Exam 1 Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

What does CTPA stand for?

A

computed tomographic pulmonary angiography

It is the first choice for imaging for pulmonary embolism (PE).

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a Ventilation Perfusion Scan?

A

Used for patients who cannot receive CTPA

It helps in diagnosing pulmonary embolism.

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3
Q

Name three suggestive findings for PE.

A
  • Hampton Hump
  • Westermark Sign
  • Palla Sign

These findings can indicate the presence of a pulmonary embolism.

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4
Q

What are frequent findings in acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Chvostek sign
  • Trousseau sign

These signs are associated with hypocalcemia.

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5
Q

What is a common electrolyte abnormality in hypocalcemia?

A
  • Deep tendon reflex
  • Prolonged QT interval

These can be clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia.

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of acute tubular necrosis?

A
  • Granular cast
  • Epithelial cast
  • Muddy brown granular casts

These findings are indicative of acute tubular necrosis.

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7
Q

What do URIC ACID CRYSTALS indicate?

A
  • Nephrolithiasis
  • Tumor lysis

These crystals can be associated with kidney stones or tumor lysis syndrome.

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8
Q

What condition is indicated by the presence of RBC casts?

A

Glomerulonephritis

RBC casts are a significant finding in glomerular injury.

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9
Q

What condition is indicated by the presence of WBC casts?

A

Pyelonephritis

WBC casts suggest an inflammatory process in the kidneys.

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10
Q

What are the AST and ALT normal ranges?

A
  • AST: 0-45
  • ALT: 0-40

These values are used to assess liver function.

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11
Q

What is a risk factor for Hepatitis C infection?

A
  • Sharing needles

Hepatitis C is primarily transmitted through blood-to-blood contact.

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12
Q

What is the most common location for TB (tuberculosis) infection?

A

Upper lobe

Mycobacterium TB typically affects the upper lobes of the lungs.

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13
Q

What is the significance of starting on 75 years old above with ASCVD?

A

Moderate statin indication

This indicates a moderate risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD).

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14
Q

What age group is recommended for statin therapy for ASCVD?

A

21 to 75 years

Statin therapy is recommended for individuals in this age range at risk for ASCVD.

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15
Q

Involvement of a single lymph node region or lymphoid structure in stages of lanugo classification

A

Stage I

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16
Q

Involvement of two or more lymph nodes, regions or structures on the same side of the diaphragm what stage of Lugano classification

A

Stage II

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17
Q

Involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both both sides of the diaphragm which lugano classification

A

Stage III

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18
Q

Diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more extranodal organs (liver, bone marrow) with oral associated note involvement

A

Stage IV

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19
Q

Children with an excess of androgens and gynecomastia 

A

Cushings syndrome

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20
Q

Patient with serum ketones and serum glucose levels more than 300 mg/DL

A

DKA

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21
Q

Recommended vaccines age 65 years or older as recommended by CDC

A

Shingles, influenza vaccine, pneumococcal vaccine

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22
Q

 What is associated with male aging when it comes to sperm production?

A

Decreased sperm production

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23
Q

Current guidelines on the management of blood cholesterol for patients older than 75 years with ASCVD

A

Moderate intensity statins

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24
Q

Current guidelines on management of blood cholesterol if a patient presents with ASCVD 21 to 75 years old

A

High Statins

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25
Normal transmission of sound through the ear
1. Sound waves are collected in the pinna 2. Transmit through hammer, anvil and stirrup. 3. Nerve impulse stimulated in the inner ear. 4. Transmit through cerebral cortex. 5. Interpreted by cerebral cortex.
26
Murmurs that can radiate to the neck
Aortic stenosis
27
PHALEN‘S test used to evaluate
Median nerve for carpal tunnel syndrome
28
Mortality rate for cancer from highest to lowest
Lung Colorectal Pancreatic Breast
29
Most important clue for ulcerative colitis
Bloody stools that are covered with mucus and pus, along with systemic symptoms like fatigue low-grade fever
30
Temporal arteritis is associated with
Polymyalgia rheumatica
31
Soap, black product available over the counter that removes oil from poison ivy
Zanfel
32
To confirm the diagnosis of diabetes
1. Two fasting blood glucose readings of 126 or higher 2. Two A1c results of 6.5 or higher 3. Random glucose more than 200 with symptoms of hyperglycemia
33
What test can be used for confirmatory testing for diabetes?
2 hour glucose tolerance test and not 3 hour tolerance test
34
Medication that Decrease calcium excretion and stimulating osteoblast production
Thiazide diuretics
35
Travelers diarrhea
Cipro single dose
36
What is the **onset time** for regular insulin?
10 to 15 minutes ## Footnote Regular insulin is classified as rapid- or short-acting insulin.
37
What is the **peak time** for regular insulin?
1.5 hours ## Footnote Regular insulin has a duration of 3 to 5 hours.
38
What is the **duration** of regular insulin?
3 to 5 hours ## Footnote Regular insulin is used for rapid control of blood glucose levels.
39
What is the **onset time** for NPH insulin?
1.5 to 3 hours ## Footnote NPH insulin is classified as intermediate-acting insulin.
40
What is the **peak time** for NPH insulin?
4 to 12 hours ## Footnote NPH insulin has a duration of 18 to 24 hours.
41
What is the **duration** of NPH insulin?
18 to 24 hours ## Footnote NPH insulin helps manage blood glucose levels throughout the day.
42
Increasing the morning **NPH insulin** will result in what effect on blood glucose levels?
Bringing down the blood glucose level ## Footnote The peak of NPH occurs in the afternoon.
43
True or false: Increasing both **insulins** in the morning may cause morning glucose levels to be too low.
TRUE ## Footnote Careful management of insulin doses is crucial to avoid hypoglycemia.
44
What happens if either **medication** is decreased?
Further increase in glucose levels ## Footnote Adjustments to insulin should be made cautiously to maintain glucose control.
45
What does **HSIL** stand for in the context of cervical health?
High-Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion ## Footnote HSILs are likely to be associated with precancer and cancer.
46
What should be done if **HSIL** is found in patients age **25 years or older**?
Refer for immediate excisional treatment by LEEP or cervical conization surgery ## Footnote LEEP stands for loop electrosurgical excision procedure.
47
What is a useful diagnostic tool for fungal infections?
Potassium hydroxide slide ## Footnote This slide is helpful in diagnosing fungal infections.
48
For **HSIL** found in younger women (age 21 to 24 years), what procedure is appropriate?
Colposcopy ## Footnote Colposcopy is a procedure to closely examine the cervix.
49
What type of vaccination can prevent **HPV**, which is associated with cervical cancer?
Quadrivalent recombinant vaccination ## Footnote This vaccination is effective in preventing HPV before HSIL is present.
50
True or false: Once a patient has **HSIL**, administering the HPV vaccination would be useful.
FALSE ## Footnote The vaccination would not be useful after HSIL is diagnosed.
51
Best heard over the base lungs
Vesicular
52
Initial drug considered in treating a patient with Gerd
H2 antagonist
53
If patient symptoms do not respond to H2 antagonist what is the next step?
Proton pump inhibitor
54
Which lab test can be elevated with the use of medication’s such as statins
ALT, AST, creatinine kinase
55
Which skin condition is caused by high androgen levels during puberty
Acne vulgaris
56
What does positive posterior drawer sign signify?
Instability of the knee
57
Common vitamin deficiencies in patients with celiac disease disease
Folate, ferritin, vitamin D, vitamin b12
58
S3 component of the heart sound
1. Occurs very early in diastole and is sometimes called an opening gap 2. Normal finding in some children, pregnant and athletes. 3. Signify heart failure.
59
Staging for high grade squamous epithelial lesion of the cervix
1. colposcopy 2. Cervical bx 3. Leep
60
Name the **antibiotics** mentioned for **UTI '(PREGNANT)
* Cephalosphorin * Amox * Macrobid (avoid in 1st trimester) * Pcn ## Footnote CAMP
61
Which demographic groups are mentioned as having a higher prevalence of **lupus**?
* Women * Hispanic * African-American * Native American ## Footnote Lupus is an autoimmune disease that is more common in these populations.
62
What is the purpose of **#gb electrophoresis**?
Used to confirm diagnosis of beta thalassemia or sickle cell ## Footnote This technique is important in hematology for diagnosing blood disorders.
63
What does **CoLLeS** refer to in medical terminology?
Referred to as **dinner fork fracture** ## Footnote This term describes a specific type of wrist fracture.
64
Medications for UTI
COMBO Cipro, macrobid, bactrim
65
What kind of foods calcium is found?
Low fat dairy products, fruits, and vegetables
66
Diagnostic test for ankylosing is spondylitis
MRI, x-ray, CRP, ESR
67
Lupus is more common among female patients which ethnic?
African-American, Asian, Hispanic, native American
68
Recommended screening for Beta thalassemia or sickle cell anemia
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
69
 Referred as dinner fork fracture
COLLES
70
Late sign of kyphosis
Osteoporosis
71
Area of consolidation on the lower lobe of the lung
Bacterial pneumonia
72
First line treatment for constipation in older adults
Polyethylene glycol
73
Second line treatment for constipation in older adult adults
Senna
74
Stabilization of PSA
Finasteride
75
Positive Pel-Ebstein signand reveals Reed Sternberg cells
Hodgkins lymphoma
76
What medications used if patient becomes combative and Acute confusion
Haldol
77
Cauda Equina syndrome
Loss of bowel and bladder control and paralysis of the legs, saddle pattern anesthesia, low back pain, loss of sensation or movement below the level of the lesion
78
PODAGRA associated with
GOUT
79
Fitz- Hugh curtis
PID
80
Secondary reaction to bacteria, such as chlamydia
REITER syndrome
81
Acute response to treatment of syphillis
JARISCH HERXHEIMER reaction
82
Medications to avoid in patient with hypertension and hyper thyroidism as may cause side effects of tachycardia and palpitations
Saba
83
Meds to Avoid in patient with glaucoma, BPH bladder neck obstruction
Anticholinergic drugs
84
Bacterial prostatitis
Cipro 500 BID times 10 days
85
Meds to Avoid in patient with glaucoma, BPH bladder neck obstruction
Anticholinergic drugs
86
What is the recommendation for patients older than 65 years with adequate prior screening and no history of high-grade precancerous lesions?
No screening for patients with low risk ## Footnote These patients do not require cervical cancer screening if they have had a hysterectomy with removal of the cervix.
87
According to the **U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)**, how often should patients aged 21 to 29 years be screened for cervical cancer?
Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone ## Footnote This recommendation applies to women in this age group.
88
For patients aged 30 to 65 years, what are the screening options for cervical cancer?
* Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone * Every 5 years with high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) testing alone * Every 5 years with hrHPV testing in combination with cytology ## Footnote These options provide flexibility based on patient needs and risk factors.
89
What is the follow-up timeframe for a **CARBUnCLe**?
F/up w/in 48 hrs ## Footnote Follow-up is crucial to monitor the condition after treatment.
90
What is the treatment regimen for **CARBUnCLe** if MRSA is suspected?
* Doxy 2x a day x 10 days * Cinda 3 to 4x a day x 10 days ## Footnote These antibiotics are used to treat suspected MRSA infections.
91
What condition is **PAROXeTINe (PAXIL)** used to treat? (1st line)
OCD ## Footnote Paroxetine is an SSRI commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder.
92
What is the normal range for **VIT B12** levels?
200 to 900 ## Footnote This range indicates healthy vitamin B12 levels in the blood.
93
Normal reference range for homocysteine
5 to 15
94
Normal range for methylmalonic acid
70 to 3500
95
Associated with elevated levels of methylmalonic acid and homocysteine
Vitamin B 12 deficiency
96
What are the causes of **HEPATTRS B,G. D**?
Blood and body secretions ## Footnote Hepatitis B, G, and D can be transmitted through blood and other bodily fluids.
97
What is the transmission route for **HEPATITS A**?
Fecal-oral route ## Footnote Hepatitis A is commonly spread through contaminated food and water.
98
Common signs and symptoms, including chest pain, shortness of breath, especially with lying down low grade, fever, weakness, fatigue, dry, cough, and abdominal or leg swelling
Pericarditis
99
True or false Consolidation is not presenting in the lungs with bronchitis COPD or a typical pneumonia
True
100
Classic triad of fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy
Mononucleosis
101
LACHMAN‘S maneuver is used to detect
Instability of the knee
102
Acanthrosis nigricans is associated with
Diabetes
103
Genu Valgum
Knock knees- knees turn inward Notes: if u think of a gum that stucked between the knee, it may help you remember valgum
104
Bowleggedness
Gene varum
105
Classic triad of symptoms include episodes of headache, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
Pheochromocytoma
106
Found on peripheral smear in patient with sickle cell anemia
Target cells- howell- jolly bodies
107
What should be repeated if a patient returns post **strep-pharyngitis** after treatment?
throat C&S ## Footnote A throat culture and sensitivity (C&S) should be repeated to assess the need for further treatment.
108
Is it necessary to refer the patient to an **ENT specialist** after completing treatment for strep-pharyngitis?
No ## Footnote Referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary in this case.
109
What may not be clinically appropriate without a repeat **C&S** first?
Another round of penicillin V ## Footnote A repeat culture is needed to determine the appropriate next steps in treatment.
110
Once the **C&S report** is back, what may or may not be appropriate to begin?
a new antibiotic such as azithromycin ## Footnote The decision to start a new antibiotic depends on the C&S results.
111
T score -1.0 to -2.5
Osteopenia
112
T-score 2.5 or below
Osteoporosis
113
Most common location of mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
Upper lobe
114
T score -1.0 to -2.5
Osteopenia
115
What thpe of meds is Imipramine
TCA
116
SSRI Meds
Prozac, zoloft, paxil