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Integumentary Flashcards

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1
Q

What is SHINGRIX recommended for?

A
  • Individuals aged 50 and older
  • Individuals with a history of herpes zoster

It is important for transplant patients to administer the vaccine at least 6 to 12 months after transplant.

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2
Q

What is the first stage of Hidradenitis Staging?

A

Abscess formation without scarring (topical clindamycin)

This stage indicates initial infection without significant tissue damage.

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3
Q

What characterizes stage II of Hidradenitis Staging?

A

Recurrent abscess with skin tunnels & scarring

This stage involves multiple interconnected tracts and abscess formation.

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4
Q

What is the treatment if topical clindamycin fails in Hidradenitis?

A

Doxycycline

Doxycycline is often used as an alternative systemic treatment.

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5
Q

What is remodeling in the context of wound healing?

A
  • Accumulation of collagen
  • Build-up upon fibrous matrix
  • Wound contraction
  • Scar formation

Remodeling produces elements such as collagen.

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6
Q

Is Rocky Mountain spotted fever a reportable disease?

A

Yes

Reporting is essential for public health monitoring and response.

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7
Q

Multiple interconnected trucks, abscess, scarring, with diffuse involvement across entire area

A

Hydradenitis stage III

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8
Q

What is MoLLuscum contagiosum?

A

Highly contagious skin infection caused by poxvirus

Characterized by multiple dome-shaped papules with central umbilication.

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9
Q

What is the treatment for plaque psoriasis?

A
  • Topical corticosteroids
    *UV light
    *Vit D analogs

Not treated with oral antibiotics

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10
Q

What is the recommended treatment for cellulitis with MRSA coverage without severe sepsis?

A
  • Bactrim or
  • Amox plus Doxycycline

Important to cover for severe infections.

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11
Q

What is the treatment for cellulitis without MRSA coverage and without severe sepsis?

A
  • Dicloxacillin
  • Cephalexin
    *Cefadroxil
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12
Q

What is halobetasol classified as?

A

High potency corticosteroid (class 1)

Used for severe inflammatory skin conditions.

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13
Q

What is **hal inonidr classified as?

A

Light potency corticosteroid (class 2)

Suitable for mild to moderate skin conditions.

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14
Q

What is the potency classification of mometAsone?

A

Medium potency (class 4)

Often used for moderate inflammatory skin conditions.

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15
Q

What is the potency classification of **fluorocinolone

A

Low class 6

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16
Q

Pinpoint bleeding common in plaque psoriasis

A

Auspitz sign

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17
Q

Other name for skin tag

A

Acrochordon

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18
Q

Palpable less than 1 CM

A

Papule

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19
Q

Non palpable less than 1 cm like vitiligo

A

Macule

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20
Q

Papule with fluid

A

Vesicle

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21
Q

Elevated lesions more than 1 cm

A

Plaque

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22
Q

Topical therapies 1st line for Impetigo with limited number of lesions

A

Mupirocin
Retapamulin

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23
Q

First line for
Oral therapy for impetigo with numerous lesions

A

Cephalexin
Dicloxacillin

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24
Q

Harold or mother patch.
Central clearing with Christmas tree pattern

A

Pityriasis rosea

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25
Other name for dry skin
Xerosis
26
What is a **superficial burn**?
Epidermal only ## Footnote Superficial burns affect only the outer layer of skin.
27
What does **full thickness** burn extend into?
 Extend through and destroy all layers of dermis and extend into subcutaneous tissue
28
What is the **characteristic** of a **superficial partial thickness** burn?
Blisters between epidermis and dermis ## Footnote This type of burn affects the upper layers of the dermis.
29
What does a **deep partial thickness** burn damage?
Deeper dermis and hair follicles ## Footnote This burn type affects deeper layers of the skin.
30
How many days for **suture removal** on digits, palms and soles?
10 to 14 days ## Footnote This timeframe is crucial for proper healing.
31
How many days for **suture removal** on the scalp?
7 to 10 days ## Footnote Scalp sutures typically heal faster.
32
How many days for **suture removal** on lower extremities?
8 to 10 days ## Footnote This is the standard healing time for lower extremities.
33
How many days for **suture removal** on face and neck?
5 days ## Footnote Facial sutures generally heal quickly.
34
How many days for suture removal of trunk and upper extremities
7 days
35
Scaly patches with alopecia
Tinea capitis
36
What is **tinea MAnUUm** associated with? “2 feet 1 hand”
Associated with Tinea pedis ## Footnote This condition affects the feet and is linked to fungal infections.
37
What is the use of **topical benzoyl peroxide**?
Mild acne ## Footnote It is commonly used for treating acne.
38
What is **ISOTRETINOIN** used for?
Moderate to severe acne ## Footnote This medication is often prescribed for severe acne cases.
39
What is the 2nd line treatment** for **tinea capitis**?
Terbinafine ## Footnote This antifungal medication is effective for scalp infections.
40
What is the first line for tinea capitis
Oral Griseofulvin
41
What is **ONYCHOMYCOSIS**?
Infection of nails ## Footnote This condition often requires antifungal treatment.
42
What is the treatment for **ONYCHOMYCOSIS**?
Oral terbinafine ## Footnote Terbinafine is an antifungal medication used to treat nail infections.
43
Define **CARBUNCLE**.
Severe inflamed follicles into a single mass ## Footnote It often requires drainage to prevent complications.
44
What is a **FURUNCLE**?
Painful nodule involving hair follicles ## Footnote It is often associated with folliculitis.
45
What is the common treatment for a **dog bite**?
Augmentin ## Footnote Augmentin is an antibiotic that helps prevent infection from bites.
46
What condition is **GUTTATE PSORIASIS** often preceded by?
Strep infection ## Footnote This type of psoriasis can appear suddenly after a streptococcal infection.
47
What is the treatment for **CHRONIC PLAQUE PSORIASIS**?
Topical corticosteroids ## Footnote These are commonly used to reduce inflammation and itching.
48
What does **PARONYCHIA** refer to?
Nail infection ## Footnote I&D treatment
49
Not a reportable disease
Molluscum contagiosum, scarlet fever, scabies
50
When patient presents blood under the nail, what procedure is appropriate?
Trephination
51
Actinic Keratosis
Precursor for squamous carcinoma
52
Herpetic Whitlow
Herpes Simplex Virus
53
What is the **rash** that appears at the site of a tick bite, typically 7 to 14 days after the bite, called?
erythema migrans ## Footnote This rash often has a central clearing, giving it a target or bull's eye appearance.
54
Which **antibiotic** is the preferred treatment for erythema migrans associated with Lyme disease?
Doxycycline, amoxicillin or cefuroxime.
55
True or false: **Cephalexin**, **vancomycin**, and **levofloxacin** are effective treatments for Lyme disease.
FALSE ## Footnote These antibiotics are not effective against Lyme disease.
56
What is the **appearance** of the rash associated with erythema migrans?
Target or bull's eye appearance ## Footnote Central clearing is a classic feature of this rash.
57
The **rash** associated with Lyme disease is typically warm to the touch and _______.
pruritic ## Footnote This indicates that the rash may be itchy.
58
In which situation should the patient be referred to a **burn center**?
B. Inhalation injury ## Footnote Criteria for burn center referral include: * Partial-thickness burns greater than 10% of TBSA * Burns involving the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints * Full-thickness burns * Electrical and chemical burns * Inhalation injury * Burn injury in patients with pre-existing comorbidities * Burns and concomitant trauma * Children in hospitals without qualified personnel or equipment * Burn injury in patients who require special social or rehabilitative interventions.
59
What percentage of **partial-thickness burns** is a criterion for referral to a burn center?
Greater than 10% of TBSA ## Footnote This is one of the criteria for determining the need for specialized burn care.
60
True or false: **Inhalation injury** is a criterion for referral to a burn center.
TRUE ## Footnote Inhalation injury is one of the critical factors that necessitate referral.
61
List the areas involved in burns that require referral to a **burn center**.
* Face * Hands * Feet * Genitalia * Perineum * Major joints ## Footnote Burns in these areas are considered more severe and require specialized care.
62
What type of burns are included in the criteria for referral to a burn center besides **partial-thickness burns**?
* Full-thickness burns * Electrical burns * Chemical burns ## Footnote These types of burns often require advanced treatment and care.
63
Fill in the blank: **Burn injury in patients with pre-existing _______** is a criterion for referral to a burn center.
comorbidities ## Footnote Pre-existing health conditions can complicate burn treatment.
64
What is a criterion for referral to a burn center regarding **children**?
Children in hospitals without qualified personnel or equipment ## Footnote Specialized care is crucial for pediatric burn patients.
65
What is the most common manifestation of **tinea capitis**?
* Scaly patches with alopecia * Patches of alopecia with black dots at follicular orifices ## Footnote The black dots represent broken hairs.
66
What are the **most commonly used therapies** for tinea capitis in children?
* Oral griseofulvin * Oral terbinafine ## Footnote Griseofulvin is considered first-line therapy based on its efficacy.
67
True or false: **Oral fluconazole** is considered first-line therapy for tinea capitis.
FALSE ## Footnote Oral fluconazole can be used as an alternative therapy but is less frequently used.
68
Which therapy is **no longer recommended** for tinea capitis due to its risk of severe liver injury?
Oral ketoconazole ## Footnote Ketoconazole is also associated with drug interactions.
69
What is **nystatin** indicated for?
Cutaneous Candida infections ## Footnote Nystatin is not effective for dermatophyte infections.
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