Dash 8 Q300/200 > FCOM > Flashcards

FCOM Flashcards

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1
Q

Min gate speeds 300 ?

A 
Holding and cruise : 160kts 
Flap 0 selected : 155kts
Flap 5: 145kts
Flap 10: 135kts
Flap 15: Vref or Vref ICE
Flap 15 selected for Flap 35 landing: Vref ice flap 35+15kts
Flap 35: Vref or Vref ice
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2
Q

Min gate speeds 200 ?

A 
Flap 0: 140kts
Flap 5: 130kts
Flap 15: Vref or Vref ice 
Flap 15 selected for flap 35 landing:  Vref ice flap 35 +15kts
Flap 35: Vref or Vref ice
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3
Q

Prior to initially selecting flaps what must the pilot monitoring do ?

A

Must visually confirm that the INCR REF SPEED switch and state if it’s on

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4
Q

Type one climb?

A

Hi speed 205 kts Up to 10,000 feet every 1000 feet after that it reduces by 5kts

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5
Q

Type 2 climb ?

A

170kts To 15,000 feet every 1000 feet after that it reduces by3 KTS

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6
Q

Type three climb?

A

135 kts

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7
Q

When do we use a climb speed of 150kts ?

A

Night or IMC operations until above MSA

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8
Q

When the cabin crew commence their duties The pitch attitude in the climb must be below what?

A

10°

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9
Q

Climb torque is scheduled for a given propeller RPM using what ?

A

Climb Torque cards

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10
Q

When can we turn the fasten belts sign off ?

A

Once clear of any anticipated turbulence and above 1000ft AGL

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11
Q

If climb checks and transition come at the same time what do you do first ?

A

Transition then climb checks

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12
Q

Reasonable indications of cabin pressurisation if we take off from sea level ?

A

Difference of 4PSI, Cabin Alt 2000ft, rate less than 500

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13
Q

Prior to setting 900np in the climb checks, what must the FO do ?

A

Syncrophase off and then on once condition levers have been set

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14
Q

When do we do a fuel check ?

A

Once established at cruise power. Then hourly and not less than once per flight.

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15
Q

What to brief with any hold ?

A

TSAFE

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16
Q

On completion of a hold the PF will direct the pilot monitoring to do what?

A

Proceed or DTO an appropriate waypoint

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17
Q

When do you get the cabin crew to prepare the cabin for landing?

A

Flight level 200 on decent Or two minutes prior to TOD

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18
Q

What do we say when preparing the cabin for landing ?

A

Cabin crew prepare cabin for landing

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19
Q

What must you do if you have a change to flap settings after the descent checks and checklist?

A

The change must be briefed, the speed bags must be reset, Decent checklist must be re-completed, Must be completed prior to IAF

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20
Q

What must be completed prior to doing the approach checklist?

A

Cabin preparation completed and fasten belts notices on.

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21
Q

How soon before starting an instrument app OCTA must you get an QNH ?

A

15mins

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22
Q

Company minima for 2D approaches with vertical guidance?

A

MDA +50 feet

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23
Q

Company minima 2D approach without vertical guidance?

A

MDA

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24
Q

Minimum altitude for circling?

A

1000ft HAA or MDA for circling which ever is greater.

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25
Once received the landing clearance what must the pilot monitoring do?
Taxi light on and flare path light on
26
What’s the acceleration alt on a missed app, Instrument and Visual ?
Instrument: DA/CM/MDA Visual: Runway elevation +1000ft
27
At below what speed can we not use reverse thrust ?
60kts
28
When can we start to do single engine taxi ?
On landing and below 25kts
29
Total number of occupants 300 and 200 ?
61 and 45
30
MZFW,MRW,MBRW,MLW 300 ?
17917, 19595,19505,19051
31
MRW,MBRW,MLW,MZFW 200 series ?
16556,16466,15650,14696
32
Manoeuvring limits ?
Flap retracted +2.5G And -1G | Flap extended +2.0G and -0.0G
33
Maximum operating altitude take off and landing?
10,000 feet
34
Ambient temperature limits?
+48.9° or ISA +35 Which ever is lower | -54°C
35
Maximum operating runway slope?
+/ -2%
36
Crosswind and tailwind Maximum components dry runway?
36 kts Crosswind | 10 kts tailwind
37
Contaminated runway crosswind limit?
14 kts
38
Compacted snow crosswind limit?
20 kts
39
Narrow runway crosswind limit and tailwind limit?
20 kts crosswind limit and 10kt tailwind limit
40
Maximum taxi speeds wide runway?
25 kts in a straight line and 15 kts in turns
41
Taxi speed limit narrow runways?
15 kts in a straight line and 10 kts during turns
42
VMO 300 and 200?
300 equals 243 and the 200 equals 242
43
Maximum manoeuvering speed 300?
177 kts
44
Maximum manoeuvering speed 200 series?
164 kts
45
Turbulence penetration speed 200 and 300?
300 series equals 190 and the 200 series equals 180
46
Flap extension speeds limits 300 series?
163, 154, 150, 138
47
Maximum flap Extension speed 200 series?
148, 148, 130
48
VLO for 200 and 300 series?
163 for 300 and 158 for 200
49
Maximum landing gear extended speed?
173 for the 300 series and 172 for the 200 series.
50
Alternate gear extension speed?
140 kts
51
Maximum tire speed?
165kts
52
Maximum air start altitude?
20,000 feet
53
MTOP Torque limit 300 ?
105.5%
54
NTOP Torque limit 300 ?
92.0%
55
MCP torque limit 300 ?
90% for 1212np and 96% for <1125np
56
Maximum starting temps for 300 ?
840 -900 is 12 seconds 900-950 is 5 seconds.
57
Maximum reverse torque 300 ?
90%
58
MTOP max 200 ?
111%
59
NTOP 200 ?
99.5%
60
MCP 200 ?
97.5% for 1212np and 114.2% for <1024np
61
Maximum propeller rpm?
1212
62
Maximum fuel temperature?
+57° and + 11°
63
Auxiliary tank usable capacity?
4566 lbs
64
Flight crew oxygen Dispatch pressure?
1300 psi
65
First aid bottle dispatch pressure?
1100 psi
66
Passenger supplemental oxygen bottle dispatch?
1800 psi
67
Normal cabin pressure differential?
5.5 +/-,0.3
68
Maximum Cabin differential?
5.95
69
Maximum cabin altitude pressurised flight?
8000 feet
70
APU temperature limits?
+48.9°C or ISA +35 which ever is lower | -43°C
71
Minimum height auto pilot on approach?
200 feet all engines operating and 1000 feet single engine.
72
Minimum auto pilot engagement height?
1000 feet AGL
73
DC generators max load on the ground?
0.7
74
A.c. generators max load on the ground?
Below 10° it’s 1.0 above 10°it’s 0.33
75
When can you exceed the DC generator maximum load?
On the ground for battery starts less than one minute.
76
Suggested flow for Fly the aircraft of FDODAR ?
``` Auto pilot or hand fly Speed gear flap Power management Configuration required Automation Icing Min speed and MSA Fuel ```
77
Minimum height to conduct non-normal actions?
400 feet AGL
78
What do we have to do prior to engaging the AP in a engine failure ?
Trim the aircraft
79
The FD GA selection will provide what during OEI
Approximate pitch required for V2
80
If a positive rate of climb cannot be achieved in a engine failure in the missed app what might you have to do ?
Feather the propeller prior to selecting gear up.
81
What’s some examples of reasons to reject between 70kts and V1?
Master warning, engine failure, directional issues or any issues in which the captain deems the aircraft is unsafe to fly.
82
Which EGPWS warnings must you conduct the terrain avoidance procedure?
Too low terrain Terrain pull-up Obstacle pull-up Pull up
83
What EGPWS call outs will make the crew perform an immediate go around to a safe altitude ?
``` Too low flaps Too low gear Sink rate Terrain terrain Caution terrain Caution obstacle ```
84
“Don’t sink” action required from the crew ?
Immediate climb
85
“Bank angle” action required from the crew ?
Take appropriate action to correct the unsafe condition.
86
“Glide slop” action required by the crew ?
Acknowledge the alert, take appropriate action to correct and insure stable approach criteria is meet.
87
When must you conduct the high angle of attack recovery ?
``` Activation of the stick shaker Unusual airframe buffet Uncommanded wing drop Activation of the stick pusher Fast/slow indicator at slow ```
88
Examples of aircraft upset positions ?
Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up Pitch attitude greater than 10° nose down Bank angle greater than 45 degrees Anything if flown at an unsafe airspeed
89
FMS entries or changes must be done by the PM when ?
Below 10,000ft Manual flight Whenever requested by the PF
90
What precautions should you take if you think you may encounter wind shear on T/O ?
Use the longest RWY into wind Don’t use RTOP Use flap 5 if possible Delay rotate until 1000ft before the end of the RWY
91
Stabilised approach altitude if wind shear on App ?
700ft minimum
92
When to initiate the wind shear recovery procedure ?
``` Uncontrolled changes in excess of 15kts indicated airspeed 500ft vertical speed 5 degrees of pitch change 1 dot deviation of glide slope Unusual power lever position for extended period ```
93
TCAS computer assumes that corrective action takes place how long after a RA ?
5 seconds
94
The airframe de icing boots must be activated when ?
At the first sign of ice accumulation | Must be operated until ice formation is no longer visible (300) or clear of icing (200)and after 2 complete cycles
95
Lowest altitude that you can turn on the de ice boots ?
400ft and at the first sign of ice accumulation.
96
For PRM how should your comms be setup when asked to contact the tower ?
Tower on comm 1 | PRM monitoring frequency comm2
97
During a engine fire on the ground what do each of the pilots do ?
One who is assigned by the captain will run the on the ground engine fire immediate actions The other will advise the need for emergencies services Number of people on board Amount of fuel onboard
98
The return to land checklist must not be used when ?
The fasten belts sign has been turned off Flight has continued above 10,000ft Diversion to the departure point or alternate has been flown.
99
When using external batteries to power the aircraft, what should be done With the main, Auxillary and battery master switch?
Turned off until ready to start the engine.To preserve battery life in the main and Auxillary batteries
100
How do we start the aircraft using external batteries?
Start one engine first, once the propeller is unfeathered And after 30 seconds with also the battery load less than 0.4 you may start the second engine.
101
If the external battery voltage is less than 24 V can we use it to start the engines?
No the external battery should be removed and the engine should be started using internal batteries.
102
Where do we find information on doing an internal battery start?
FCOM Supplemental procedures
103
What power source should be used when disembarking the aircraft?
The main power source used should be a ground power unit. If a ground power unit is not available then use APU or battery cart. Only if none of the sources of power are available should the passengers be disembarked using internal batteries alone.
104
If an aircraft is left unattended with the ground power unit on what must you do?
Turn the main, Auxillary and battery master switch off. Also switch off the emergency lighting And battery bus lighting.
105
Can we leave the aircraft unattended with the APU running?
No, the aircraft must be attended with the battery switches on.
106
At night with the electrical system powered what lights must be on?
The position lights.
107
How can we assist with avionics cooling?
Leave the re circulating fans on If the electrical system is on.
108
Minimum voltage requirement for starting the engines?
There is no minimum voltage specified for starting the engines. But if the voltage is below 23.0 Then the start should be closely monitored for any signs of a Hung start
109
What must you do if the starter motor stays engaged?
Main buses must be De powered by turn off all DC and A/C generators including the APU, external power and the main battery. Essential power will remain to disembark the passengers.
110
Failure of the ECU will results in what?
1 or 2 engine manual caution light illuminates. An increase in engine TQ as much as 10% but usually around 4-5% will be seen.
111
When taxing FMS entries are done by who?
The first officer after being confirmed by the captain.
112
Data entries or changes to the flight plan must be conducted by the PM when ?
Below 10,000 feet, in manual flight and whenever the pilot flying says so
113
When below MSA or ROUTE LSA, FMS entries are limited to what?
In IMC conditions or when visual circling below the VMC conditions – Procedures necessary for the conduction of visual approaches i.e. activate approach In Day VMC DTO function to a waypoint that is already in the flight plan.
114
Can the pilot flying use the DTO function above 10,000 feet?
Yes once confirmation from the pilot monitoring has occurred.
115
VNAV Maximum descent angles?
En route and terminal modes equals 6° approach mode equals 4° maximum
116
When does the NAV data expire on the FMS?
1600 UTC the day prior to the date shown on the FMS start-up page.
117
En-route lateral deviation scale EHSI?
5nm for two dots
118
Terminal deviation scale of the EHSI?
One nautical mile per two dots
119
Approach EHSI lateral deviation scale sensitivity?
2 degrees for 2 dot CDI deflection until 2 dots becomes equal to 0.3nm then its 0.3 nm for two dot deflection.
120
What must you input into the FMS if you have an engine failure ?
0 into the fuel flow for the failed engine. This will allow for more accurate fuel monitoring.
121
Definition of Turbulence?
Air that produces significant changes in altitude and airspeed.
122
Aircraft preparation for severe turbulence?
Secure loose items,Switch the ignition to auto or manual,Turn the seatbelt sign on and use the passenger address system to warn passengers and crew.
123
Minimum recommended speed in turbulence?
150 kts
124
Can we use the auto pilot for severe turbulence?
No.
125
Representative surface for ice accumulation?
Outboard roll spoiler left wing.
126
Can we de ice with the APU running?
Yes as long as the APU bleed it is turned off.
127
Severe icing maybe determined by what?
Ice accumulation on areas of the aircraft that usually don’t Accrue ice or on areas of the side windows aft of the Forward Edge.
128
When the ice protection is on during taxi,when must the ice protection be turned off?
Once the aircraft has come to a stop but before the propellers are feathered.
129
Severe Icing encounter procedure?
``` Auto pilot disconnect Condition leavers Max Power levers adjust up to max continuous power Minimum airspeed 160 kts Exit icing conditions ```
130
When can we assume that the aircraft is no longer in severe icing conditions?
When ice that has accumulated on the side windows is cleared.
131
Airport requirements for LAHSO?
Taxi holding positions in accordance with Jepps ATC Where the runway intersection is not clearly visible Distance to go Markings Taxi and holding position signs Other than that at the taxiway and runway intersections Hold short lights six bulbs
132
If the APU fails to start how long between the starts should be waited?
Five minutes
133
When in the vicinity of other traffic and levelling off what should we be thinking about ?
Reducing rate of climb or decent to less than 1500fpm in the last 1000ft of levelling off to avoid nuisance RAs
134
With exception of spool up during start, oil pressure below what requires a shutdown ?
40Psi
135
When you have a fuselage fire smoke or fumes incident and the autopilot is not engaged what happens ?
The PM will don their oxygen mask first and then the PF.
136
If during an Engine failure the engine is still producing power, what must the PM ensure when moving the power lever ?
Move it slowly to prevent excessive yaw.
137
During a emergency decent, the decent rate may be reduced once below what altitude?
FL140
138
Maximum load of TRUs on ground and in flight ?
1.0 for both.
139
When do we select the ignition to manual in the 200 and VH-SBB ?
In conditions of turbulence, icing, or heavy participation.
140
How often does a tyre check need to be completed ?
Once every calendar day. It needs to have an ambient check done once every 12 days.
141
Can we defer a tyre check ?
There is a one sector deferral that can be applied to get the aircraft back from an outport if the tyre check expires.
142
Who puts in the flight plan and the flight number ?
The PF
143
TRU output ?
25-29.5V
144
TRU under/over volt relay ?
<18->29.5V
145
INV output ?
115V fixed AC
146
XFMR output ?
26V AC 400Hz
147
When there is a TCAS data tag what does that mean ?
Rate of climb or decent greater than 500FPM
148
When is the EGPWS RA Inhibited ?
>2450
149
How to EGPWS short test ?
Hold 2 seconds
150
What does the rate knob at the detent mean ?
300fpm ROD 500FPM ROC
151
What does the rate knob fully right give you ?
2500fpm climb and 1500fpm decent
152
Flight crew decompression and emergency oxygen time ?
120 mins and 15 mins
153
Boot cycle time ?
36 s
154
When do the boot advisory lights switch on ?
>15.5psi
155
What triggers T/O Warning horn ?
``` Park brake set Trim not in T/O range Power levers >50%tq Condition levers not in max Flaps set to <5 or >15 ECU not in top. ```
156
RAS system what does Auto mean ?
The door is locked but the emergency unlock is still available.
157
Once the code has been entered into the RAS system when does the door unlock ?
30s and stays unlocked for 15s
158
What’s the RAS system powered by ?
R essential bus.
159
If you lose power to the RAS what should you do ?
The system will automatically unlock the door. Should then use the deadbolt to lock the door.
160
What happens if door jams ?
QRH checklist removes the hinges from door.
161
If door is locked by ground key, can the RAS system unlock door ?
No.
162
If the door shuts in the DENY position without anyone in the flight deck, how do you open the door ?
Only way to access the flight deck is to depower the aircraft.
163
What connects the Right main bus to the main battery?
Main battery switch
164
What does the Auxiliary battery switch do ?
Connect the Auxiliary battery to the left main bus.
165
What’s the battery master switch do ?
Connects the batteries to the essential buses
166
When are the DC starter generators inhibited ?
Whenever the GPU is connected. Or the BBPU senses a fault.
167
Does the APU inhibit the DC generators ?
No
168
Where are the AC generators located ?
Propeller reduction gearbox.
169
How many Amps per phase AC GENs ?
87A per phase.
170
If starting with the GPU can you leave the APU bleed air on ?
Yes.
171
Once the appropriate approach and flap setting has been established between the crew, what is the PM approach planning from there ?
``` Landing weight - check Landing performance (distance MA Performance ) -check Pressurisation - set for destination TOLD Card- Complete FMS- Program approach TCAS 6nm/Below ```
172
As PF what do we need to do if we have done a Missed App and we can use the return to land checklist ?
New ATIS if required FMS verify App Briefing complete “Return to land checklist”
173
If you inadvertently enter the incorrect information into the QL-2 who do you contact to correct it ?
ROC for the takeoff and landing times | Fleet tech for the shutdown fuel.
174
Do alternate airports require approach slope guidance ?
Yes the slope guidance policy is for Both the destination and alternate airports.
175
When is the aeroplane considered aerodynamically clean ?
When all ice is removed from the visible leading edges and wing tips
176
If your taking off into icing conditions when does the ice protection get turned on ?
After start by the captain.
177
If ice forms on the pilots side window what do you do ?
PLT/WDO/HT - ON select off when the ice has been removed.
178
When holding in icing conditions the flaps must be set to ?
0 degrees
179
How close are proximate traffic ?
Within 6nm and +/- 1200ft vertically.
180
When must you turn onto a special engine failure heading that’s a VIA ?
Above 50ft AAL and not before the departure end of the runway.
181
What are the immediate actions ?
On ground non normal Engine fire on ground Evacuation APU fire Oil pressure below 40PSI or #1 or #2 Engine oil pressure warning light or unscheduled propeller feathering Propeller ground range advisory lights cycling Roll control malfunction Propeller over speed Aileron trim runaway Rudder jam RUD 1 or RUD 2 PUSH OFF (switch light on) #1 RUD HYD or #2 RUD HYD (caution light) Rudder trim Actuator runaway.
182
What’s FRMS ?
Fatigue risk management system
183
What’s ODP ?
Off duty period
184
What’s FDP ?
Flight duty period
185
What’s UPRT ?
Upset prevention and recovery training.
186
What’s SFIS ?
Surveillance flight information service
Dash 8 Q300/200
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