CLS INTERNSHIP > Coag Self Study > Flashcards

Coag Self Study Flashcards

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1
Q

The final stage of the coagulation pathway involves the conversion of:

A

Factor I to fibrin clot

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2
Q

Hyperfibrinogenemia may develop in:

A

Late stages of pregnancy

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3
Q

Prothrombin in:

A

A Protein formed by the liver in the presence of Vitamin K

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4
Q

Which of the following coagulation factors is considered to be labile?

A

V

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5
Q

Which of the following is Vitamin-K dependent:

A

Factor VII

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6
Q

Which of the following diseases show decreased activity of factor VIII:C ?

A

Hemophilia A

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7
Q

Which coagulation disorder has decreased activity of factor VIII:C, vWF:Ag, vWFR:Co and a prolonged PFA-100 test?

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

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8
Q

The following lab data was obtained from a 40-year-old woman with a long history of abnormal bleeding: PT=Normal; PTT=Prolonged; Factor VIII coagulant activity=Decreased; Factor VIII related antigen=Markedly decreased; Platelet count=Normal; PFA-100=Abnormal closure time with ADP and epinephrine collagen cartridges.
Which of the following disorders does this woman most likely have:

A

Von Willebrand disease

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9
Q

The following lab data were obtained from a 27-year-old man with a long history of abnormal bleeding: PT=Normal; PTT-Markedly prolonged; Factor VIII coagulation activity=Markedly decreased; Factor VIII related antigen=Normal; Platelet count=Normal; PFA-100=Normal.
Which of the following disorders does this man most likely have:

A

Classic hemophilia

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10
Q

A defect in factor IX causes which of the following diseases?

A

Hemophilia B

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11
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Factor XII deficiency?

A

Negative bleeding history

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12
Q

Factor XIII is activated by:

A

Thrombin

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13
Q

The most accurate screening test for factor XIII deficiency is:

A

The 5M urea clot stability test

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14
Q

A patient has a normal prothrombin time and a prolonged aPTT using a kaolin activator. The aPPT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These results suggest the patient has:

A

Fletcher factor deficiency (Prekallikrein)

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15
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents with chronic ear infections and is on prophylactic antibiotics. He presents with bleeding. Factor assays reveal: Factor VIII=100%; Factor V=75%; Factor IX=38%; Factor II=22%. What is the cause?

A

Vitamin K deficiency

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16
Q

True or False: Plasma from a patient with lupus coagulation inhibitor can show a prolonged PT and normal PTT.

A

false

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17
Q

Which of the following is considered a low phospholipid test for LLA identification:

A

Dilute Russell’s viper venom time

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18
Q

The factor defect that has a normal aPTT and a prolonged PT is:

A

Factor VII

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19
Q

The dissolution of a clot with 5M urea is an indication of which factor deficiency?

A

Factor XIII

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20
Q

Which of the following can produce defects that lead to impairment of the coagulation system?

A

Decreased factor synthesis
b) Interference of abnormal molecules
c) Loss, consumption, or inactivation of factors

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21
Q

Which of the following is not an inherited vascular defect?

A

Amyloidosis

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22
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

Giant Platelets

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23
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic for Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

Abnormal platelet aggregation in response to ADP collagen, and epinephrine

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?

A

Giant platelets with thrombocytopenia

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25
Lab results on a 6-year-old female with petechiae and severe epistaxis are as follows: Platelet count: 145 x 109/L PFA=100 > prolonged closure time with both ADP/EPI collagen cartridges MPV 16 fL (reference range 8-10 fL) Platelet aggregation Normal response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine; no response with ristocetin PT = 11.5 sec aPTT = 33 sec These results are consistent with:
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
25
Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann thrombasthenia?
Markedly decreased aggregation to ephinephrine, ADP and collagen
26
What disorders are classically associated with thrombocytosis?
Myeloproliferative syndromes
27
Primary thrombocytosis would be indicated by a platelet count of:
> 1 million
28
A patient who demonstrates successful treatment of acquired TTP by plasma exchange (plasmapheresis) would be expected to show a decrease in levels of what?
LDH
29
TTP is best treated using plasma exchange with what type of blood product?
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
30
What enzyme is responsible for cleaving large multimers of Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) and is implicated in the pathogenesis of TTP?
A disintegrin and metalloproteinase with a thrombospondin type 1 motif, member 13 (ADAMTS13)
31
What red blood cell morphology on peripheral smear evaluation is most suggestive of TTP?
Schistocytes
32
True or False. The classic pentad of symptoms: Thrombocytopenia, fever, renal disease, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and neurologic complications are hallmark characteristics of TTP.
true
33
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is an immune mediated complication associated with heparin therapy. Antibodies are produced against:
PF4
34
Which of the following statement is not true regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITP)?
Platelet counts are generally higher than in chronic ITP
35
Which is the most characteristic manifestation of a platelet disorder?
Mucosal bleeds
36
The activation of plasminogen to plasmin resulting in the degradation of fibrin occurs by:
tPa
37
The primary inhibitor of the Plasmin is:
Alpa 2 – plasmin inhibitor
38
D-Dimer formation is the result of the action of the plasmin on:
Cross-linked fibrin
39
Acute dissemination intravascular coagulation is characterized by:
Hypofibrinogenemia
40
A patient develops unexpected bleeding and the following test results were obtained: PT and PTT=Prolonged; Fibrinogen=Decreased; D Dimer=Increased; Platelets=Decreased. What is the most probable cause of these results?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
41
A patient develops severe unexpected bleeding following four transfusions. The following test results were obtained: PT and PTT=Prolonged; Platelets=50 x 10˄3/uL; Fibrinogen=30 mg/dL; D Dimer=Increased. Given these results, which of the following blood products would not be recommended to the physician for this patient?
Fibrinolytic inhibitors
42
All of the following are associated with HUS except:
Thrombocytosis
43
A 52-year-old man with prostate cancer is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe bleeding problems. The following lab results are obtained: PT=Prolonged; PTT=Prolonged; Fibrinogen=Decreased; TT=Prolonged; D-Dimer= Negatie; FDP=Positive; Antithrombin=Normal; RBC morphology=Schistocytes absent; Platelet count=Normal The lab results are consistent with:
Primary fibrinogenolysis
44
In primary fibrinolysis, which laboratory test(s) will be normal?
Firinopeptide A Platelet count
45
Normal platelets have a circulating life-span of approximately how many days?
10 days
46
Alpha granules are found on the platelet in:
Organelle zone
47
True or False: Organelle zone is responsible for metabolic activities of the platelet.
true
48
Which event is NOT involved in the normal formation of the platelet plug?
secondary hemostasis
49
What product is responsible for stabilization of the hemostatic plug?
Fibrin/Factor XIII
50
Aspirin affects platelet function by interfering with platelets’ metabolism of:
Prostaglandins
51
A patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which of the following test is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
PFA-100
52
Which of the following factors are unique to the extrinsic system?
III, VII
53
What events take place in the extrinsic system?
Activation of factor VII to VIIa in the presence of CA 2+ and factor III
54
Which of the following factors are unique to the intrinsic system?
Factors XII, XI, IX, VII, Fletcher, Fitzgerald
55
Name the factor found in the common pathway?
Factor XII
56
Which of the following is a function of the thrombin?
Activation of factor XIII to stabilize fibrinolysis
57
What is the function of plasmin?
Destruction of fibrin
58
Which of the following are classified as contact group proteins?
Factors XII, XI, PK, HMWK
59
What factors are classified as prothrombin group proteins?
Factors II, VII, IX, X
60
What factors are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?
Factors II, VII, IX, X
61
Which of the following is NOT classified as a fibrinogen group proteins?
HMWK
62
Which of the following is the most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis?
Quantitative abnormality of platelets
63
What is the purpose of the PT test in monitoring hemostasis?
Measures factors of the extrinsic pathway
64
What is the purpose of the APTT test in monitoring hemostasis?
Detects deficiency of factors for both intrinsic and common pathways.
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