57

dfrgui.exe.

Question 58

What is DiskPart used for?

Answer 58

Command-line disk partitioning and volume management.

Question 59

What is the difference between Basic and Dynamic disks?

Answer 59

Basic uses partitions; Dynamic supports simple/spanned/striped/mirrored/RAID-5 volumes.

Question 60

What is a 'simple volume'?

Answer 60

A volume on a single dynamic disk.

Question 61

What is a 'striped volume' in Windows dynamic disks?

Answer 61

RAID 0 across disks (no fault tolerance).

Question 62

What is a 'mirrored volume' in Windows dynamic disks?

Answer 62

RAID 1 across two disks.

Question 63

Storage Spaces resiliency options include ____.

Answer 63

Simple (no resiliency), Two-way mirror, Three-way mirror, and Parity.

Question 64

Which file system has a 4 GB single-file limit?

Answer 64

FAT32.

Question 65

What is the recommended Windows file system for internal system drives?

Answer 65

NTFS.

Question 66

Linux’s most common file system today?

Answer 66

ext4.

Question 67

What is the purpose of the Windows 'Initialize Disk' prompt?

Answer 67

Select MBR or GPT and prepare a new disk for partitioning.

Question 68

What is the main benefit of GPT for modern systems?

Answer 68

Supports very large disks and more partitions; required for UEFI boot.

Question 69

What is 'sector size 4K (Advanced Format)'?

Answer 69

Drives using 4096-byte sectors for efficiency; modern OSes align partitions properly.

Question 70

What is wear leveling on SSDs?

Answer 70

Controller technique to spread writes across cells to extend life.

Question 71

What do TBW and DWPD indicate?

Answer 71

Endurance ratings: Total Bytes Written and Drive Writes Per Day.

Question 72

What is 'garbage collection' on SSDs?

Answer 72

Background consolidation/erase of blocks to prepare for new writes.

Question 73

What is 'thermal throttling' on NVMe SSDs?

Answer 73

Automatic speed reduction when overheating to protect the drive.

Question 74

What is a Self-Encrypting Drive (SED)?

Answer 74

A drive with hardware encryption (e.g., TCG Opal).

Question 75

What is 'secure erase' for SSDs?

Answer 75

ATA Secure Erase or NVMe Format/Sanitize to reset all cells.

Question 76

What should you check if a new NVMe drive doesn’t appear as a boot option?

Answer 76

UEFI/NVMe support enabled and drive initialized; some boards require UEFI (not Legacy).

Question 77

An M.2 slot shares bandwidth with SATA ports. What symptom might you see?

Answer 77

A specific SATA port is disabled when an M.2 device is installed.

Question 78

What simple best practice protects data on failing drives?

Answer 78

Maintain regular, verified backups.

Question 79

What is the safest first step before installing an internal SSD/HDD?

Answer 79

Power off the PC and unplug the power cord.

Question 80

What partition type on MBR can contain logical drives?

Answer 80

An extended partition.

Question 81

How many primary partitions can MBR have?

Answer 81

Up to four (or three plus one extended).

Question 82

What is a 'logical drive' in MBR?

Answer 82

A volume inside the extended partition.

Question 83

What Windows tool shows disk health/S.M.A.R.T. quickly?

Answer 83

Device Manager (disk properties) or vendor tools; third-party SMART tools are common.

Question 84

What is a 'hot spare' in RAID?

Answer 84

An idle disk that automatically replaces a failed member.

Question 85

What is rebuild time risk in RAID 5?

Answer 85

A second disk failure during rebuild can cause data loss.

Question 86

What does 'write penalty' mean with parity RAID?

Answer 86

Extra I/O overhead to compute and write parity (slower writes).

Question 87

What is the first check if an internal SSD is not recognized in UEFI?

Answer 87

Confirm the port/slot is enabled and cables/seat are secure.

Question 88

What Windows tool helps reclaim space to fix 'insufficient disk space' errors?

Answer 88

Disk Cleanup (cleanmgr) or Storage Sense.

Question 89

What command verifies and repairs protected system files?

Answer 89

sfc /scannow.

Question 90

What environmental factors increase HDD failure risk?

Answer 90

Heat, vibration, dust, smoke, power issues, strong magnets.

Question 91

What type of storage is best in harsh, high-vibration environments?

Answer 91

SSD (no moving parts).

Question 92

What is the difference between 'Initialize' and 'Format'?

Answer 92

Initialize sets partition style (MBR/GPT); format creates a file system on a volume.

Question 93

What is the default optimization Windows performs on SSDs?

Answer 93

TRIM/SSD optimization (not traditional defrag).

Question 94

What is RAID 6?

Answer 94

Striping with dual parity; survives two disk failures (needs 4+ disks).

Question 95

Which RAID level typically offers the highest read/write throughput?

Answer 95

RAID 0 (no redundancy).

Question 96

What is the main benefit of RAID 10 over RAID 5?

Answer 96

Better write performance and resilience (can survive certain two-disk failures).

Question 97

What is the usual cause if a new drive letter does not appear after creating a volume?

Answer 97

No drive letter assigned; assign one in Disk Management or mount as a folder.

Question 98

What is 'mounting a volume as a folder'?

Answer 98

Assigning a volume to an NTFS folder path instead of a drive letter.

Question 99

What is NAS?

Answer 99

Network Attached Storage: file-level storage over a network (e.g., SMB/NFS).

Question 100

What is SAN (e.g., iSCSI)?

Answer 100

Storage Area Network: block-level storage presented to hosts over a network.

Question 101

Optical media capacities (typical)?

Answer 101

CD ~700 MB, single-layer DVD ~4.7 GB, single-layer BD ~25 GB.

Question 102

What is tape storage primarily used for?

Answer 102

Cost-effective, high-capacity backups (sequential access).

Question 103

What Windows message indicates a new disk is seen but uninitialized?

Answer 103

'Unknown, Not Initialized' in Disk Management.

Question 104

What tool shows per-disk performance and queue length?

Answer 104

Resource Monitor (Disk tab) or Performance Monitor.

Question 105

What is 'bit rot' and how to mitigate?

Answer 105

Gradual data decay; mitigate with regular scrubs/checksums and backups.

Question 106

What should you do immediately after hearing repeated HDD clicks?

Answer 106

Stop heavy I/O, back up critical data, plan replacement.

Question 107

What does 'Optimize Drives' do for HDDs vs SSDs?

Answer 107

HDDs: defrag; SSDs: send TRIM and retrim operations.

Question 108

What BIOS/UEFI SATA mode is recommended for modern drives?

Answer 108

AHCI (or RAID if using a RAID setup).

Question 109

What can happen if you switch SATA mode after OS install?

Answer 109

OS may fail to boot unless drivers/registry are prepared.

Question 110

If a USB installer won’t boot despite being first in order, what should you try?

Answer 110

Recreate the bootable USB and ensure UEFI vs Legacy matches firmware settings.

Question 111

What is the best defense against data loss and corruption?

Answer 111

Regular, tested backups with versioning and offsite copies.