Deck 1 practice Flashcards

(310 cards)

1
Q

Regarding Headlice T/F
Nits can survive 30 days away from the host

A

False
Nits can survive and hatch after 10 days away from the host (Bolognia)

Nits are the eggs of headlice

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2
Q

T/F Regarding Headlice

Hatched eggs are tan brown

A

False - hatched eggs are clear to white

Bolognia:
Viable eggs are usually tan to brown in color, whereas hatched eggs are clear to white

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3
Q

Regarding Headlice T/F

All topical treatments are done twice, a week apart.

A

True

Bolognia:

With all topical preparations (regardless of package instructions), two applications, 1 week apart,
are advisable in order to: (1) kill any nits that survived treatment; (2) better defend against the growing resistance to many pediculicides; and
(3) reduce the risk of reinfestation by means of fomites.

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4
Q

Regarding Headlice T/F

Petroleum jelly is lethal

A

False

Bolognia
Unsubstantiated claims of successful treatment with alternative, non-pesticidal products, including petroleum jelly, hair pomade, olive oil, mayonnaise, vegetable oil and mineral oil, persist. Such products may slow the movements of adult lice and allow them to be more easily combed out
of the scalp, but these substances are not lethal to lice.

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5
Q

Regarding Headlice T/F

Eggs are on the hair close to the scalp

A

True

Bologina: Oval egg capsules (nits) measure 0.8 mm in length and are usually laid close to the scalp for warmth; in general, eggs located within 1 cm of the scalp are unhatched. In warm climates, however, viable nits may
be found 15 cm or more from the scalp, especially in the area above the nape of the neck

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6
Q

Re: Acanthosis palmaris (Tripe palms) T/F

Associated with malignancy in >50%

A

True (about 90%)

Rook
Acanthosis palmaris describes thickened skin of the palms and occasionally the soles with an enhanced dermatoglyphic change, causing a velvety or less commonly a pitted, honey combed pattern of the hand. It is associated with neoplasia in about 90% of cases and maybe the only paraneoplastic manifestation in 30–40%. It may also occur with one or both of malignant acanthosis nigricans or the sign of Leser–Trélat, or with florid cutaneous papillomatosis

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7
Q

Re: Acanthosis palmaris (Tripe palms) T/F

More common in men

A

True

Rook: It occurs particularly in men, especially when the underlying tumour is a lung cancer

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8
Q

Re: Acanthosis palmaris (Tripe palms) T/F

Most common malignancy is bronchial carcinoma

A

True

Rook
Most commonly, the underlying tumour is bronchial or gastric, together accounting for over 50% of the associated malignancies. Many other sites are reported includ-
ing tumours of the genito-urinary tract, as well as carcinomas in the breast and other organs.
Acanthosis palmaris occurring alone is more often associated with bronchial carcinoma compared with combined acanthosis nigricans and acanthosis palmaris, in
which gastric carcinoma is more common. If nail clubbing is also present (especially in a male patient), then bronchial carcinoma is very likely.
Interestingly, the appearance or exacerbation of tripe
palms in a known cancer patient may be a sign of recurrence of the malignancy

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9
Q

Re: Acanthosis palmaris (Tripe palms) T/F

It tends to resolve spontaneously with treatment of underlying malignancy

A

? (not specifically outlined in Rook or Bologina:

Bolognia for AN (not tripe palms): Treatment of the underlying malignancy, or effective treatment of the endocrinopathy, including weight loss and use of insulin sensitizers, may result in improvement or disappearance of the acanthosis
nigricans. Recurrence of malignancy-associated acanthosis nigricans requires a search for recurrent cancer.

Dermnet
Approximately 3 out of 10 cases of tripe palms resolve when the underlying cancer is managed. However, tripe palms may persist despite remission of the underlying cancer.

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10
Q

Re: Acanthosis palmaris (Tripe palms) T/F

It is associated with acanthosis nigricans

A

True

Rook.
Acanthosis palmaris occurring alone is more often associated with bronchial carcinoma compared with combined acanthosis nigricans and acanthosis palmaris, in
which gastric carcinoma is more common.

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11
Q

What is the recurrence rate of anogenital warts with patient-administered treatments?

A

60%

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12
Q

Is recurrence of anogenital warts more common with patient-administered or doctor-administered treatments?

A

Patient-administered

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13
Q

What is the recurrence risk of ablative CO2 laser treatment for anogenital warts?

A

Less than 50%

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14
Q

Which has more side effects: Podophyllotoxin or Imiquimod?

A

Podophyllotoxin

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15
Q

What are the side effects of TCA compared to cryotherapy?

A

Less than cryotherapy

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16
Q

Is the risk of lupus higher in ATSI individuals compared to non-ATSI individuals?

A

True

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17
Q

Can lower lip lupus present in acute, subacute, or discoid forms?

A

True

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18
Q

What is the most common diabetic complication?

A

Nephropathy

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19
Q

Is tinea corporis symmetrical?

A

False

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20
Q

What is the most common leprosy type in NT?

A

Borderline tuberculoid

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21
Q

Is polidocanol generally painless when used in sclerotherapy?

A

Yes

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22
Q

Is STS a chemical irritant sclerosant?

A

Yes

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23
Q

What concentration of hypertonic saline is used in sclerotherapy?

A

10-25%

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24
Q

What concentration of polidocanol is used to treat 1-3mm vessels?

A

0.1%

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25
For larger vessels, what is needed in terms of volume and concentration?
Larger volume of lower concentration
26
Does MCC have a similar incidence across all ethnicities?
Yes
27
What proportion of SLNB negative patients have positive nodal disease?
2/3
28
Is distant disease more likely with radiotherapy only treatment compared to excision and adjuvant radiotherapy?
Yes
29
When should SLNB be performed in MCC cases?
After WLE
30
Is the risk of local recurrence higher with radiotherapy monotherapy than local excision?
Yes
31
Does EPP have normal urine studies?
True
32
Can fragile blisters on hands distinguish PCT from other porphyrias?
False
33
Can histology differentiate pseudoporphyria from PCT?
False
34
Is EPP triggered by artificial light?
True
35
Does PCT show faecal isocoproporphyrin positivity?
True
36
Does vulval Crohn's present with linear fissures?
Yes
37
Can the diagnosis of vulval Crohn's be made without intestinal Crohn's?
No
38
Are caseating granulomas present in vulval Crohn's?
Yes
39
Does vulval Crohn's present as vulval oedema?
Yes
40
Is topical corticosteroid a useful treatment option for vulval Crohn's?
Yes
41
Can ear rim secondary intention healing cause puckering?
True
42
What should be done if secondary intention healing is on ear cartilage?
Punch hole through cartilage
43
What is the typical result of contractures in secondary intention healing?
30% decrease
44
Can secondary intention healing be used on inner canthus for defects smaller than 5mm?
Yes
45
Does secondary intention healing on the temple likely cause distortion of the hairline and eyebrow?
False
46
What type of scars is punch technique used for?
White atrophic scars
47
Does punch elevation require sutures?
False
48
Does punch excision require sutures?
True
49
Can punch elevation be used if the scar is less than 6mm?
False
50
What needs to be the same for punch grafting?
Diameter of the punch graft needs to be the same as the scar
51
Where does colchicine accumulate?
In platelets
52
What is the therapeutic range of colchicine?
Narrow
53
Is bioavailability of colchicine similar in most people?
False
54
What percentage of patients experience GI side effects from colchicine?
10%
55
Is colchicine safe in children?
True
56
Is granuloma faciale usually multiple plaques?
False
57
What is seen on histology in granuloma faciale?
Granulomas
58
Are there systemic associations with granuloma faciale?
No
59
Is granuloma faciale usually found on the trunk?
False
60
Can minocycline be used for granuloma faciale?
True
61
What is the maximum width of the pedicle in a pull-through flap of the ear?
Less than 25%
62
Is it better for the donor site to be adjacent to the defect in a pull-through flap?
Yes
63
Can a posterior ear defect be left to heal by secondary intention?
Yes
64
What type of sutures are used to secure the flap to the defect?
Subcutaneous sutures
65
Is a pull-through flap good for small defects?
Yes
66
Does phototherapy have an increased risk of skin cancers with multiple nbUVB treatments?
True
67
Is the risk of developing skin cancers with nbUVB lower than PUVA?
True
68
Which oral medication is more nauseous, 5-MOP or 8-MOP?
5-MOP
69
Does topical PUVA require eye protection after treatment?
Yes
70
When does more severe burn appear with PUVA?
Later than a milder burn
71
What is the incubation period for varicella?
2-7 days
72
When is a person with varicella infectious?
1-2 days before onset of rash
73
Are systemic symptoms more severe in children than adults with varicella?
True
74
What percentage of patients with only one course of vaccination can develop chicken pox?
50%
75
Is acyclovir helpful in case of exposure to varicella?
Yes
76
Is small plaque parapsoriasis more common in men or women?
Women
77
What does small plaque parapsoriasis show histologically?
T-cell clonality
78
What type of treatment is adequate for small plaque parapsoriasis?
Mild topical corticosteroid
79
Is small plaque parapsoriasis highly pruritic?
Yes
80
What is the size of each individual lesion in small plaque parapsoriasis?
Less than 5cm
81
What is the preferred anesthetic for reopening a facial haematoma?
Lignocaine without adrenaline
82
When can aspiration of a haematoma be done?
7-10 days once it liquifies
83
What device is used under negative pressure for haematoma management?
Penrose drain
84
What should be done if a large haematoma develops within 6 hours of operation?
Insert a Penrose drain
85
If a haematoma develops within 24 hours, what is adequate treatment?
Aspiration with 18G needle
86
What is cSCC?
Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma
87
What is verrucous carcinoma?
An aggressive variant of SCC
88
What occurs in the mucosa related to epithelioma cuniculatum?
Verrucous carcinoma
89
Is verrucous carcinoma a poorly differentiated tumor?
Yes
90
Is Mohs surgery indicated for superficial involvement of DFSP?
True
91
DFSP is associated with activating mutations in which receptor?
Platelet Derived Growth Factor Receptor
92
Does DFSP metastasize rarely?
True
93
What is the most common location for DFSP?
Head and neck
94
Is Imatinib a treatment option for advanced DFSP?
Yes
95
Is there a gene translocation of chromosomes 4 and 20 in DFSP?
False
96
Is zinc deficiency associated with prematurity and low birth weight?
True
97
Does measurement of albumin help in monitoring zinc levels?
False
98
Do formula-fed infants present earlier than breastfed infants in zinc deficiency?
True
99
Is clinical improvement in zinc deficiency seen in 5-7 days?
False
100
Does zinc deficiency usually affect the trunk and spread to involve flexures?
False
101
What is the first incision made in a myocutaneous flap of the nose?
Lateral incision
102
What type of incision is made down to cartilage and bone in a myocutaneous flap?
Medial incision
103
Can horizontal incisions be made in the muscle/pedicle for more movement in a myocutaneous flap?
True
104
How is the leading edge sutured in a myocutaneous flap?
With hyper-eversion
105
Is the Hunt variant of myocutaneous flap more suitable for longer vertical island pedicle?
True
106
Is pathergy test positive in Sweet syndrome?
True
107
Is Bechet disease associated with Bw51?
True
108
Is Bechet disease more common in men or women?
Men
109
What is the commonest eye involvement in Bechet disease?
Pan-uveitis
110
Is Infliximab an effective treatment option for pyoderma gangrenosum?
True
111
What should be given if a woman of childbearing age experiences a needle stick injury?
BHCG
112
What should be given if Hep B positivity is unknown in a needle stick injury?
Urgent antivirals
113
When should vaccination be given after a needle stick injury?
1 week, 1 month, and 6 months
114
Is Hep C immunoglobulins more reliable than viral loads?
False
115
Do supplements affect haemostasis by acting on fibrin?
True
116
How many days should NSAIDs be stopped before surgery?
10-14 days
117
What should be used for bridging in haemostasis?
Heparin
118
Does Hori naevus commonly involve the cutaneous upper lip?
False
119
Is Q switched laser useful for Hori naevus?
True
120
Is HQ an effective adjunct in treating Hori naevus?
True
121
Does melasma affect the same area as Hori naevus?
True
122
Does Hori naevus improve over time?
False
123
Is undermining required for butterfly suture?
True
124
Do sutures in butterfly suture extend into the papillary dermis?
False
125
Should epidermal dimpling be visible with butterfly suture?
False
126
Does butterfly suture everts more than buried vertical mattress suture?
True
127
Should suture tails be left through the skin and cut later?
False
128
Is chelitis common in DRESS syndrome?
True
129
Is head and neck swelling a common feature of DRESS syndrome?
True
130
When does DRESS syndrome usually occur after drug exposure?
1-5 days
131
Is minocycline commonly associated with renal dysfunction in DRESS syndrome?
True
132
What is the commonest cutaneous presentation of DRESS syndrome?
Exfoliative erythema
133
Is chromic catgut suture stronger than plain gut?
True
134
Is Monocryl the least pliable of all absorbable sutures?
True
135
Does Monocryl have the longest-lasting tensile strength?
False
136
Does Vicryl have the most reactivity of all absorbable sutures?
False
137
Does PDSII have better handling than PDS?
True
138
Does atrophoderma of Pasini & Pierini usually affect the back?
True
139
Is atrophoderma of Pasini & Pierini more common in males?
False
140
Is atrophoderma of Pasini & Pierini usually indurated?
False
141
Does atrophoderma of Pasini & Pierini have a violaceous edge?
True
142
Does EAC progress faster than erythema gyratum repens?
True
143
Are EAC lesions painful?
True
144
Where is the scale located in EAC?
On the outer edge
145
Is EAC more common in childhood?
True
146
What is the most common cause of EAC?
Concurrent infection
147
What is the duration of TE in the donor site after hair transplant?
Up to 1 year
148
How long should one wait between hair transplants?
4 months
149
Is there a need to suture the donor site with follicular unit extraction?
No
150
What is the size of the donor site excision over the occipital protuberance?
30-35cm
151
Are people with very loose scalp better candidates for hair transplants?
Yes
152
Is excimer laser more effective than NBUVB for palmoplantar psoriasis?
True
153
Does broad band UVB and tar treatment increase the risk of skin cancers?
True
154
Does NMSC risk for NBUVB increase with cumulative dose?
True
155
Should NBUVB be avoided in patients on biologics?
True
156
Can NBUVB be combined with systemic retinoids?
True
157
Does scleromyxoedema present with linear papules?
True
158
Does scleromyxoedema usually have mucosal involvement?
False
159
Is scleromyxoedema associated with paraproteinemia IgM?
False
160
Does sensory neuropathy occur in older men with scleromyxoedema?
True
161
Is calcinosis common in scleromyxoedema?
False
162
Are medications more likely to cause SJS/TEN in children than viral causes?
False
163
Is the mortality rate of SJS/TEN higher in children than adults?
False
164
Is there a split in the granular layer in SJS/TEN?
True
165
Is Erythema Multiforme Major on the spectrum with SJS/TEN?
True
166
Is there a variant of SJS/TEN that has respiratory involvement without mucositis?
True
167
Does discovery of any epidermal naevus need investigation for systemic involvement?
True
168
If biopsy shows epidermolytic hyperkeratosis, can it be transmitted to offspring?
False
169
If biopsy shows epidermolytic findings, should the patient be investigated for epidermolysis bullosa?
True
170
Does involvement of underlying tissue/bone occur in epidermal naevus?
True
171
Is heterogeneous leukoplakia more likely to transform to SCC than homogeneous leukoplakia?
True
172
Is erythroplakia a high-risk factor for SCC?
True
173
Is oral verrucous carcinoma well-defined?
False
174
Is the soft palate a common site for SCC?
True
175
>90% of all oral malignancies are SCC?
True
176
Is onychomadesis associated with detachment of the cuticle/proximal nail?
True
177
Does onychorrhexis correlate with transverse nail bands?
True
178
Can biopsy of nail matrix show lichen planus?
True
179
Does apparent leukonychia grow out with nail growth?
True
180
Is true leukonychia due to disease of the distal nail matrix?
False
181
Do all subtypes of xeroderma pigmentosum exhibit photosensitivity?
True
182
Do 50% of patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have neurological impairment?
False
183
Has childhood leukemia been reported in xeroderma pigmentosum?
True
184
Does XPA have a higher incidence of skin cancers than XPC?
False
185
Does XPG tend to have the highest rate of ocular changes?
True
186
Is Bazex syndrome associated with underlying adenocarcinoma?
True
187
Is ichthyosis vulgaris strongly associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma?
True
188
Is acquired hypertrichosis lanuginosa associated with hem malignancy?
False
189
Is paraneoplastic pemphigus associated with lymphoproliferative disorders?
True
190
Is incontinentia pigmenti X-linked recessive?
True
191
What is the first stage of incontinentia pigmenti characterized by?
Vesicles
192
When does the verrucous stage of incontinentia pigmenti occur?
Around 6 months
193
Does incontinentia pigmenti affect females?
False
194
What stage of incontinentia pigmenti presents with verrucous lesions?
Fourth stage
195
Does electrosurgery through electrodessication lead to coagulation of blood vessels?
True
196
Is increased voltage required for electrosection to achieve a deeper cut?
True
197
Is electrofulguration given in contact with the skin?
False
198
Is electrocautery used for cutting tissue?
True
199
What is paraneoplastic pemphigus associated with?
Lymphoproliferative disorders ## Footnote Paraneoplastic pemphigus is a rare autoimmune blistering disorder associated with malignancies.
200
Incontinentia pigmenti is inherited in which pattern?
X-linked recessive
201
What occurs during the verrucous stage of incontinentia pigmenti?
It occurs around 6 months
202
Does incontinentia pigmenti affect females?
It does not affect females
203
What are the characteristics of the fourth stage of incontinentia pigmenti?
Verrucous lesions
204
What is the purpose of electrodessication?
Coagulation of blood vessels
205
What is increased voltage used for in electrosurgery?
Electrosection to achieve deeper cut
206
In electrofulguration, how is it applied?
Not in contact with the skin
207
Which method is considered less safe: electrocautery or electrodessication?
Electrocautery
208
What does bipolar probed electrocoagulation do?
Bypasses currents through the patient
209
What is hypofraction in radiation therapy defined as?
Less than 10 fractions
210
What causes more moist dequamation in radiation therapy?
Hypofraction
211
What is more common with hypofraction in radiation therapy?
Late skin necrosis (>10 yrs) with less than 3 sessions
212
What is the most common presentation of mastocytosis in adults?
Urticaria pigmentosa
213
What percentage of adults with mastocytosis experience flushing?
50%
214
Do adults or children demonstrate the Darier sign more likely in mastocytosis?
Children
215
What mutation is commonly associated with mastocytosis?
V600E mutation
216
What condition occurs due to increased excretion of bile acids in pregnancy?
Intrahepatic cholestasis
217
When does intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy most commonly occur?
First trimester
218
What are excoriations in pregnancy dermatoses preceded by?
Erythematous papules
219
What complications are associated with intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy?
Prematurity or low birth weight
220
What is congenital melanocytic naevus associated with?
Pseudomelanoma with laser treatment
221
What has not shown to be more beneficial over ablative laser alone?
Ablative laser and nd:YAG laser combined
222
What is methotrexate known to cause in males?
Mutagenic to sperm
223
What condition does cyclosporine cause in males?
Oligospermia
224
Can a male on acitretin impregnate females?
No
225
What does infliximab cause in terms of male fertility?
Low sperm count
226
Which antiseptic is effective against pseudomonas?
Chlorhexidine
227
Which antiseptic is more effective than povidone iodine in preventing SSI?
Chlorhexidine – alcohol
228
Does chlorhexidine eradicate MRSA when used preoperatively?
Yes
229
What common reaction does chlorhexidine cause in atopic individuals?
Allergic dermatitis
230
Is chlorhexidine ototoxic?
Yes
231
What type of tumors have a higher risk of surgical site infections?
Ulcerated tumors
232
Are ulcerated tumors an independent risk factor for infection?
Yes
233
Which is more useful: intraoperative antibiotics or postoperative antibiotics?
Intraoperative antibiotics
234
Do intra-incisional antibiotics at the time of surgery reduce infection compared to no intervention?
Yes
235
Are intramuscular antibiotics beneficial over topical antiseptic use alone?
No
236
Do lesions of EBA have an inflammatory base?
No
237
Is the inflammatory variant of EBA more common than the mechanical variant?
No
238
Does EBA typically affect the trunk?
Yes
239
What does indirect immunofluorescence of anti-skin antibodies show in EBA?
>50% positive
240
Can EBA involve mucosa?
Yes
241
Does psoriasis increase the risk of infection regardless of immune suppression?
Yes
242
Are biologics contraindicated in chronic hepatitis B?
Yes
243
What is associated with abnormal wound healing in psoriasis?
Psoriasis itself
244
Is acitretin safe in TB?
Yes
245
What should be given if psoriasis is induced by strep?
Antibiotics
246
Is ulcerated Gottron's part of dermatomyositis MDA5?
Yes
247
Are nail changes common in dermatomyositis MDA5?
No
248
Is arthritis frequent in dermatomyositis MDA5?
No
249
What is associated with interstitial lung disease in dermatomyositis?
Palmar keratoses
250
What pattern do palmar papules show on biopsy in dermatomyositis?
Lichenoid pattern
251
What predisposes to conjunctivitis in patients on dupilumab?
Previous conjunctivitis
252
What has high predictive value for conjunctivitis in dupilumab patients?
High IgE and eosinophils
253
Do you need to stop dupilumab to treat conjunctivitis?
No
254
Is eczema more likely to respond to dupilumab if the patient develops conjunctivitis?
No
255
Does severe eczema result in severe conjunctivitis?
Yes
256
Should distal nail biopsy be longitudinal?
Yes
257
Should proximal nail matrix biopsy be transverse?
Yes
258
Is proximal nail avulsion less traumatic than distal nail avulsion?
Yes
259
Should lateral longitudinal biopsy include lateral nail fold?
Yes
260
Can shave biopsy be used for abnormal longitudinal melanonychia?
Yes
261
If the band is greater than 15% of the nail, what is it suspicious for?
Subungual melanoma
262
Is it difficult to differentiate between longitudinal melanonychia and subungual melanoma clinically?
Yes
263
What rule has a high predictive value for subungual melanoma?
ABCDE rule
264
Is shave biopsy usually adequate for Breslow thickness assessment in melanoma?
Yes
265
What is the required margin for Breslow thickness of 1-2mm?
1cm margins histologically
266
What is the required margin for Breslow thickness of 2-4mm?
At least 2cm clinical margins
267
Is artificial intelligence sufficient to diagnose melanoma?
Yes
268
How often should digital monitoring be conducted for melanoma surveillance?
Every 3 months
269
Do both AJCC and BWH SCC staging have poor differentiation?
Yes
270
Do AJCC T2 and T3 have similar prognosis?
Yes
271
Which staging has higher predictive value for those at risk of distant metastasis?
BWH
272
Is bony involvement a criterion for BWH staging?
Yes
273
Does microcystic adnexal carcinoma grow slowly?
Yes
274
Is perineural invasion common in microcystic adnexal carcinoma?
Yes
275
What is the most common site for microcystic adnexal carcinoma?
Chin
276
What histological features are like syringoma in microcystic adnexal carcinoma?
Histo features
277
Is metastasis common in microcystic adnexal carcinoma?
No
278
What must be removed after deroofing in HS?
Granulation tissue
279
Should large defects on the buttocks be excised down to muscle/fascia?
Yes
280
What should extensive defects be repaired with?
STSG
281
What is frequently required for extensive perineal involvement in HS?
Temporary diverting ileostomy
282
What has the lowest risk of recurrence in HS?
Radical excision
283
Does the foramen for the mental nerve lower with age?
No
284
Should local infiltration be avoided after a nerve block?
Yes
285
Does the mental nerve work quickly?
Yes
286
Is the mental nerve easy to do technically?
Yes
287
Should adjacent gingiva and mucosa be anaesthetised?
Yes
288
Are IgG antibodies against anti-endomyseal antibodies present in dermatitis herpetiformis?
Yes
289
Is dapsone effective for bowel disease in dermatitis herpetiformis?
Yes
290
What percentage of patients with dermatitis herpetiformis have gluten enteropathy?
50%
291
What type of pattern of IgA is found in dermal papillae in dermatitis herpetiformis?
Fibrillar pattern
292
Is uveitis a common problem in mucous membrane pemphigoid?
No
293
Is BP180 a common antigen in mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Yes
294
Is the scalp often involved in mucous membrane pemphigoid?
No
295
Is BP180 often associated with malignancy?
Yes
296
Is indirect immunofluorescence sensitive in mucous membrane pemphigoid?
Yes
297
What causes eyebags in aging face?
Fat herniation
298
What results in more prominent vertical wrinkles in aging face?
Glabella ptosis
299
Do older people have shorter columella?
Yes
300
Is a facelift more effective for the mid third face than the lower third face?
Yes
301
What causes jowls in aging face?
Loose anterior platysmal bands
302
Is SMAS under the zygomatic arch continuous with that over the zygomatic arch?
No
303
What ensheathes the frontalis muscle?
Galea aponeurotica and superficial temporal fascia
304
What superficially covers the parotid gland at the superior aspect?
Parotid fascia
305
What travels under the zygomatic arch?
Temporal nerve
306
Does sebaceous skin have more stretch than non-sebaceous skin?
No
307
Is sebaceous skin more likely to leave track marks?
Yes
308
Is sebaceous skin more compliant than non-sebaceous skin?
No
309
Is sebaceous skin more likely to result in inverted scars?
Yes
310
Is sebaceous skin more brittle?
Yes