Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System (SNS) control?

A

Skeletal muscle and is under conscious control

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2
Q

How is the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) structured?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic regions

It has a two-neuron chain: preganglionic and postganglionic

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3
Q

What is the primary function of the Enteric Nervous System (ENS)?

A

Controls the gastrointestinal tract and is mainly under parasympathetic control

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4
Q

What is the response of the Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) commonly referred to as?

A

‘Fight-or-Flight’ or Ergotrophic response

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5
Q

What are the main effects of the Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS)?

A

Short-lived effects that promote ‘Rest-and-Digest’ activities

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6
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerves originate?

A

Thoracolumbar region (Spinal Cord T1 to L2)

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7
Q

Where do the parasympathetic nerves originate?

A

Craniosacral region (Brainstem/Sacral Cord)

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8
Q

What neurotransmitter is primarily used by the sympathetic nervous system postganglionic neurons?

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

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9
Q

What neurotransmitter do both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons use?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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10
Q

What characterizes the sympathetic chain ganglia?

A

Allows short preganglionic neurons to activate multiple postganglionic neurons simultaneously

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11
Q

What is the primary receptor type for the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Muscarinic receptors (M1 through M5)

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12
Q

What is the function of baroreceptors in the context of Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

Senses pressure changes in the carotid artery and aorta

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13
Q

What happens when MAP increases?

A

Activates PNS, resulting in decreased heart rate and cardiac output

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14
Q

What is the role of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) in MAP regulation?

A

Regulates blood pressure through vasoconstriction and blood volume increase via Kidneys (JG)

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15
Q

What are the main classes of neurotransmitters?

A
  • Esters
  • Monoamines
  • Amino Acids
  • Purines
  • Peptides
  • Inorganic Gases
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16
Q

What are the key steps in the synthesis of Acetylcholine (ACh)?

A

Cht - chat - vat

Choline + Acetyl-CoA - ChAT → ACh

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17
Q

What is the main effect of cholinomimetics?

A

Mimic or enhance the effects of acetylcholine

Sludge - bbm

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18
Q

What are the two types of cholinergic agonists?

A
  • Direct-Acting Agonists
  • Indirect-Acting Agonists
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19
Q

What are the effects of anti-muscarinic drugs?

A

Block muscarinic receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects

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20
Q

What are common symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?

A

SLUDGE-BM: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI Motility, Emesis, Bronchoconstriction, Miosis

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action for adrenergic agonists?

A

Bind directly to α or β receptors or cause release of endogenous NE

22
Q

What is the effect of low-dose dopamine?

A

D1 receptor agonism → Vasodilation

Renal dose

23
Q

What is the clinical use of selective α2 agonists?

A

SEDATION and Lower blood pressure and heart rate

24
Q

What is the effect of α-blockers on blood pressure?

A

Decrease peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure

25
What are the symptoms of atropine overdose?
Blindness, Redness, Absent bowel sounds, Needing to urinate, Dryness
26
Fill in the blank: Cholinomimetics are also known as _______.
Parasympathomimetics
27
True or False: The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons is norepinephrine.
False
28
What is the primary mechanism for the termination of norepinephrine action?
Reuptake by NET
29
What is the role of synaptotagmin in neurotransmitter release?
Senses Ca2+ influx and facilitates vesicle fusion
30
What is the significance of the 'fight-or-flight' response?
Prepares the body for immediate physical action
31
What is the effect of β2 agonists?
Bronchodilation and vasodilation
32
What is the primary action of cholinergic antagonists?
Block the effects of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
33
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
Rapidly breaks down acetylcholine in the synapse
34
What are the main types of adrenergic receptors?
* α1 * α2 * β1 * β2
35
What is the use of Prazosin, Terazosin, and Tamsulosin?
Used for Pheochromocytoma and BPH. ## Footnote These medications are α1 selective blockers that help alleviate symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and manage hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma.
36
What is the effect of a non-selective α-blocker like Phentolamine on Epinephrine?
Converts the pressor effect of Epinephrine into a depressor effect. ## Footnote This occurs because the α1 vasoconstriction is blocked, leaving β2 vasodilation and β1 increased heart rate/cardiac output effects dominant.
37
What do β-blockers block?
Block β1 (Heart) and β2 (Lungs/Vessels). ## Footnote This action results in negative inotropic and chronotropic effects.
38
What are the major antihypertensive drug groups?
* Diuretics (Thiazides) * Sympathoplegics (α/β blockers, CNS agonists) * Direct Vasodilators (Hydralazine, Minoxidil) * Anti-Angiotensins (ACEIs/ARBs/Renin Inhibitors) ## Footnote Each group works by different mechanisms to lower blood pressure.
39
What is the mechanism of action for Clonidine?
Decreases sympathetic stimulation in the brainstem. ## Footnote This leads to increased parasympathetic outflow and decreased heart rate.
40
Fill in the blank: ACE Inhibitors block the __________ enzyme.
[ACE enzyme (Kininase II)] ## Footnote This action prevents the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II.
41
What is the primary action of Nitrates/Nitrites like Nitroglycerin?
Converted to Nitric Oxide (NO) → ↑ cGMP → Vascular Smooth Muscle Relaxation. ## Footnote This results in venodilation and decreased preload, which is the main anti-anginal effect.
42
What characterizes Effort/Classic Angina?
O2 demand > O2 supply due to plaque blockage. ## Footnote This imbalance occurs during exercise or stress.
43
What are the major determinants of myocardial oxygen consumption?
* Heart Rate * Contractility * Wall Tension (Afterload/Preload) ## Footnote These factors influence the heart's oxygen requirements.
44
What is the mechanism of action for Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)?
Block L-type Ca2+ channels → ↓ Ca2+ influx → Muscle Relaxation/Vasodilation. ## Footnote This leads to decreased afterload and heart rate.
45
What is the primary cause of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?
Failure of the heart to meet tissue demands, often due to Coronary Artery Disease. ## Footnote Ischemia can lead to myocardial infarction and subsequent scarring.
46
What are the types of Heart Failure?
* Systolic Failure (↓ Ejection Fraction) * Diastolic Failure (Normal Ejection Fraction) * High-Output Failure (Rare) ## Footnote Each type has different underlying mechanisms and responses to treatment.
47
What is Digoxin's mechanism of action?
Inhibits Na+/K+−ATPase → ↑ intracellular Ca2+ → ↑ contractility. ## Footnote It is the only oral positive inotrope and has a narrow therapeutic index.
48
What are the phases of the Ventricular Myocyte Action Potential?
* Phase 0: ↑Na+ influx (Depolarization) * Phase 1: ↓Na+, ↑K+ efflux (Overshoot) * Phase 2: Ca2+ influx balanced by K+ efflux (Plateau) * Phase 3: ↑↑K+ efflux (Repolarization) * Phase 4: Resting Potential ## Footnote These phases are critical for understanding cardiac action potentials and arrhythmias.
49
What are the Class I antiarrhythmic drugs?
* Class IA (Quinidine, Procainamide) * Class IB (Lidocaine) * Class IC (Flecainide) ## Footnote Class I drugs are sodium channel blockers that affect the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential.
50
True or False: Amiodarone is primarily classified as a Class III antiarrhythmic drug.
True. ## Footnote Amiodarone also has properties of Class I, II, and IV antiarrhythmic drugs.
51
What are the side effects of β-blockers?
* Bradycardia * Hypotension ## Footnote These effects are due to the reduction in heart rate and contractility.