Lecture 2 Flashcards

(210 cards)

1
Q

What is the relationship between barriers a drug must cross and its effectiveness?

A

The more barriers a drug has to cross, the harder it is to get to the receptor.

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1
Q

What is the relationship between barriers a drug must cross and its effectiveness?

A

The more barriers a drug has to cross, the harder it is to get to the receptor.

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2
Q

Why can’t some drugs be given orally?

A

They don’t cross into the bloodstream.

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2
Q

Why can’t some drugs be given orally?

A

They don’t cross into the bloodstream.

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3
Q

What type of drug is easier to cross barriers?

A

A lipid soluble drug that is fairly uncharged.

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3
Q

What type of drug is easier to cross barriers?

A

A lipid soluble drug that is fairly uncharged.

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4
Q

Define weak acids.

A

Weak acids are compounds that partially dissociate and can release hydrogen ions into solution.

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4
Q

Define weak acids.

A

Weak acids are compounds that partially dissociate and can release hydrogen ions into solution.

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5
Q

What is an example of a weak acid drug?

A

Aspirin.

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5
Q

What is an example of a weak acid drug?

A

Aspirin.

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6
Q

What is a strong acid?

A

An acid that completely dissociates in solution.

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6
Q

What is a strong acid?

A

An acid that completely dissociates in solution.

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7
Q

What is the difference between weak acids and weak bases?

A

Weak acids release hydrogen ions; weak bases absorb hydrogen ions.

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7
Q

What is the difference between weak acids and weak bases?

A

Weak acids release hydrogen ions; weak bases absorb hydrogen ions.

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8
Q

What is the PKA?

A

The ionization constant that indicates whether a drug is charged or uncharged.

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8
Q

What is the PKA?

A

The ionization constant that indicates whether a drug is charged or uncharged.

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9
Q

What does the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation relate?

A

It relates pH to pKa.

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9
Q

What does the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation relate?

A

It relates pH to pKa.

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10
Q

When does the protonated form of a drug favor?

A

If the pH is less than the pKa.

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10
Q

When does the protonated form of a drug favor?

A

If the pH is less than the pKa.

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11
Q

What happens to a weak acid when it loses a hydrogen ion?

A

It becomes charged.

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11
Q

What happens to a weak acid when it loses a hydrogen ion?

A

It becomes charged.

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12
Q

What is the protonated form of a weak acid?

A

The form that has the proton attached and is uncharged.

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12
Q

What is the protonated form of a weak acid?

A

The form that has the proton attached and is uncharged.

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13
What is the effect of low pH on weak acids?
It favors the protonated form.
13
What is the effect of low pH on weak acids?
It favors the protonated form.
14
What happens to weak bases in a low pH environment?
The protonated form is charged, limiting absorption.
14
What happens to weak bases in a low pH environment?
The protonated form is charged, limiting absorption.
15
What is one method to excrete weak acids faster?
Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate.
15
What is one method to excrete weak acids faster?
Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate.
16
Fill in the blank: A biologic is a drug created by a _______.
[living organism]
16
Fill in the blank: A biologic is a drug created by a _______.
[living organism]
17
What is recombinant DNA technology?
A method that involves taking a gene from one organism and inserting it into another.
17
What is recombinant DNA technology?
A method that involves taking a gene from one organism and inserting it into another.
18
What percentage of new drug approvals were biologics in 2024?
36%.
18
What percentage of new drug approvals were biologics in 2024?
36%.
19
What is the significance of biologics in pharmacology?
They represent an important class of drugs increasingly used in treatment.
19
What is the significance of biologics in pharmacology?
They represent an important class of drugs increasingly used in treatment.
20
What is an example of a weak base drug?
Morphine.
20
What is an example of a weak base drug?
Morphine.
21
True or False: The pKa of a drug changes with pH.
False.
21
True or False: The pKa of a drug changes with pH.
False.
22
What is the effect of a higher pH on weak acids?
It favors the unprotonated form, which is charged.
22
What is the effect of a higher pH on weak acids?
It favors the unprotonated form, which is charged.
23
What happens to drugs in the liver?
They can become charged through chemical reactions, aiding excretion.
23
What happens to drugs in the liver?
They can become charged through chemical reactions, aiding excretion.
24
What happens to drugs that are in the kidney but not yet in urine?
They can be reabsorbed.
24
What happens to drugs that are in the kidney but not yet in urine?
They can be reabsorbed.
25
What is the common reason for side effects from NSAIDs like aspirin?
They are absorbed more in the stomach, where they can cause ulcers.
25
What is the common reason for side effects from NSAIDs like aspirin?
They are absorbed more in the stomach, where they can cause ulcers.
26
What percentage of new drug approvals in 2024 were for biologics?
36% ## Footnote This percentage translates to 18 out of 50 new drug approvals.
26
What percentage of new drug approvals in 2024 were for biologics?
36% ## Footnote This percentage translates to 18 out of 50 new drug approvals.
27
What are biologics?
Biologics include peptides, small molecules produced by biological organisms, proteins, and oligonucleotides.
27
What are biologics?
Biologics include peptides, small molecules produced by biological organisms, proteins, and oligonucleotides.
28
What are monoclonal antibodies primarily used for?
Anti-cancer drugs and autoimmune drugs.
28
What are monoclonal antibodies primarily used for?
Anti-cancer drugs and autoimmune drugs.
29
What does 'mono' in monoclonal antibody imply?
One single clone.
29
What does 'mono' in monoclonal antibody imply?
One single clone.
30
What are the two major functions of antibodies?
* Recognize and bind to antigen * Induce an immune response
30
What are the two major functions of antibodies?
* Recognize and bind to antigen * Induce an immune response
31
What section of the antibody structure is responsible for binding to antigens?
Variable region.
31
What section of the antibody structure is responsible for binding to antigens?
Variable region.
32
What is the constant portion of an antibody called?
FC domain.
32
What is the constant portion of an antibody called?
FC domain.
33
How are monoclonal antibodies produced?
By fusing B cells with myeloma cells to create hybridomas.
33
How are monoclonal antibodies produced?
By fusing B cells with myeloma cells to create hybridomas.
34
What is a hybridoma?
A hybrid cell formed from the fusion of a B cell and a cancer cell.
34
What is a hybridoma?
A hybrid cell formed from the fusion of a B cell and a cancer cell.
35
What suffix indicates a monoclonal antibody derived from a mouse?
MOMAB.
35
What suffix indicates a monoclonal antibody derived from a mouse?
MOMAB.
36
What does 'chimera' refer to in the context of monoclonal antibodies?
A mix of mouse variable regions with human constant regions.
36
What does 'chimera' refer to in the context of monoclonal antibodies?
A mix of mouse variable regions with human constant regions.
37
What suffix is used for chimeric antibodies?
XIMAB.
37
What suffix is used for chimeric antibodies?
XIMAB.
38
Why are murine antibodies less commonly used?
They may be recognized as foreign by the human immune system.
38
Why are murine antibodies less commonly used?
They may be recognized as foreign by the human immune system.
39
What organization oversees drug approvals in the U.S.?
FDA (Food and Drug Administration).
39
What organization oversees drug approvals in the U.S.?
FDA (Food and Drug Administration).
40
What must drugs demonstrate to receive FDA approval?
They must be both safe and effective.
40
What must drugs demonstrate to receive FDA approval?
They must be both safe and effective.
41
What are the classifications of drugs regulated by the FDA?
* Prescription drugs * Over-the-counter drugs * Behind-the-counter drugs
41
What are the classifications of drugs regulated by the FDA?
* Prescription drugs * Over-the-counter drugs * Behind-the-counter drugs
42
What is an example of a drug that was not approved by the FDA due to safety concerns?
Thalidomide.
42
What is an example of a drug that was not approved by the FDA due to safety concerns?
Thalidomide.
43
What was the consequence of thalidomide being used in pregnant women?
Children developed phocomelia, a condition resulting in limb malformation.
43
What was the consequence of thalidomide being used in pregnant women?
Children developed phocomelia, a condition resulting in limb malformation.
44
What is an IND in drug development?
Investigational New Drug application.
44
What is an IND in drug development?
Investigational New Drug application.
45
What is the first step in drug development?
In vitro studies.
45
What is the first step in drug development?
In vitro studies.
46
What is the purpose of animal testing in drug development?
To assess effectiveness and safety before human trials.
46
What is the purpose of animal testing in drug development?
To assess effectiveness and safety before human trials.
47
What is the typical population for phase one clinical trials?
Healthy volunteers, often college students.
47
What is the typical population for phase one clinical trials?
Healthy volunteers, often college students.
48
What is the main focus of phase one clinical trials?
Safety and side effects.
48
What is the main focus of phase one clinical trials?
Safety and side effects.
49
What is the purpose of filing an investigational new drug application (IND) with the FDA?
To request permission to progress a drug to human trials and provide animal testing data ## Footnote The IND is the first interaction with the FDA.
49
What is the purpose of filing an investigational new drug application (IND) with the FDA?
To request permission to progress a drug to human trials and provide animal testing data ## Footnote The IND is the first interaction with the FDA.
50
What is the primary focus of phase one clinical trials?
Assessing safety and pharmacokinetic variables in healthy volunteers ## Footnote This phase often involves college students who may receive compensation.
50
What is the primary focus of phase one clinical trials?
Assessing safety and pharmacokinetic variables in healthy volunteers ## Footnote This phase often involves college students who may receive compensation.
51
What does a double-blind study in phase two trials entail?
Neither the patients nor the clinicians know who receives the placebo or the drug ## Footnote This design helps eliminate bias in assessing the drug's effectiveness.
51
What does a double-blind study in phase two trials entail?
Neither the patients nor the clinicians know who receives the placebo or the drug ## Footnote This design helps eliminate bias in assessing the drug's effectiveness.
52
What is the main goal of phase three clinical trials?
To evaluate the drug's effectiveness and identify any side effects in a larger patient population ## Footnote Thousands of patients are often involved in this phase.
52
What is the main goal of phase three clinical trials?
To evaluate the drug's effectiveness and identify any side effects in a larger patient population ## Footnote Thousands of patients are often involved in this phase.
53
What happens after a drug successfully passes phase three trials?
A new drug application (NDA) is submitted to the FDA for marketing approval ## Footnote This marks the transition from clinical trials to marketing the drug.
53
What happens after a drug successfully passes phase three trials?
A new drug application (NDA) is submitted to the FDA for marketing approval ## Footnote This marks the transition from clinical trials to marketing the drug.
54
What is phase four of drug development?
Post-marketing surveillance to monitor the drug's effects in the general population ## Footnote This phase also involves educating physicians about the drug.
54
What is phase four of drug development?
Post-marketing surveillance to monitor the drug's effects in the general population ## Footnote This phase also involves educating physicians about the drug.
55
What is the significance of the EKA in relation to drug efficacy?
Drugs are more effective in their uncharged form, allowing them to cross barriers more easily ## Footnote EKA refers to the effective concentration at which a drug works optimally.
55
What is the significance of the Pka in relation to drug efficacy?
Drugs are more effective in their uncharged form, allowing them to cross barriers more easily ## Footnote EKA refers to the effective concentration at which a drug works optimally.
56
What is a lag period in cell signaling?
The time it takes for an effector protein to undergo transcription and translation after a signal is received ## Footnote This period can vary depending on the protein's stability and half-life.
56
What is a lag period in cell signaling?
The time it takes for an effector protein to undergo transcription and translation after a signal is received ## Footnote This period can vary depending on the protein's stability and half-life.
57
What is the role of phosphorylation in signal transduction?
To activate or deactivate proteins, amplifying the cellular response ## Footnote Phosphorylation involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein.
57
What is the role of phosphorylation in signal transduction?
To activate or deactivate proteins, amplifying the cellular response ## Footnote Phosphorylation involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein.
58
What are GPCRs and their significance in pharmacology?
G-protein coupled receptors are critical for transmitting signals in cells and are targets for many drugs ## Footnote They account for about two-thirds of all non-antibiotic drugs.
58
What are GPCRs and their significance in pharmacology?
G-protein coupled receptors are critical for transmitting signals in cells and are targets for many drugs ## Footnote They account for about two-thirds of all non-antibiotic drugs.
59
What are the two main types of receptors based on their location?
Intracellular receptors and cell surface receptors ## Footnote Intracellular receptors often require lipid-soluble drugs.
59
What are the two main types of receptors based on their location?
Intracellular receptors and cell surface receptors ## Footnote Intracellular receptors often require lipid-soluble drugs.
60
What is the function of a G-protein in GPCR signaling?
To transmit signals from the activated receptor to intracellular targets ## Footnote G-proteins are guanine nucleotide binding proteins, activating when bound to GTP.
60
What is the function of a G-protein in GPCR signaling?
To transmit signals from the activated receptor to intracellular targets ## Footnote G-proteins are guanine nucleotide binding proteins, activating when bound to GTP.
61
What occurs when a signal molecule binds to a GPCR?
The receptor activates the G-protein, allowing the alpha subunit to exchange GDP for GTP ## Footnote This activation triggers downstream signaling events.
61
What occurs when a signal molecule binds to a GPCR?
The receptor activates the G-protein, allowing the alpha subunit to exchange GDP for GTP ## Footnote This activation triggers downstream signaling events.
62
Fill in the blank: The phosphorylation cascade amplifies the signal by activating multiple _______.
protein kinases
62
Fill in the blank: The phosphorylation cascade amplifies the signal by activating multiple _______.
protein kinases
63
True or False: The effects of growth factors are immediate.
False ## Footnote The response to growth factors often involves transcription and translation, leading to delayed effects.
63
True or False: The effects of growth factors are immediate.
False ## Footnote The response to growth factors often involves transcription and translation, leading to delayed effects.
64
What does it mean to have spare receptors in a signaling pathway?
There are more receptors available than are necessary to elicit a full response ## Footnote This can allow for some level of response even in the presence of antagonists.
64
What does it mean to have spare receptors in a signaling pathway?
There are more receptors available than are necessary to elicit a full response ## Footnote This can allow for some level of response even in the presence of antagonists.
65
What is the structure of a GPCR?
It consists of seven transmembrane spanning domains ## Footnote The structure allows for interaction with both extracellular signals and intracellular G-proteins.
65
What is the structure of a GPCR?
It consists of seven transmembrane spanning domains ## Footnote The structure allows for interaction with both extracellular signals and intracellular G-proteins.
66
What happens when the alpha subunit of a G-protein dissociates?
It activates an enzyme that elicits a response ## Footnote The alpha subunit dissociates from beta and gamma subunits and interacts with an effector enzyme.
66
What happens when the alpha subunit of a G-protein dissociates?
It activates an enzyme that elicits a response ## Footnote The alpha subunit dissociates from beta and gamma subunits and interacts with an effector enzyme.
67
What is the role of the G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) in signal transduction?
It activates the alpha subunit of the G-protein upon ligand binding ## Footnote The GPCR undergoes a conformational change when a ligand binds.
67
What is the role of the G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) in signal transduction?
It activates the alpha subunit of the G-protein upon ligand binding ## Footnote The GPCR undergoes a conformational change when a ligand binds.
68
Define 'conformational change' in the context of GPCR.
A structural alteration in the receptor that enables activation of the G-protein signaling gdp to drop and gtp to attach ## Footnote This change occurs when a ligand or drug binds to the receptor.
68
Define 'conformational change' in the context of GPCR.
A structural alteration in the receptor that enables activation of the G-protein ## Footnote This change occurs when a ligand or drug binds to the receptor.
69
What are second messengers?
Small molecules that relay signals from receptors to target molecules inside the cell ## Footnote Examples include cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, calcium, diacylglycerol, and IP3.
69
What are second messengers?
Small molecules that relay signals from receptors to target molecules inside the cell ## Footnote Examples include cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, calcium, diacylglycerol, and IP3.
70
What is cyclic AMP's role in cell signaling?
It acts as a second messenger that activates protein kinases ## Footnote Cyclic AMP is produced by the enzyme adenylate cyclase upon activation by the alpha subunit.
70
What is cyclic AMP's role in cell signaling?
It acts as a second messenger that activates protein kinases ## Footnote Cyclic AMP is produced by the enzyme adenylate cyclase upon activation by the alpha subunit.
71
What does the G alpha S subunit do?
It stimulates adenylate cyclase to increase cyclic AMP levels ## Footnote This is part of the stimulatory pathway in GPCR signaling.
71
What does the G alpha S subunit do?
It stimulates adenylate cyclase to increase cyclic AMP levels ## Footnote This is part of the stimulatory pathway in GPCR signaling.
72
What is the effect of the G alpha I subunit?
It inhibits adenylate cyclase, decreasing cyclic AMP levels ## Footnote This is part of the inhibitory pathway in GPCR signaling.
72
What is the effect of the G alpha I subunit?
It inhibits adenylate cyclase, decreasing cyclic AMP levels ## Footnote This is part of the inhibitory pathway in GPCR signaling.
73
What is the function of phospholipase C in GPCR signaling?
It breaks down phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into IP3 and diacylglycerol ## Footnote This occurs when the G alpha Q or G alpha O subunits are activated.
73
What is the function of phospholipase C in GPCR signaling?
It breaks down phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into IP3 and diacylglycerol ## Footnote This occurs when the G alpha Q or G alpha O subunits are activated.
74
What cellular response might result from IP3 signaling?
Release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum ## Footnote This can lead to muscle contraction or secretion of hormones.
74
What cellular response might result from IP3 signaling?
Release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum ## Footnote This can lead to muscle contraction or secretion of hormones.
75
What is desensitization in the context of GPCR signaling?
A decrease in receptor responsiveness despite the continued presence of an agonist ## Footnote This can occur due to receptor phosphorylation and binding of beta-arrestin.
75
What is desensitization in the context of GPCR signaling?
A decrease in receptor responsiveness despite the continued presence of an agonist ## Footnote This can occur due to receptor phosphorylation and binding of beta-arrestin.
76
What role does beta-arrestin play in GPCR signaling?
It binds to phosphorylated receptors, preventing G-protein activation ## Footnote This effectively 'arrests' the signaling process.
76
What role does beta-arrestin play in GPCR signaling?
It binds to phosphorylated receptors, preventing G-protein activation ## Footnote This effectively 'arrests' the signaling process.
77
What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?
An agonist activates a receptor, while an antagonist blocks receptor activation ## Footnote Agonists can have a high affinity for receptors, causing sustained activation.
77
What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?
An agonist activates a receptor, while an antagonist blocks receptor activation ## Footnote Agonists can have a high affinity for receptors, causing sustained activation.
78
Fill in the blank: G alpha T activates _______ to decrease cyclic GMP levels.
cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase ## Footnote This is specifically related to light receptors in rod cells.
78
Fill in the blank: G alpha T activates _______ to decrease cyclic GMP levels.
cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase ## Footnote This is specifically related to light receptors in rod cells.
79
True or False: The beta and gamma subunits of G-proteins are always inactive.
False ## Footnote They can have effects, such as opening potassium channels.
79
True or False: The beta and gamma subunits of G-proteins are always inactive.
False ## Footnote They can have effects, such as opening potassium channels.
80
What is the significance of cyclic GMP in cellular signaling?
It acts as a second messenger that can influence various cellular responses ## Footnote Its levels are regulated by phosphodiesterases.
80
What is the significance of cyclic GMP in cellular signaling?
It acts as a second messenger that can influence various cellular responses ## Footnote Its levels are regulated by phosphodiesterases.
81
What happens to a receptor when it is continuously activated by a high-affinity agonist?
The receptor may become desensitized and internalized ## Footnote This prevents excessive signaling in the cell.
81
What happens to a receptor when it is continuously activated by a high-affinity agonist?
The receptor may become desensitized and internalized ## Footnote This prevents excessive signaling in the cell.
82
What is the primary function of kinases in signaling pathways?
To add phosphate groups to proteins, modifying their activity ## Footnote This can activate or deactivate target proteins.
82
What is the primary function of kinases in signaling pathways?
To add phosphate groups to proteins, modifying their activity ## Footnote This can activate or deactivate target proteins.
83
What happens to a receptor when a drug is bound to it?
The receptor becomes non-functional and cannot signal.
83
What happens to a receptor when a drug is bound to it?
The receptor becomes non-functional and cannot signal.
84
What is the role of clathrin proteins in receptor internalization?
Clathrin proteins facilitate the internalization of receptors when they are no longer functional.
84
What is the role of clathrin proteins in receptor internalization?
Clathrin proteins facilitate the internalization of receptors when they are no longer functional.
85
What happens to a receptor that is internalized due to continuous drug binding?
It can either merge with a lysosome for degradation or be recycled back to the cell surface.
85
What happens to a receptor that is internalized due to continuous drug binding?
It can either merge with a lysosome for degradation or be recycled back to the cell surface.
86
What is the function of lysosomes in receptor signaling?
Lysosomes break down non-functional receptors.
86
What is the function of lysosomes in receptor signaling?
Lysosomes break down non-functional receptors.
87
What enzyme is involved in stripping phosphates from a receptor?
Phosphatase.
87
What enzyme is involved in stripping phosphates from a receptor?
Phosphatase.
88
Define desensitization in receptor signaling.
Desensitization is the process where a receptor becomes non-responsive due to continuous stimulation.
88
Define desensitization in receptor signaling.
Desensitization is the process where a receptor becomes non-responsive due to continuous stimulation.
89
What is a receptor tyrosine kinase?
A receptor that requires dimerization for activation and phosphorylates tyrosine residues.
89
What is a receptor tyrosine kinase?
A receptor that requires dimerization for activation and phosphorylates tyrosine residues.
90
What initiates the dimerization of receptor tyrosine kinases?
Binding of 2 ligands to the receptors.
90
What initiates the dimerization of receptor tyrosine kinases?
Binding of a ligand to the receptors.
91
What are the two main types of ion channels?
* Ligand-gated * Voltage-gated
91
What are the two main types of ion channels?
* Ligand-gated * Voltage-gated
92
What is the primary function of ion channels?
To allow charged ions to pass through the cell membrane.
92
What is the primary function of ion channels?
To allow charged ions to pass through the cell membrane.
93
Fill in the blank: A kinase adds a _______ group.
phosphate
93
Fill in the blank: A kinase adds a _______ group.
phosphate
94
Fill in the blank: A phosphatase strips a _______ group.
phosphate
94
Fill in the blank: A phosphatase strips a _______ group.
phosphate
95
What is the consequence when a receptor is phosphorylated by G receptor kinase?
It becomes a target for beta-arrestin.
95
What is the consequence when a receptor is phosphorylated by G receptor kinase?
It becomes a target for beta-arrestin.
96
What cellular event occurs during receptor internalization?
The receptor and drug complex is brought inside the cell.
96
What cellular event occurs during receptor internalization?
The receptor and drug complex is brought inside the cell.
97
True or False: All receptors are permanently destroyed once internalized.
False
97
True or False: All receptors are permanently destroyed once internalized.
False
98
What activates the tyrosines on receptor tyrosine kinases?
Dimerization of the receptors.
98
What activates the tyrosines on receptor tyrosine kinases?
Dimerization of the receptors.
99
What are second messengers in receptor signaling?
Intracellular proteins that relay signals from activated receptors.
99
What are second messengers in receptor signaling?
Intracellular proteins that relay signals from activated receptors.
100
What role do calcium ions play in cell signaling?
They move across the membrane and contribute to cellular responses.
100
What role do calcium ions play in cell signaling?
They move across the membrane and contribute to cellular responses.
101
What is the difference between inactivated and deactivated ion channels?
Inactivated channels cannot open in response to a stimulus, while deactivated channels can.
101
What is the difference between inactivated and deactivated ion channels?
Inactivated channels cannot open in response to a stimulus, while deactivated channels can.
102
What triggers the opening of voltage-gated ion channels?
A change in the membrane voltage.
102
What triggers the opening of voltage-gated ion channels?
A change in the membrane voltage.
103
List the key ions involved in cellular signaling.
* Sodium * Calcium * Potassium * Chloride
103
List the key ions involved in cellular signaling.
* Sodium * Calcium * Potassium * Chloride
104
What is the main characteristic of ligand-gated channels?
They open in response to the binding of a ligand.
104
What is the main characteristic of ligand-gated channels?
They open in response to the binding of a ligand.
105
What happens to calcium ions during depolarization in cardiac cells?
Calcium ions flow into the cell.
105
What happens to calcium ions during depolarization in cardiac cells?
Calcium ions flow into the cell.