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HEENT Flashcards

(58 cards)

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1
Q

1 to 3 mm whitish, grayish, or bluish lesions with an erythema base

A

MEASLES - Koplik spots

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2
Q

HALO TEST (ring or target sign)

A

Quick bedside test, determined presence of CSF in patients with suspected cranial facial trauma 

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3
Q

What is the hold standard test for BPPV?

A

DIX - HALL PIKe

This test is commonly used to diagnose Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV).

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4
Q

First line treatment for ALLERGIC RHINITIS

A

Topical nasal steroids

These medications help reduce inflammation in the nasal passages.

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5
Q

What are the symptoms of VESTIBULAR SCHWANNOMA?

A
  • Asymmetrical sensorineural hearing loss
  • Unsteadiness while walking

This condition affects the vestibular nerve and can lead to balance issues.

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6
Q

What is the initial screening method for Vestibular issues?

A

AUDIOmeTRy

Audiometry tests are used to assess hearing and balance functions.

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7
Q

EPLEY MANEUVER

A

Initial treatment for Benign Paroxysmal positional vertigo

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8
Q

KIESSELBACH’S plexus located

A

Anterior inferior area of the nasal septum

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9
Q

Afrin

A

Is for short term use only

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10
Q

Long term use of Aftin

A

Result in rebound effect with worsening symptoms called RHINITIS MEDICAMENTOSA

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11
Q

When may an athlete return to exercise and sports after splenomegaly is resolved?

A

4 to 6 weeks

Most reported cases of splenic rupture occurred in athletes who returned to play within 3 weeks of the illness.

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12
Q

What is the recommended restriction period for exercise after the onset of symptoms?

A

3 weeks

Many sports medicine clinicians will restrict all exercise for the first 3 weeks of reported symptoms.

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13
Q

What should an athlete do after 3 weeks when the fever is gone and they feel better?

A

Gradually return to exercise and athletics

This gradual return is based on the timeline of recovery.

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14
Q

What is the best test to confirm that the spleen and/or liver size is back to normal?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

This test is used to confirm resolution of splenomegaly.

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15
Q

When should the patient return for a follow-up visit to confirm resolution of splenomegaly?

A

4 to 6 weeks

Follow-up is important to ensure the spleen has returned to normal size.

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16
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

A

Splenomegaly

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17
Q

What are the common bacterial pathogens associated with OTIS MeDIA?

A
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis

These bacteria can cause infections in the middle ear.

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18
Q

What is a key feature of IRITS UVELTS?

A

Presence of eukocytes

This indicates inflammation in the uveal tract of the eye.

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19
Q

What is the treatment for staph. infection?

A

Mupirocin

Mupirocin is commonly used to treat skin infections caused by Staphylococcus bacteria.

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20
Q

What does a positive KOH (K hydroxide) test indicate?

A

Microscopic examination for fungal elements

If positive, it suggests the presence of a fungal infection.

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21
Q

What condition is OPTIC NEURITIS associated with?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

OPTIC NEURITIS can be an early sign of MS.

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22
Q

What is a characteristic symptom of MUMPS?

A

Parotitis

Mumps is known for causing swelling of the parotid glands.

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23
Q

What are Koplik spots associated with?

A

Measles

Koplik spots are a classic sign of measles infection.

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24
Q

What is a notable symptom of DIPHTERIA?

Study These Flashcards
A

Coryza and bull-neck appearance

Diphtheria can cause severe throat swelling and respiratory distress.

25
OTITIS MEDIA
Unilateral ear pain and bulging tympanic membrane
26
OTITIS MEDIA WITH EFFUSION
Yellow clear fluid behind tympanic membrane with or without viscous bubbles
27
ECTROPION
Outward turning of eyelid
28
ENTROPION
Inward turning of eyelid
29
HORDEOLUM- Stye
Painful inflammation of eyelid
30
Reaponsible for color perception
CONES
31
What is a **peritonsillar abscess**?
A collection of pus between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles ## Footnote Common symptoms include severe sore throat, fever, muffled voice, drooling, and trismus.
32
List common **symptoms** of a peritonsillar abscess.
* Severe sore throat * Fever * Muffled voice * Drooling * Trismus Hot potato ## Footnote Physical assessment reveals an enlarged tonsil with deviation of the uvula.
33
True or false: **Epiglottitis** presents with airway stridor and respiratory distress.
TRUE ## Footnote Epiglottitis also presents with fever and drooling.
34
What are the common symptoms of **acute pharyngitis**?
* Sore throat * Cervical lymphadenopathy ## Footnote Symptoms are nonspecific.
35
What are the symptoms of **infectious mononucleosis**?
* Fever * Pharyngitis * Adenopathy * Fatigue * Atypical lymphocytosis ## Footnote These symptoms help differentiate it from other conditions.
36
What are the **most common pathogens** responsible for **external otitis**?
* Pseudomonas aeruginosa * Staphylococcus epidermidis * S. aureus ## Footnote These pathogens are frequently associated with infections of the outer ear.
37
What are the **causative organisms** in **acute otitis media**?
* S. pneumoniae * H. influenzae * M. catarrhalis ## Footnote These organisms are commonly implicated in middle ear infections.
38
What is the initial therapy for **Ménière's disease**?
* Lifestyle modifications * Salt restriction * Limiting caffeine * Limiting alcohol ## Footnote Patients experience progressive hearing loss and vestibular symptoms, including vertigo and fluctuating aural symptoms.
39
True or false: **Ménière's disease** is characterized by episodes of vertigo lasting from 20 minutes to 12 hours.
TRUE ## Footnote These episodes occur two or more times and are associated with fluctuating aural symptoms.
40
List some **lifestyle modifications** recommended for patients with Ménière's disease.
* Salt restriction * Limiting caffeine * Limiting alcohol ## Footnote These modifications aim to alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.
41
What additional therapies may be considered for patients with **persistent disequilibrium** and refractory symptoms of Ménière's disease?
* Vestibular rehabilitation * Pharmacotherapy ## Footnote These options are for patients who do not respond to initial lifestyle modifications.
42
First line for Otitis Media without PCN allergy
Augmentin
43
Firat line for Otitis Media with mild PCN allergy
Cecdinir and doxycycline With cephalosporin allergy- clarithromycin
44
What is characterized by **pain and redness** at the junction between the cornea and the sclera?
Anterior uveitis ## Footnote Anterior uveitis is marked by leukocytes in the anterior chamber of the eye on slit lamp examination.
45
Uveitis is often a manifestation of many **systemic inflammatory conditions**, including:
* Spondyloarthritis * Sarcoidosis * Other systemic and rheumatic diseases ## Footnote Examples include ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis.
46
What are the characteristics of **orbital cellulitis**?
* Eyelid swelling * Pain with eye movements * Proptosis * Chemosis ## Footnote Orbital cellulitis is an infection that can lead to serious complications.
47
Optic neurotis associated with
Multiple sclerosis
48
What is the **highest visual acuity** referred to as?
FOVeA CeNTRALIS ## Footnote This term indicates the area of the retina responsible for sharp central vision.
49
What are the **specific characteristics** of a **BASILAR SKULL FRACTURE**?
* CSF leaks in otorrhea / rhinorrhea * Periorbital ecchymosis- racoon Eyes * 'Battle sign' mastoid ecchymosis ## Footnote These signs indicate potential serious head injuries and require immediate medical attention.
50
True or false: **Open glaucoma** is typically **painful**.
FALSE ## Footnote Open glaucoma is characterized by painless vision loss.
51
What are the symptoms of **closed-angle glaucoma**?
* Painful * Cupping of optic disc ## Footnote Closed-angle glaucoma is an emergency condition that can lead to rapid vision loss.
52
What is the **gold standard** for diagnosing **closed-angle glaucoma**?
Gonioscopy ## Footnote Gonioscopy allows for the examination of the anterior chamber angle.
53
List the causes of **peripheral vertigo**.
* BPPV * Vestibular neuritis * Meniere's disease ## Footnote Peripheral vertigo is often related to inner ear issues.
54
List the causes of **central vertigo**.
* TIA * Stroke * Multiple sclerosis (MS) * Tumor ## Footnote Central vertigo is associated with neurological conditions.
55
Myopia
Nearsighted- blurred distance vision
56
Hyperopia
Farsighted- difficulty near vision
57
Presbyopia
Aging sight
58
Pterygium
Triangular wedge across the cornea
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