D3 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

A dewatering operation that makes use of a cylindrical tank with a large diameter. It is often used as the first step in dewatering.
  a. Pressure filtration
  b. Rotary drying
  c. Thickening
  d. Air drying

A

c. Thickening

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2
Q

A mineral processing plant floats 500 tonnes of ore per hour to recover copper in the form of chalcopyrite and the ratio between the concentrate and feed is 0.10. What is the hourly tonnage of the tailings?
  a. 425
  b. 400
  c. 440
  d. 450

A

d. 450

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3
Q

A mineral processing plant floats 500 tonnes of ore per hour to recover copper in the form of chalcopyrite. The feed grade is 4% Cu, the concentrate grade is 35% Cu, and the tailings grade is 0.56% Cu. Additionally, the ratio between the concentrate and feed is 0.10. What is the copper recovery of the operation?
  a. 85.2%
  b. 87.5%
  c. 84.4%
  d. 89.0%

A

b. 87.5%

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4
Q

A mineral processing plant floats 500 tonnes of ore per hour to recover copper in the form of chalcopyrite and the ratio between the concentrate and feed is 0.10. What is the hourly tonnage of the concentrate?
  a. 100
  b. 50
  c. 75
  d. 60

A

b. 50

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5
Q

A mineral that can be cut into thin shavings is:
  a. Brittle
  b. Malleable
  c. Ductile
  d. Sectile

A

d. Sectile

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6
Q

A mining company plans to crush 5,000 tonnes of ore per day with a target feed size of 1.50 meters. What type of crusher should be used?
  a. Jaw crusher
  b. Roll crusher
  c. Gyratory crusher
  d. Cone crusher

A

a. Jaw crusher

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7
Q

A rock with at least 2 contrasting sizes of crystals, composed of phenocrysts and a surrounding aphanitic groundmass.
  a. Glomeroporphyritic
  b. Phaneroporphyritic
  c. Aphanoporphyritic
  d. Porphyritic

A

c. Aphanoporphyritic

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8
Q

Blast furnace production of pig iron is under what branch of extractive metallurgy?
  a. Ionometallurgy
  b. Solvometallurgy
  c. Pyrometallurgy
  d. Electrometallurgy

A

c. Pyrometallurgy

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9
Q

For a siliceous product, the amount of sodium carbonate added is equal to __________.
  a. Amount of lead button
  b. Amount of sulfides in the ore
  c. Amount of silica in the ore
  d. Amount of ore sample

A

d. amount of ore sample

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10
Q

For low sulfide ores, if the amount of excess silica is 10 g and the amount of lead button to be produced is 25 g, how much litharge must be added? (MW: Si = 28 g/mol; O = 16 g/mol; Pb = 207 g/mol)
  a. 64.10 g
  b. 128.20 g
  c. 58.20 g
  d. 116.40 g

A

a. 64.10 g

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11
Q

Fusion product which contains a mixture of sulfides.
  a. Matte
  b. Lead Button
  c. Speiss
  d. Slag

A

a. Matte

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12
Q

How many days before the calendar year should the AEPEP be submitted to the Bureau/Regional Office?
  a. 15 days
  b. 20 days
  c. 30 days
  d. 45 days

A

c. 30 days

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13
Q

How would an off-grid mining company located on an island ensure a stable power supply?
  a. Use solar panels
  b. Use wind turbines
  c. Use coal power plant
  d. Use diesel power plant

A

d. Use diesel power plant

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14
Q

If a left-lateral strike slip fault steps to the left and continues on, what type of stress regime will it produce?
  a. Transpressional
  b. Compressional
  c. Transtentional
  d. Extensional

A

c. Transtentional

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15
Q

If an ore vein dipping 30° has an apparent thickness of 50 meters, what is the true thickness of the vein?
  a. 85 m
  b. 43 m
  c. 38 m
  d. 25 m

A

b. 43 m

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16
Q

If an ore vein is trending N60°E, which are the possible dip directions of the ore vein?
  a. N and S
  b. E and W
  c. NE and SW
  d. NW and SE

A

d. NW and SE

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17
Q

In 2021, which major mining practice was allowed again for new projects by the Philippine government?
  a. Offshore mining
  b. Fracking
  c. Open pit mining
  d. Uranium extraction

A

c. Open pit mining

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18
Q

In Fire Assaying, which of the following oxides has an acidic nature in slags?
  a. CaO
  b. SiO₂
  c. FeO
  d. MgO

A

b. SiO2

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19
Q

It is an alloy of gold and silver produced in fire assaying.
  a. Electrum
  b. Argentum
  c. Inconel
  d. Dore

A

d. Dore

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20
Q

It is an assaying method that measures the selective absorption of light of gaseous atoms.
  a. XRF
  b. XRD
  c. AAS
  d. Fire Assaying

A

c. AAS

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21
Q

It is a process wherein molten metal is poured into a mold and allowed to solidify into the desired shape.
  a. Casting
  b. Forging
  c. Rolling
  d. Extrusion

A

a. Casting

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22
Q

Metal purification is often found under which branch of metallurgy?
  a. Mineral processing
  b. Extractive metallurgy
  c. Adaptive metallurgy
  d. Physical metallurgy

A

b. Extractive metallurgy

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23
Q

Pyrite (SG 5.0) is to be separated from quartz (SG 2.7) using gravity concentration. What is the minimum density of the fluid for the operation to be efficient?
  a. 1.47
  b. 1.37
  c. 1.27
  d. 1.17

A

d. 1.17

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24
Q

Stainless steel usually gets its corrosion resistance from which of the following?
  a. Copper and aluminum
  b. Chromium and nickel
  c. Vanadium
  d. Silicon

A

b. Chromium and nickel

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25
The difference between a thrust fault and a reverse fault lies in its steepness. What angle is the boundary between the two?   a. 45°   b. 40°   c. 35°   d. 30°
d. 30°
26
The following are benefits of good mineral processing except:   a. Reduced transport costs   b. Reduced treatment charges   c. Increased product purity   d. Increased loss of valuable mineral in tailings
d. Increased loss of valuable mineral in tailings
27
The following are examples of screening equipment except:   a. Hydrocyclone   b. Grizzly   c. Sieve bend   d. Vibrating screen
a. Hydrocyclone
28
The following are importance of assaying except:   a. To determine the economic value of an ore deposit   b. It provides basis for process control   c. To determine the reduction size of the ore particles   d. To ascertain values in metals for trading and economic purposes
c. to determine the reduction size of the ore particles
29
The global push toward net-zero carbon emissions has redefined the role of the mining industry. Which of the following best represents how the mining sector actively contributes to the promotion of renewable energy?   a. By reducing mineral exports to prioritize domestic industrial growth   b. By extracting and supplying critical minerals   c. By shifting to biomass energy to reduce fossil fuel dependency in operations   d. By limiting exploration activities to reduce land disturbance in sensitive regions
b. By extracting and supplying critical minerals
30
The growing demand for raw material for renewable energy technologies is accelerating mineral extraction. What is the key implication of this trend?   a. Decreased reliance on global mining operations   b. Lower risk of environmental degradation   c. Decline in ore grade   d. Reduced need for mining regulation
c. Decline in ore grade
31
The increased global demand for renewable energy technologies has intensified interest in critical minerals. Which of the following most accurately reflects a strategic concern surrounding critical mineral development?   a. The declining price of coal limits funding for new mining projects   b. The majority of critical mineral reserves are located in politically unstable regions   c. Rare metals are fully recyclable and thus pose no long-term supply risks   d. Transitioning to green energy eliminates the need for new mineral extraction
b. The majority of critical mineral reserves are located in politically unstable regions
32
The mineral luzonite is formed in which type of mineral deposit?   a. Porphyry   b. Epithermal   c. Skarn   d. Orogenic
b. epithermal
33
The Philippine Fault Zone is typically what type of fault?   a. Left-lateral strike slip fault   b. Right-lateral strike slip fault   c. Normal fault   d. Reverse fault
a. Left-lateral strike slip fault
34
The Philippines committed to reducing carbon emissions by 2030 under which international agreement?   a. Kyoto Protocol   b. ASEAN Environmental Pact   c. Paris Agreement   d. Global Climate Agreement
c. Paris Agreement
35
The response of a rock body to the forces applied to it.   a. Stress   b. Strain   c. Deformation   d. None
b. Strain
36
The stage in fire assaying wherein the lead button is heated to separate lead from dore.   a. Inquartation   b. Cupellation   c. Fluxing   d. Parting
b. Cupellation
37
The type of hydrothermal fluid that is dominant in volcanogenic massive sulfide deposits is:   a. Magmatic   b. Metamorphic   c. Meteoric   d. Oceanic
d. oceanic
38
The typical charge in fire assaying uses a sample amount of one assay ton which is exactly equal to:   a. 29.6667 grams   b. 30.0000 grams   c. 29.1667 grams   d. 30.1035 grams
c. 29.1667 grams
39
The σ₁ can be found using a pair of conjugal joints. At which direction can they be found?   a. Towards the acute angles   b. Towards the obtuse angles   c. Perpendicular to the shear joints   d. None
a. towards the acute angles
40
This concentration operation utilizes the difference in conductivity among various minerals.   a. Magnetic separation   b. High tension separation   c. Froth flotation   d. Gravity separation
b. High tension separation
41
This is a metal joining technique that makes use of a filler metal and is done at a temperature slightly lower than the melting point of the base metal.   a. Soldering   b. Brazing   c. Sintering   d. Welding
b. Brazing
42
This mineral property is characteristic of fibrous minerals in which a band of light moves perpendicular to the fibers, especially when the fibers are curved.   a. Iridescence   b. Asterism   c. Tarnish   d. Chatoyancy
d. Chatoyancy
43
This substance attaches itself to the surface of a mineral to enable particle-bubble attachment.   a. Frother   b. Collector   c. Modifier   d. Conditioner
b. Collector
44
This texture refers to metamorphic rocks that contain clasts showing partially deformed protolith.   a. Idioblastic   b. Porphyroblastic   c. Porphyroclastic   d. Lepidoblastic
c. Porphyroclastic
45
This type of tumbling mill mainly grinds on itself in addition to a small amount of grinding media.   a. Ball mill   b. Rod mill   c. SAG mill   d. AG mill
c. SAG mill
46
What characteristic makes a project most suitable for filtered tailings facilities?   a. Arid regions with water scarcity   b. High rainfall regions   c. Areas with limited access to transport routes   d. Proximity to residential areas
a. Arid regions with water scarcity
47
What do you call a sedimentary rock that mainly contains angular andesitic clasts with minimal matrix?   a. Monomictic orthoconglomerate   b. Polymictic paraconglomerate   c. Polymictic orthobreccia   d. Monomictic orthobreccia
d. Monomictic orthobreccia
48
What field of metallurgy involves the physical separation of valuable and non-valuable minerals?   a. Mineral processing   b. Extractive metallurgy   c. Adaptive metallurgy   d. Physical metallurgy
a. Mineral processing
49
What is the primary focus of the TSM (Towards Sustainable Mining) initiative?   a. Maximizing resource extraction   b. Ensuring compliance with local mining laws   c. Improving environmental and social performance in mining   d. Reducing operational costs in mining companies
c. Improving environmental and social performance in mining
50
What lixiviant is commonly used to dissolve and recover gold?   a. Nitric acid   b. Hydrochloric acid   c. Ammonia   d. Cyanide
d. Cyanide
51
What significant event happened during the Permian-Triassic boundary?   a. Last ice age   b. Proliferation of fish   c. Proliferation of plants   d. Extinction of majority of marine life
d. Extinction of majority of marine life
52
What type of slag is formed in a sulfidic ore sample?   a. Bisilicate   b. Subsilicate   c. Monosilicate   d. Trisilicate
c. monosilicate
53
What type of tectonic boundary separates the Philippine Mobile Belt and Palawan Microcontinental Block?   a. Conservative   b. Destructive   c. Constructive   d. Transformative
b. Destructive
54
When do sediments turn into sedimentary rocks?   a. During cementation   b. Before diagenesis   c. After erosion   d. During transport
a. During cementation
55
Where are new crust materials formed?   a. Mid-oceanic ridge   b. Continental rise   c. Guyot   d. Subduction zone
a. Mid-oceanic ridge
56
Which alteration type is associated with the porphyry copper mineralization?   a. Propylitic   b. Argillic   c. Potassic   d. Advanced argillic
c. potassic
57
Which chemical bonds tend to result in minerals with high electrical conductivity and high thermal conductivity?   a. Ionic bonds   b. Metallic bonds   c. Covalent bonds   d. Hydrogen bonds
b. Metallic bonds
58
Which chromite type has the highest aluminum content?   a. Refractory   b. Chemical   c. Metallurgical   d. Stratiform
a. refractory
59
Which combination of rare metals most accurately matches its renewable energy application?   a. Tantalum – solar glass coating; Molybdenum – hydrogen electrolysis membrane   b. Neodymium – wind turbine magnets; Lithium – battery energy storage   c. Tin – geothermal brine extraction; Bismuth – photovoltaic converters   d. Silver – magnetic cooling systems; Indium – carbon capture membranes
b. Neodymium – wind turbine magnets; Lithium – battery energy storage
60
Which country is the top producer of Cobalt?   a. China   b. Democratic Republic of Congo   c. Chile   d. Australia
b. Democratic Republic of Congo
61
Which depositional environment will most likely have an accumulation of poorly sorted gravels and sands?   a. Alluvial fans   b. Lakes   c. Desert   d. Streams
a. Alluvial fans
62
Which document certifies that a proposed project or undertaking will not cause significant negative environmental impact?   a. Environmental Impact Report (EIR)   b. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)   c. Environmental Compliance Certificate (ECC)   d. Environmental Management Plan (EMP)
c. Environmental Compliance Certificate (ECC)
63
Which energy source helps attain the COP 21 goal?   a. Biogas   b. Coal   c. Geothermal   d. LNG
c. Geothermal
64
Which energy transition is emphasized in modern mining technologies?   a. Transition from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources   b. Increased reliance on coal-fired power plants   c. Shift from nuclear energy to coal   d. Use of more natural gas in mining
a. Transition from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources
65
Which factor dictates the depth of the boundary between the limonite and saprolite zones in nickel laterite profiles?   a. Groundwater   b. Precipitation rate   c. Peridotite type   d. Mn concentration
a. groundwater
66
Which fault is directly affecting the ore body in Padcal, Benguet?   a. Lepanto Fault   b. Digdig Fault   c. Santa Fe Fault   d. None
c. Santa Fe Fault
67
Which geologic process may result in liquefaction?   a. Erosion   b. Earthquake   c. Weathering   d. Volcanism
b. Earthquake
68
Which host rock will most likely form a skarn deposit?   a. Basalt   b. Limestone   c. Phyllite   d. Shale
b. limestone
69
Which igneous rock is fine-grained?   a. Websterite   b. Peridotite   c. Hornblendite   d. Dacite
d. Dacite
70
Which index mineral below occurs in highly metamorphosed rock?   a. Kyanite   b. Staurolite   c. Biotite   d. Sillimanite
d. Sillimanite
71
Which iron-carbon alloy normally contains the most carbon?   a. Wrought iron   b. Steel   c. Cast iron   d. Stainless steel
c. Cast iron
72
Which is NOT a volcano?   a. A hill from which molten or hot rocks have been ejected   b. A hill formed by the removal of pre-existing accumulation of ejected materials   c. A hill from which molten or hot rocks have been injected   d. A depression formed by the removal of pre-existing accumulation of ejected materials
c. A hill from which molten or hot rocks have been injected
73
Which metamorphic facies does NOT represent low pressure conditions?   a. Sanidinite   b. Hornfels   c. Eclogite   d. Zeolite
c. Eclogite
74
Which mineral does NOT belong to the Platinum group?   a. Proustite   b. Iridosmine   c. Palladium   d. Platiniridium
a. Proustite
75
Which mineral will not be scratched by a knife blade?   a. Topaz   b. Apatite   c. Fluorite   d. Gypsum
a. Topaz
76
Which of the following can be a substitute for lithium in batteries?   a. Lead   b. Sodium   c. Zinc   d. Calcium
b. Sodium
77
Which of the following igneous rocks are coarse-grained?   a. Pyroxenite   b. Latite   c. Trachyte   d. Dacite
a. Pyroxenite
78
Which of the following is considered a critical mineral for green energy technologies?   a. Copper   b. Gold   c. Zinc   d. Iron
a. Copper
79
Which of the following is considered as a modern analogue of epithermal deposits?   a. Black smokers   b. White smokers   c. Hotsprings   d. Sedimentary basins
c. hotsprings
80
Which of the following is the cost constraint in the transition to renewable energy?   a. Cost of battery   b. Cost of uranium   c. Cost of coal   d. Cost of transport
a. Cost of battery
81
Which of the following minerals are arranged in increasing hardness?   a. Fluorite, Orthoclase, Topaz, Corundum   b. Calcite, Apatite, Topaz, Quartz, Corundum   c. Gypsum, Fluorite, Calcite, Orthoclase, Topaz   d. Talc, Orthoclase, Apatite, Quartz, Diamond
a. Fluorite, Orthoclase, Topaz, Corundum
82
Which of the following minerals contains iron?   a. Enargite   b. Ilmenite   c. Bornite   d. Calaverite
b. Ilmenite
83
Which of the following refers to the National Integrated Protected Areas System Act?   a. RA 1586   b. RA 7586   c. RA 8749   d. RA 9003
b. RA 7586
84
Which of the layers are involved in plate tectonics?   a. Inner and outer core   b. Uppermost mantle and the lithosphere   c. Upper mantle and the crust   d. Lithosphere and asthenosphere
d. Lithosphere and asthenosphere
85
Which of these carbonate minerals is a minor ore of manganese?   a. Rhodochrosite   b. Magnesite   c. Witherite   d. Azurite
a. Rhodochrosite
86
Which of these minerals cannot occur as twinned crystals in nature?   a. Pyrite   b. Calcite   c. Gypsum   d. Halite
d. Halite
87
Which of these minerals contain gold?   a. Tetrahedrite   b. Tennantite   c. Calaverite   d. Skutterudite
c. Calaverite
88
Which of these rock types is the typical host of podiform chromite deposits?   a. Peridotite   b. Gabbro   c. Diorite   d. Granite
a. peridotite
89
Which of these terms do NOT describe a sedimentary rock?   a. Wacke   b. Rudite   c. Arenite   d. Dunite
d. Dunite
90
Which of these textures do NOT refer to igneous rocks?   a. Leucocratic   b. Hypermelanic   c. Mesocratic   d. Lepidoblastic
d. Lepidoblastic
91
Which of these volcanogenic massive sulfide deposit types consist of sedimentary host rocks?   a. Besshi   b. Kuroko   c. Cyprus   d. Ural
a. Besshi
92
Which ore texture is not usually associated with epithermal gold deposits?   a. Stockwork veining   b. Breccia   c. Massive veins   d. Crustiform-colloform
a. stockwork veining
93
Which part of the atmosphere does the ozone layer occur in?   a. Mesosphere   b. Thermosphere   c. Troposphere   d. Stratosphere
d. Stratosphere
94
Which part of the geologic history did the atmosphere contain livable amounts of oxygen?   a. Pleistocene   b. Cambrian   c. Hadean   d. Carboniferous
b. Cambrian
95
Which stage of deformation is irreversible?   a. Ductile   b. Elastic   c. Brittle   d. None
a. Ductile
96
Which statement is true?   a. Planet Earth formed from the combined volcanic venting and capture of icy comets.   b. The proliferation of the blue-green algae led to the formation of the Earth’s atmosphere.   c. The accretion of gas and dust particles resulted in the formation of the Earth.   d. The helium and hydrogen elements in the sun differentiated based on density.
c. The accretion of gas and dust particles resulted in the formation of the earth.
97
Which term refers to aggregates of pyrite in shale?   a. Satin spar   b. Framboid   c. Iceland spar   d. Selenite
b. Framboid
98
Which type of plate boundary does the Philippine Trench personify?   a. Divergent   b. Convergent   c. Transform   d. None
b. Convergent
99
Which types of embankments for waste from mining operations have the capacity to retain water, sediment, and slurry?   a. Retaining walls   b. Levees   c. Dikes   d. Impounding
d. Impounding
100
Which types of projects under the DENR classification cover those located in Environmentally Critical Areas (ECAs)?   a. Category A   b. Category B   c. Category C   d. Category D
a. Category A