Dash 8 Q300/200 > OM 1 > Flashcards

OM 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

How Much control of the rudder from the rudder pedals ?

A

7 degrees either side of centre

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2
Q

If doing an instrument App when do instrument procedures commence ?

A

Passing IAF or when intercepting inbound leg when vectored.

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3
Q

White flashes ?

A

In flight = No significance. On Ground= Return to the starting point on aerodrome.

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4
Q

Maximum cabin differential for T/O and LDG ?

A

+0.5 and -0.1psi

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5
Q

Where does Take Off Distance finish ?

A

35ft above runway @V2

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6
Q

MDA for app at aerodrome with no terminal forecast ?

A

Area QNH is to be used and MDA +50ft

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7
Q

Detection methods for water in fuel ?

A

Cloudiness and chemical

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8
Q

What speed can you not go below before FAP ?

A

160kts

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9
Q

When does a HIRO need to be submitted ?

A

24hrs after incident

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10
Q

Can we accept wake turbulence waivers ?

A

No

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11
Q

Alert order cancel ?

A

“Ladies and gentlemen thankyou for your co-operation please remain seated, cabin crew resume normal duties”

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12
Q

Whats NEF and CDL ?

A

Non essential furnishings and Configuration deviation list.

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13
Q

Normal speed for decent ?

A

VMO-10kts (230kts)

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14
Q

OFP ?

A

Operational flight plan

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15
Q

Whats MCR ?

A

Maximum cruise rating

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16
Q

TQ setting for the start of stage 1 ?

A

10%

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17
Q

All RAs are inhibited below what height ?

A

1100ft on climb and 900ft on descent.

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18
Q

What must you do if you lose your anti collision light or position light in flight?

A

Contact ATC services as soon as possible or land as soon as possible.

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19
Q

When will the terrain fail light illuminate ?

A

If the internal GPS/terrain displays are inoperative.

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20
Q

What things constitute a stable call ?

A

Correct flight path, Small changes to HDG and Pitch, Vapp +10 to -5 with Vref being the absolute min, A/C in the planned configuration, sink rate less than 1000ft/min when below 1000 HAA, Power setting appropriate, All briefings and checklists complete, ILS flown within 1 dot of glideslope and localiser, Can deviate from above if special briefing is used.

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21
Q

Pax are not able to disembark until what ?

A

Props have stopped spinning, fasten belts sign is off and red anti collision light is off

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22
Q

TQ setting configured flap 15 ?

A

15% 400

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23
Q

When will you not get a “descend ,descend”?

A

Below 1200ft on climb and 1000ft on descent.

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24
Q

Margin rate ?

A

1200 kg/ hr 400

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25
Stage 1 speeds ?
190- 160kts 400
26
When will you get the "too low flap" Caution ?
passing 200ft with less than 15 degrees flap.
27
Flight and duty limitations are found where ?
FRMS Chapter 9
28
Whats PIREP and MAREP ?
Pilot reported and Maintenance reported
29
What times can we depart given our COBT/SOBT ?
-5mins and +15mins
30
What must you do before calling nose high or nose low ?
Check all 3 Attitude indicators
31
first call in stage 1 ?
"flap 5"
32
Actual fuel burn should not exceed expected fuel burn by how much ?
4%
33
TQ setting descending stable at 160kts ?
15% TQ
34
At FLT IDLE how fast does the A/C slow down on a 3 degrees flight path ?
10kts/NM
35
TQ and attitude required OEI F15 final ?
25% TQ 3 Degrees nose up
36
When to start configuration from 190kts to be stable at 1000ft HAA or 500ft HAA ?
6 nm prior so 9 nm if IMC and 8 nm if VMC
37
What to do when you have a TCAS defect ?
Look in the OM 1 It says to record specific information in the QL-3 Must press the ATC button for 10s and record defect/s
38
TQ setting for 275kts on descent ?
35-40%
39
Steady green light in flight and on aerodrome ?
In flight = Cleared to land. On Ground = Authorised to T/O
40
Can you have the nose-wheel steering on during reverse taxi ?
Yes it must be on
41
The TCAS assumes how long before corrective action takes place during a reversal ?
2.5s
42
rates of descent when operating between 3000-1000ft ?
descent rate is restricted to less than the A/C current altitude eg at 2000ft max ROD = 2000fpm
43
Maximum speed inbound or on descent below 3000ft HAA is what ?
210kts
44
Fixed fuel reserve ?
450 kg
45
what speed until passing final fix ?
160kts
46
Whats INTAP stand for ?
Internal notice to all pilots
47
How do we know if the incident is ATSB notable ?
Check the list in the OM1
48
How much does Tq reduce when condition levers go through to max ?
15- 20 %
49
What to add to our brief if we think a diversion may occur due to weather at our destination ?
Intended app and or holding, Actions to take if app is unsuccessful, The alternate aerodrome, intended route and altitude/level, Min fuel required for the diversion.
50
When will you not get a "increase descent, Increase descent "?
below 1450ft
51
when inbound to a CTAF Comm 1 and Comm2 are on what ?
Comm1 is ATS frequency and Comm2 is on the CTAF
52
Can we descend below 1000ft before 5nm final visual app ?
No
53
Is NTOP a minumum or a maximum ?
Minimum
54
How much fuel for instrument App?
150 kg
55
Alert order ?
"Attention all passengers remain seated and await further instructions"
56
stage 2 speeds ?
160kts -Vapp
57
TQ setting configured flap 35 ?
25-30%
58
Variable reserve ?
10%
59
Steady red light ?
In flight= Give way and continue circling. On Ground= Stop
60
TQ and attitude required OEI F35 final ?
50% TQ -1 Degrees nose down.
61
During a breakout what does the PM do ?
Standby the flight director - Set PF heading bug and AAS- Conduct configuration as called by the PF- Read back instructions from the tower.
62
What’s TIBA ?
Traffic information broadcast by aircraft
63
Primary instrument to determine which engine has failed ?
The TQ gauge
64
Change in attitude required for an RA ?
Climb 1 degree per 500fpm descent 2 degrees per 500fpm
65
Evacuation order ?
"Attention, Evacuate, Evacuate"
66
How do we remove the terrain fail light ?
Press the terrain inhibit switch, which will make it an conventional GPWS
67
Holding rate ?
910 kg/ Hr
68
Wheres the de-icing procedures found ?
FCOM supplemental procedures
69
When are TAs inhibited ?
600ft on climb and 400ft on descent.
70
Green flashes ?
In flight= Return for landing. On ground= Authorised for taxi if pilot is satisfied no collision risk exists
71
How much power required to stabilise at 125kts with flap 15 and gear out ?
20% Tq
72
How much ballon from flap 10 to flap 15 ?
1-2 Degrees
73
During a breakout call what does the PF do ?
Listen to the call - Disconnect the A/P- Commence the turn-climb- Call for configuration changes.
74
How many applications of the emergency brake available ?
8
75
VASIS ?
Visual approach slope indicator system
76
How is a traffic alert heard ?
" Traffic, Traffic"
77
How much ballon from flap 15 to flap 35 ?
2-3 Degrees
78
Hydraulic pressures ?
3000psi Normal pumps Stdby pumps 2750psi
79
For a departure turn that opposes the circuit direction, What height do we climb to before the turn ?
Climb to circuit height plus 500ft (2000ftAGL)
80
Red Flashes ?
In flight= Aerodrome unsafe do not land. On ground= taxi clear of the landing runway.
81
Approximate Tq and attitude required for flap 0 ?
20-25% TQ and 3-5 degrees nose up
82
SCN ?
Software control number
83
In controlled airspace diversions of how much in app speeds before you must contact ATC ?
> 10kts from specified
84
required CTAF calls on arrival ?
at 30nm prior to destination and immediately prior to entering the circuit.
85
When can you terminate the Engine failure procedure ?
Above MSA or on radar vectors
86
Pre flight briefing pneumonic ?
ISTOP Introduction, Status of the crew and A/C, Turbulence/weather, Operational considerations, Password, Threats
87
Fixed reserve ?
600lbs 30 mins | 190lbs 10mins OEI
88
What are we checking when we turn the STBY HYD press pumps on ?
Pressure indicates 2900 psi
89
Touchdown area commences where ?
1000ft past the threshold
90
What does M and O indicate on a MEL ?
M indicates requirement for specific maintenance to be carried out prior to listing component inoperative. O indicates planning or change to operation.
91
Who is responsible for cancelling flights ?
ROC With advice from flight crew
92
once configured flap 15 what is the usual attitude required ?
1 to 2 degrees
93
When departing a CTAF who do we call first prior to taxi ?
Taxi call to ATS ( Brisbane Centre) prior to releasing the park brake. Then CTAF after that.
94
What must you do if the APU is being used for starting the engines ?
Turn the bleed air off
95
Where would you notice severe icing ?
side windows
96
Emergency or Non Normal control handover ?
"taking over"
97
Power setting once below 140kts approx ?
20%TQ
98
When does the captain remove there hand from the power levers during the T/O ?
At V1
99
Once configured flap 35 what is the usual attitude required ?
-3 to -1 degrees
100
How to easily set MCP ?
740 ITT
101
Maximum required ROD for a descending breakout call ?
1000ft/min
102
When must you conduct a ISTOP briefing?
Before the first flight and whenever a new crew member joins the crew. Must be conducted with all crew present.
103
Are we allowed to switch off the FDR ?
No OM 1 3.3.1 use of recording systems
104
What’s FOQA ?
Flight operations Quality Assurance program
105
Do we have to where high vis best when on the apron ?
High visibility vests and hearing protection must always be worn when using the tarmac walkways. OM1 3.6.3 Tarmac safety
106
If you are injured at work when should you notify management?
Immediately notify management to ensure, where appropriate, early referral to the injury management program. If immediate notification is reasonably impracticable, the employee is to notify management within 24 hours of the occurrence;
107
What’s a HIRO ?
Hazard identification reporting online
108
When must a HIRO be submitted?
Within 24 hours following an incident
109
Definition - Immediately Reportable Matter (IRM) ?
Immediately Reportable Matters (IRM) for Category A operations generally relate to safety occurrences causing death, serious injury, aircraft damage, property damage, loss of separation standards, declaration of an emergency and events that have seriously affected the conduct of the flight.
110
The Pilot in Command will contact ROC by the most expedient method as soon as possible in the event of an aircraft accident or an incident, which ?
Threatens the safety and wellbeing of customers, employees, operations or infrastructure; or Presents a significant threat to the public image of QantasLink: or Presents a threat to the commercial viability of QantasLink; or Is likely to generate a public expectation for QantasLink to respond; or is An event that constitutes an IRM according to the Transport Safety Investigation
111
When Flight Crew are experiencing disruptions and/or delays, they are to ensure that all ?
that all relevant operational areas are made aware of the problem. The ROC, central to all operational areas, should be considered as the primary communication point of contact that will then oversee the disruption recovery.
112
For any outbound aircraft, at any location, with an engineering/mechanical related disruption, the Flight Crew are advised to ?
to contact Maintenance Watch via mobile phone (or radio if in Sydney) in the first instance, as a simple 'ground reset' may be applicable (with advice provided from Maintenance Watch) which may prevent a ground return.
113
Where does it talk about minimum amount of cabin crew ?
Om1 4.4 (4-6)
114
Except in an emergency, aerodromes used for Scheduled Air Transport operations must be ?
Certified
115
Flight Crew are authorised to conduct flights on company aircraft in accordance with the ?
Published roster
116
Flight Crew are also allowed to conduct flights in company aircraft when ?
Verbally authorised by the chief pilot or delegate
117
Who has operational control over a flight ?
Within Australian FIRs, operational control is a shared responsibility between the Pilot in Command and the company. This does not override the final authority vested in the Pilot in Command under CASR 91.215.
118
Do we need to operate under IFR ?
In accordance with CASR 121.025, all flights conducted by company aircraft will be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules (IR) unless otherwise approved by CASA.
119
An aircraft operating under IF may be flown below the lowest safe altitude as follows ?
During takeoff and landing • In VMC by day, • When conducting an approved instrument approach, or • When as directed by ATC.
120
When navigating under IF, a positive fix is required at intervals not exceeding ?
2 hours
121
Visual departures and approach’s During the conduct of the procedure, the Flight Crew must ?
Maintain the track(s) or heading(s) authorised by ATC, Climb to (departure) and remain not less than 500ft above the lower limit of the Control Area (CTA), and Visually maintain obstacle clearance.
122
Approach and Landing Publications ?
Only instrument approach and landing procedures produced by Jeppesen are approved for company use.
123
When selecting a Grid LSALT appropriate to off-track operations, Flight Crew are required to ?
to apply the higher Grid LSALT of either their current position or that of the projected flight path.
124
The circling approach minima must be maintained at night while the aircraft ?
is circled to a position within the traffic pattern that intercepts a normal downwind, base or final approach.
125
A company aircraft shall not be flown below 500' AGL in day VMC, below LSALT at night or in IMC, or below 1000' over a built up area, unless it is ?
An emergency, To takeoff or land, Part of a published instrument approach, In accordance with ATC instructions, or Specifically authorised.
126
4.4.4.1 Minimum Turn Altitude ?
FLT 3.11.48 Turns will not normally be made below 500' unless dictated by special or supplemental procedures or required for circling approaches.
127
Aerobatics/Spins ?
Aerobatics or spins are not permitted in company aircraft.
128
4.6.5.3 Duties During Flight FLT 3.2.1 The Pilot in Command is responsible for ?
• Aircraft safety, operation, navigation and communications, • Ensuring that the Flight Log is completed in a timely and accurate manner, Ensure that position reports are given, at times and at places as documented in Jeppesen, • Safety of passengers, Crew and cargo carried, The conduct and discipline of all Aircrew, and • Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
129
4.6.5.4 Immediate Post Flight Duties The Pilot in Command is responsible for correct completion of ?
Flight Record Book, Discrepancy Log, and Appropriate written reports.
130
What to do if you catch someone smoking on a flight ?
Name of offender, • Seat number and ticket number, • Flight details, including time of offence and sector being travelled, • Name, address and telephone number of Crew member(s) who witnessed the offence and details of what warnings were given, and by whom, and • Name, address and telephone numbers of other passengers (if any) willing to act as possible witnesses.
131
Are we allowed to take photos from the jumpseat ?
Yes with the permission of the captain.
132
Take off minima for junior FO ?
300ft ceiling and 2km visibility or as per runway/ airport limits which ever is higher.
133
Landing minima for junior FO ?
MDA/DH +200 ft and visibility greater than 4km
134
Junior and first officer crosswind limits for takeoff and landing ?
Junior 15kts First officer 30kts
135
Max tailwind first officer ?
5 kts
136
Minimum runway length junior first officer ?
1300 m
137
Note: If weather conditions are forecast to exceed the First Officer's limit, the transfer of control should be conducted at an appropriate time ?
prior to top of descent.
138
With respect to the QantasLink Dash 8 operation, standard takeoff minima are ?
550m Zero feet ceiling Permission and limitation 1. Any operation when Tower active 2. Day only operations at non-controlled locations (or when location Tower inactive), and/or 3. Locations with light spacing not exceeding 60m and with centreline lighting or centreline marking. 4. As prescribed in Part 139 MoS - Airports; the airport has secondary power supply for runway lighting with a switchover capability of one second or less for runway centreline lights or runway edge lights where centreline lighting is not provided.
139
What’s the Route and Airport qualifications?
Captains shall maintain route qualification and recency at those ports to which they could reasonably be expected to operate. Before operating a company aircraft engaged in Air Transport Operations over a particular route, Flight Crew must be qualified in accordance with company procedures for Airport and Route Qualification.
140
What are the two categories of routes ?
Category R1 and Category R2 The only R2 route is mainland to lord Howe island.
141
Who determines the Airport category?
Airline operations standards and safety committee.
142
What are the different Airport categories and what does that mean ?
Category A: No compliance Category C/A: Aerodromes which require compliance with CAR 121.515 for initial qualification only. For operations by Flight Crew who have met initial qualification requirements, the aerodrome may then be categorised as Category A. Category C: Aerodromes which require compliance with CAR 121.515. Flight Crew will require requalification if aerodrome is not operated to for a period of 12 months or more. Category X: Aerodromes that require compliance with CASR 121.515, and for which additional company qualification apply. Route qualification information will include knowledge of the items referenced in the paragraphs above.
143
For Non-Scheduled Air Transport Operations, does the company require and route qualifications?
No
144
In circumstances where training or operational requirements result in a delay to rostered sign off, Flight Crew must ?
Contact crewing personnel
145
Security Advice ?
Security control centre will be staffed by a Senior Duty Security Controller who is available to provide professional security advice, support, and assistance to all Company staff.
146
During and concurrent with the pre-flight checks, Aircrew must conduct a pre-flight security check on boarding an originating aircraft. What does that mean ?
Flight Crew must conduct a visual inspection of reasonably accessible parts of the exterior of the aircraft, including wheel wells, for any obvious anomalies, foreign objects or signs of tampering. It is not necessary to open any panels or use specialised tools, equipment or lighting.
147
Incidents where the flight deck door opens in-flight, must be reported when ?
as soon as practicable (24 hours) to the Qantas Duty Security Controller (DSC) on Within Australia: 02 9691 1818
148
What would we do if we didn’t know whether someone was authorised to be in the flight deck during flight ?
OM1 5.6.3 Authorised persons
149
When do we need to make an assessment of the landing minima?
Assessment of ceiling and visibility is determined by observation from the flight deck window when at or above the published minima. Continuation below the DA/DA/MDA is not permitted unless the weather conditions are greater than or equal to the minima specified on the chart. OM 1 4.8.2 Landing - Meteorological Minima
150
What happens to a passengers bag due to illness when you have diverted?
6.14.6.1 In circumstances where a flight diverts due to passenger illness and that passenger disembarks, it is a legal requirement that the baggage belonging to the passenger is off- loaded before the flight can proceed.
151
Alternate planning requirements are determined with respect to the alternate minima criteria specified in the ?
Aircraft Performance Manual for the airport concerned. OM1 4.8.4
152
Is there any low visibility information in the OM 1 ?
It’s reserved OM1 4.11
153
4.12 Route and Airport Qualifications ?
Captains shall maintain route qualification and recency at those ports to which they could reasonably be expected to operate. The company assigns a route/airport category for all primary network destinations, each with a specific qualification requirement.
154
What’s the category R1 mean for a Qantas Link route ?
The Pilot in Command requires no in-flight familiarisation over Category R1 routes nor are there any recency requirements. Familiarisation with the route is achieved by means of company documentation and/or instruction. Category R1 routes are: • All Mainland network routes, with the exception of those listed below under Category R2 routes.
155
Company aircraft standard descent and approach speeds?
6.14.7 - not be operated at an airspeed greater than 250 knots below 10,000 feet. - standard aircraft type descent speeds until 3000ft HAA or AGL - maximum speed inbound or on descent below 3000ft HAA or AGL whichever is higher is 210KIAS. - published speeds may be in place in accordance with SIDs, STARs and lAL Charts.
156
What’s category R2 route ?
The Pilot in Command requires specific in-flight familiarisation over Category R2 routes and a 12-month recency requirement also applies. Familiarisation with the route may be supported by means of company documentation and/or instruction. Category R2 routes are: • Between Mainland ports and Lord Howe Island (LDH)
157
What’s category R2 route ?
The Pilot in Command requires specific in-flight familiarisation over Category R2 routes and a 12-month recency requirement also applies. Familiarisation with the route may be supported by means of company documentation and/or instruction. Category R2 routes are: • Between Mainland ports and Lord Howe Island (LDH)
158
Rates of descent between 3,000ft and 1,000ft AGL?
6.14.8 aircraft descent rate in feet per minute is restricted to less than the aircraft altitude in feet AGL. For example, passing 2,000 ft AGL, rate of descent is limited to less than 2,000 fpm.
159
If you are current on the SYD-LDH route does that make you current on the CFS- LDH route ?
Yes. Approval to operate between Sydney and/or Brisbane and LDH is deemed sufficient qualification to operate between any mainland port and the Island, provided the Flight Crew member is current on that mainland port.
160
What are the four AirPort categories?
Category A Category C/A Category C Category X
161
Do we need to route qualifications for a Charter ?
For Non-Scheduled Air Transport Operations, the company requires no specific route qualifications. However, Flight Crew rostered for these flights shall familiarise themselves with the route, aerodromes, enroute and terminal area terrain.
162
How to get ATC code when no VHF & HF on bay, what can you do?
6.14.10 taxi report to ATS should be made prior to releasing the park aircraft are permitted to move to an alternative location where communications can be established, however IF traffic and code must be obtained from ATS before runway entry
163
If you are not certain about your route recency what can you do ?
Flight Crew not certain of currency on a particular route, are to contact the Crew Rostering section, in order to confirm eligibility to operate on that route.
164
A Route Qualified Flight Crew member, can only be a ?
Captain who is current on a particular route. OM1 4.18 Route and Airport Qualification
165
Procedures and policy for route qualification training are located ?
In the TACM
166
AFRU inop can we go?
6.14.10 period of seven days commencing on the day the system became unserviceable Alternate procedures for greater then 7 days U/S. Ground agent or ARO to confirms correct freq selections by responding on the CTAF freq to the initial transmission from the aircraft inbound and outbound
167
Where does it detail the policy and procedures to comply with all recency elements mandated by the CASRs ?
TACM
168
When should you log Instrument time ?
Flight Crew should record in the QL-2 all Instrument Flight (IF) time when operating as Pilot Flying under IF conditions, such as during the conduct of an instrument approach, in IMC and at night. 4.20.3 Instrument Flight
169
Approach type order?
ILS RNP LOC RWY ALIGNED VOR RWY ALIGNED NDB Radar vector to visual approach DME OR GNSS TO CCT CCT CIRCLING
170
Flight and Duty Limitations are specified in the ?
the CASA approved FRMS. The limitations applicable to all QantasLink (Sunstate and Eastern) flight crew are contained in Chapter 9 of the FRMS Manual. 4.22 Flight and Duty Time Limitations
171
Following an overnight, the sign on time is applicable ?
applicable airside at each airport not kerbside. 4.23 Reporting for Duty
172
Protocols for Simulator Duties are contained in the ?
TACM
173
Cat D performance category can be used when?
Category D circling area and MDA at Canberra avoids a steep descent when making a night visual approach to runway 30. It can also be used on an ILS approach to permit a higher than normal speed to be maintained to the FAP, if necessary to fit in with ATC requests. All the criteria for the higher category must be adopted, mixing performance criteria is not permitted.
174
Acceptable approach procedure turns?
45/180degrees 80/260 degrees
175
Where can we get security advice from ?
Qantas operates a Security Control Centre on a 24-hour, 7 days a week basis. The Security Control Centre will be staffed by a Senior Duty Security Controller who is available to provide professional security advice, support, and assistance to all Company staff. 5.3 Security Advice
176
Australia has an Airport Tier Model system to classify airports and reflect the operational diversity and range of security risks faced by Australian airports. Under the model, a security-controlled airport may be categorised as either a Designated ?
TIER 1,2,3
177
Approach ban at an airport with ATC and RVR reporting when?
6.15.14 TDZ RV is reported to be continuously below the specified minima, the approach must not be continued below 1,000ft height above aerodrome (HAA). Should the TDZ RVR be reported as below the minima after the aircraft has descended below 1,000ft HAA, the approach may be continued at the PIC discretion.
178
Which Airport Tiers need security?
Tier 1 and 2 Security screening is required for passengers and baggage departing on aircraft with 40 or more seats and if it departs from a Tier 2 airport or above.
179
Approaches with no slope guidance?
Requires approval from Chief Pilot Unless specifically approved in Route Manual or INTAP If it happens after departure the decision to land rests with PIC
180
Do aircraft departing a Tier 3 airport require passenger screening?
No they do not. Regardless of aircraft size. 5.4 Airport Security
181
How to do MAP when cleared visual approach in controlled airspace?
maintain runway heading, remain visual and await ATC instructions. At Sydney, visual go-arounds are conducted in accordance with the missed approach procedure for the primary instrument approach to the runway concerned or as directed by ATC.
182
When must you conduct a preflight security check ?
On boarding an originating aircraft.
183
How many MAP can be done?
Weather related missed approaches 2 3rd approach may be attempted provided PIC believes there is a high probability of a successful approach and landing, or greater emergency or operational requirement exists.
184
Reverse taxi operations
approval of the Chief Pilot or delegate and must be conducted in accordance with the AFM. If an aircraft reversing manoeuvre is conducted, the Captain is required to submit a HIRO detailing the reasons that generated the manoeuvre.
185
If there is any evidence of tampering or an item is located during such inspections by Aircrew and which cannot be identified as normal aircraft equipment or passenger's property, must be treated as ?
suspect and reported to the Pilot in Command immediately, who in turn will immediately report the occurrence to Qantas Security. 5.5.2 Doubtful and Unattended Objects
186
Who has the authority to board the aircraft whilst in preparation for flight ?
Only authorised representatives of the company or its designated contractors, displaying appropriate identification, will be allowed to board an aircraft whilst it is in preparation for flight, during transit or after arrival at the terminal. 5.5.3 Authorised Access
187
Pax door during rain
Pax door left shut in rainy conditions and can be left closed with crew on board until just prior to passenger boarding commences
188
Aircraft key
6.16.9 Misplaced keys contact duty pilot and make QL-3 entry Spare key kept at each outport
189
Whenever an aircrew member leaves the flight deck what do you need to do ?
Whenever an aircrew member leaves the flight deck, the area outside the cockpit should be viewed and assessed as secure prior to leaving, the door shall be closed and locked immediately after. 5.6.2 Flight Deck Door Security
190
What’s the door code ?
2467#
191
How to declare min fuel and what does it result in?
6.18.1.2 'MINIMUM FUEL' may result in landing with less than the planned fixed reserve fuel PIC shall request information on any expected airborne delays from ATC. This declaration will not result in increased priority for landing but indicated to ATC that an emergency situation could occur should there be any further delay
192
Hot to declare emergency fuel?
'MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL' when the predicted fuel available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome available for a safe landing will be less than the planned fixed reserve.
193
Where can we find who we can take in the flight deck ?
OM 1 5.6.3 Authorised Persons
194
Unpressurised flight when, how to conduct?
Planned with approval of chief pilot or delegate, in accordance with AFM supplement Flight crew must review the relevant procedures and/or precautions listed in the AFM supplement and Aircraft Performance Manual, and consult the Duty Pilot for any further guidance.
195
Gear down Ferry Flight
planned with the approval of the Chief Pilot or delegate. Flight crew must review the relevant procedures and/or precautions listed in the AFM and Aircraft Performance Manual and consult the Duty Pilot for any further guidance.
196
Severe windshear
Delay takeoff or do not continue an approach
197
Volcanic ash what to do?
Remain well clear of area, upwind side of volcanic dust If a/c enters volcanic ash cloud accomplish 180degree turn
198
When do we have to carry CASA inspectors/Examiners?
• On immediate demand by the officer of his or her intention to travel, if his or her carriage in the aircraft does not mean the off-loading of a passenger or of cargo being carried in the aircraft on the particular flight concerned, • On immediate demand from the officer of his or her intention to travel irrespective of whether his or her carriage in the aircraft means the off-loading of a passenger or of goods, if the officer considers the circumstances of the case so warrant, and • On receipt of seven days notice prior to a flight from the officer of his or her intention to travel on a flight.
199
When do we have to carry CASA inspectors/Examiners?
• On immediate demand by the officer of his or her intention to travel, if his or her carriage in the aircraft does not mean the off-loading of a passenger or of cargo being carried in the aircraft on the particular flight concerned, • On immediate demand from the officer of his or her intention to travel irrespective of whether his or her carriage in the aircraft means the off-loading of a passenger or of goods, if the officer considers the circumstances of the case so warrant, and • On receipt of seven days notice prior to a flight from the officer of his or her intention to travel on a flight.
200
Thunderstorm avoidance
A take-off or landing should not be attempted when a thunderstorm is within 5nm and moving towards the aerodrome. During climb and descent thunderstorms should be avoided by a distance of 5nm below the freezing level and 10nm above the freezing level. cruise, 20nm. In flight, an avoidance action plan should be determined early and, where possible, at least 40nm before the thunderstorm will be encountered.
201
5.6.7 Identification of Authorised Persons ?
All persons accessing the flight deck, other than Aircrew in uniform, must be accompanied by a member of the operating Aircrew and shall display a valid form of identification.
202
A jump seat passenger not operating as crew should be included on the ?
the Adjustments page of the app, not in the crew complement.
203
Jump seat Crew members should be accounted for as part of the ?
Crew Complement
204
If Cabin crew find any missing or unserviceable equipment, what must they do ?
Report it to the captain immediately 5.6.11 Unserviceable/Missing Equipment
205
Storm warning system - 4 phases
Phase 1 watch - airport warning issued several hrs before Phase 2 Alert - TS within 10nm white lights and horn for 15seconds Phase 3 Alert operations shutdown - TS within 5nm going to impact airport, blue lights and or continuous repeating horn Phase 4 Cancellation - TS outside 5nm can now be cancelled or downgraded. Reactivation of white lights
206
Taxi to bay during Storm ops shutdown
If tarmac is shutdown, then at PIC discretion the aircraft may be taxiied onto the bay without the need for marshalling
207
Where to find pilot approved maintenance?
FDEM
208
What must you do if you have your ASIC lost or stolen ?
immediately report the matter by submitting a HR Query via the HRHQ self-service portal on the Terminal or by contacting ID Services Statutory Declaration which can be printed from the replacement application. The statutory declaration should detail the conditions surrounding the loss or theft. if an ASIC has been stolen, the employee must provide a Police Report. 5.7.1.2 Lost and Stolen ASIC Cards
209
What maintenance can we do?
7.2 Flight crew 21yrs and older can Ramp service checks; • Engine oil level check and replenishment; • Light bulb replacement; • Conduct of system resets as contained in the Technical Supplements sections in the FDEM; Application of MEL, CDL and DWL items; Tripping and resetting of circuit breakers as detailed in the MEL, FDEM Technical Supplements or SPGRG; • Clipping or collaring of circuit breakers as detailed in the MEL, FDEM Technical Supplements or SPGRG; and Resetting of circuit breakers in accordance with the company Circuit Breaker Policy as outlined in this manual.
210
Can we conduct a repeat test of 24hr checks?
Yes one repeat following the failure of the initial test
211
Can we do engine runs?
Yes to assess system operation before or after maintenance action by an attending engineer at a main or outport
212
Can we store our overnight bags in the forward coat locker ?
No. Screening of Aircrew Overnight Baggage OM 1 5.7.2.7
213
CCT Breaker policy
Where no specific guidance is provided by the QRH, MEL, FDEM a CCT breaker may be reset once only provided that A/c is in the ground and no recent history of reported defects and no anomalies with these systems. Prior to resetting must check QL-3 that there is no recent history of reported defects with system
214
The only items allowed for removal from the aircraft are those contained in ?
are those contained in personal meal boxes or trays. 5.7.3.3 Removal of Aircraft Stores
215
What must you do after damage to an aircraft on ground?
Maintenance watch HIRO QL-3
216
Acceptance/ Check Flight procedure
Ramp service check Duty Pilot for authorisation
217
Where would you find information on reporting flight parameters for lightning strike, bird strike, overspeed, hard landing etc?
OM 7.3.2
218
When to record a bird strike in the QL-3?
A bird strike shall be recorded in the QL-3 only if the suspected bird strike has resulted in any of the following: • Visible damage to the aircraft or engine intake, • Possible ingestion into the engine, and • Possible impact to the propeller.
219
Passengers, baggage or freight, which for security reasons have been refused carriage by another carrier, are not to be carried on a company aircraft unless ?
The Pilot in Command has been fully informed of the reasons why the other carrier refused carriage; and • The Pilot in Command is satisfied that no threat exists to the safety or security of the aircraft. 5.8.3 Refusal by Another Carrier
220
If the Pilot in Command refuses to uplift the passenger, baggage or freight because of security concerns, what do you do ?
Duty Pilot is to be informed who will liaise with the Duty Security Controller. 5.8.3 Refusal by Another Carrier
221
APU failures QL-3 info?
OM 7.3.12
222
A passenger shall not enter or remain on an aircraft while their mental condition / behaviour ?
• Threatens their own safety or that of other passengers, or • Would impede the egress of themselves or others in an evacuation. 5.8.4 Refusal of Passenger Carriage
223
Persons shall be denied boarding if they ?
• Are suspected of being under the influence of alcohol or drugs; • Conduct themselves in an improper manner; • Do not comply with the instructions of authorised Company officials; Are apparently of unsound mind; Are known or suspected to be in possession of unauthorised firearms; or • Are likely to constitute an annoyance to other passengers or Crew or a potential danger to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants. 5.8.4.1 Denied Boarding
224
If there is any concern as to the advisability of carrying a passenger already boarded, the decision to offload rests solely with the ?
Pilot in Command. Cabin Crew will advise the Pilot in Command of the situation. The Pilot in Command shall take into account their recommendations as well as those from Security and/or airport personnel (if applicable or available).
225
suggested disruptive passenger handling procedures are found where ?
CCOM
226
Where do we find information about inflight violence ?
In all cases of in-flight violence ROC are to be notified, either by the Pilot in Command of the service or by the Airport Manager or agent at the destination. In the event of inflight violence, the operating Pilot in Command is referred to the procedures in "Inflight Emergencies Section" of the AEPM. 5.8.5 In-Flight Violence
227
Passengers whose actions are disruptive to the degree that they cause discomfort to other passengers shall be ?
offloaded at the next port of call. 5.8.6 Restraint of Passengers during Flight
228
Aircrew facing a situation of impending trouble due to passenger behaviour may remind the passenger to the appropriate Clause in the Conditions of Carriage which is ?
11.(c) The passenger will comply with all reasonable requests of the Carrier or its servants relating to safety and conduct. Advise that legal action will result at the next port in the event of non-compliance. 5.8.6 Restraint of Passengers during Flight
229
Can you restrain a passenger without telling the PIC?
Flexicuffs may be used without prior approval but PIC must be informed as soon as possible and subsequent approval given
230
Can you restrain a passenger without telling the PIC?
Flexicuffs may be used without prior approval but PIC must be informed as soon as possible and subsequent approval given
231
Where are the restraints packs and how many?
2 One in the forward cupboard One on the flight deck
232
After disruptive passenger at arrival at port what happens?
PIC and crew will report nature and details of incident to authorities, duty pilot, Qantas Group Security (number in OM 5.8.6.4). HIRO
233
Disruptive passenger - police involvement how?
Via ROC or company agent request that police meet the a/c on arrival Senior management must be advised immediately OM 5.8.6.5
234
Where to find when Qantas can keep a bag onboard after a pax has left the aircraft after a diversion?
OM5.8.7
235
If a passenger requests and item or medication from their checked in bag what can we do?
Not possible due safety reasons. Must offload pax and reunite them with their bag in a non sterile area. Only exception is PHL
236
the Pilot in Command is to ensure that passengers are orally briefed, before takeoff, on the following items ?
• No smoking in the aircraft, including toilet, The use and adjustment of seat belts, • The locations and operation of emergency exits, • The use of flotation devices where applicable, • Stowage of hand luggage, and • The presence on board of special survival equipment where applicable. 6.7.3.1 Requirements
237
Do you have to give a sick, injured, handicapped or incapacitated passenger a individual brief ?
Yes and it must specify How to get out, • When to get out (normally, this would be after the main body of passengers has evacuated), and • Where to get out. 6.7.3.3 Briefing Disabled Passengers - Special Requirements
238
Where would we find information about who can sit in an exit row ?
OM1 6.7.3.4 Exit Row Seat Restrictions
239
What can the department of infrastructure and regional development do?
Direct aircraft in the air and on the ground in relation to and aviation security incident OM 5.9
240
When must we where a seatbelt?
Notwithstanding, seat belts shall be worn by all Aircrew and passengers during takeoff and landing, during an instrument approach, in turbulent conditions and when the aircraft is flying at a height less than 1,000 feet above the terrain. OM1 6.7.3.5 Seat Belts and Seat Belt Signs
241
All aisles and exits must be kept clear of obstructions when the aircraft with passengers on board is ?
is In-flight below 1,000 feet or is on the ground, except during the process of embarkation and disembarkation of passengers. OM1 6.7.3.6 Aisles and Exits
242
A welcome onboard PA may be given on the ground prior to engine start. This is important whenever there is a ?
an unexpected delay such as awaiting tranship passengers, ATC or weather. Regular updates to passengers are important. A PA should be made every 10 minutes during extended delays. OM 1 6.7.4.1 Initial Welcome Onboard PA
243
Where to find information about Air Security Officer (ASO)?
OM 5.10
244
Where to find information about Air Security Officer (ASO)?
OM 5.10
245
Can ASO come to the flight deck?
No they must only talk on the inter phone
246
What section is SOPs found?
OM1 6.1
247
Can we combine the cabin prepare PA with any other PA ?
No OM 1 6.7.4.4 Cabin Preparation PA
248
What does RAISE stand for?
Relay information Ask if they are aware Indicate concern Solution offered Emergency language
249
3 stages of RAISE
Inquire stage (Relay & Ask) Concern stage (Indicate & Solution) Emergency Language
250
Where do we find the thunderstorm delay PA ?
OM 1 6.7.4.7 Thunderstorm Delay Announcements
251
If emergency language is used what must you do after?
Report to duty pilot and HIRO by all crew within 24hrs
252
To maintain an appropriate cabin temperature on ground the priority of air-conditioning sources will be as follows ?
1. Aircraft APU; 2. Ground Air-Conditioning Unit (GAU) (one available in MEL, CBR, SYD, BNE, CNS and ADL) - on request if APU Bleed Air is U/S and air-conditioning is required to maintain an appropriate cabin temperature; 3. GAU for aircraft with an extended turn-around time and nil available APU oversight; or 4. Ground engine runs to cool cabin prior to passenger boarding. 6.7.8.1 Thermal Discomfort
253
Who can cancel a flight?
6.2.5.1 the ROC after considering all operational factors including advice from flight crew and wx reports (actual and forecast) and info from QMet and Pax disruption considerations
254
How much prior notice to get the GAU out ?
20mins
255
How much prior notice to get the GAU out ?
20mins
256
COBT compliance?
-5 to +15 mins Outside this time the crew must attempt to gain a new slot. If no slot is available then ROC will advise to go non compliant
257
Where is the definitive Dry operating Weight and index data found ?
Load Data Sheet (LDS) that is published on the Flight Crew iPad in the Load Data Sheet (LDS) folder. OM 1 6.8.2 Load Control
258
Where to find TIBA and contingency airspace info?
6.3.8 and ICAO ATS Airspace Classifications
259
Who’s responsible for submitting the load sheet ?
The Captain or delegate OM 1 6.8.2.1 iPad Load Sheet Application
260
Inflight emergency squawk code
7700
261
Who do we have to give the Manual Load Statement too ?
ground agent/check-in staff who will ensure it is locally stored for the mandatory 3 month period. OM 1 6.8.2.2 Manual Load Statement
262
Where is the fuel policy found?
APM
263
Where would you find information about the breakdown of the Flight Management final load sheet?
APM
264
Refuelling hazards
No engines running • The aircraft radar must not be operated. Ground power units must not be connected or disconnected from the aircraft. • The APU shall not be started or shutdown unless in accordance with FCOM procedures. •The HF radios shall not be tuned. The refuelling equipment and the aircraft must be connected such that the same electrical potential exists. • The PIC shall ensure no person: Smokes or uses a naked flame within 15 m (50 ft) of the aircraft and fuelling equipment; • Operates engines, generators or electrical apparatus within 15 m (50 ft) of the aircraft fuel tank filling points or vent outlets and ground fuelling equipment unless the engines, generators or electrical apparatus are required to service the aircraft.
265
Where can we find information regarding the carriage of seat occupied cabin cargo ?
OM1 6.8.2.7 Seat Occupied Cabin Cargo
266
Where can we find information regarding the carriage of seat occupied cabin cargo ?
OM1 6.8.2.7 Seat Occupied Cabin Cargo
267
Maximal permissible weight of seat cargo ?
15kg
268
Fuel spillage
Suspend fuelling Notify ARO or Airport Fire Service if 2m x 2m path or greater or within 15m of the aircraft. Pax 15m from spill Vehicles within 15m shutdown APU not started and APU shutdown must be completed
269
What must crew due after overwing refuelling?
Ensure wing fuel cap is secure
270
Can you use your Mobile phone during aircraft loading to contact RLC ?
is permitted. Limitations apply to their usage - e.g. not in the vicinity of passengers and while alc is refuelling providing the use is outside a 3 metre radius of any filling and venting points, fuelling equipment or hydrant valve in use.
271
Refuelling with pax onboard
No overwing Stop if fuel Vapour detected inside aircraft Flight crew advise FA One cabin member at the main exit door Seat belts off Aisle and exists must be unobstructed Non-ambulatory pax can remain onboard in such numbers that would not significantly delay the rapid disembarkation of all persons if required
272
An infant must be restrained at all times while the seat belt sign is illuminated which may be achieved either by being ?
Restrained under a seat belt provided this can be achieved satisfactorily. This requires that the infant is able to support themselves in an upright position with the passenger seatbelt securely fastened, when required to be worn. In this instance the infant must be at least 6 months old, or • Seated on an adult passenger's lap and restrained by an infant seat belt. When an infant is carried in this manner the adult passenger travelling with the nursed infant must be issued with an infant seat belt and instructed on its use, or In an approved Child Restraint System (car seat). Refer CCOM. 6.8.4 Carriage of Infants and Children
273
Can an infant be seated in an exit row ?
No
274
What is ISTOP?
Introduction Status of Crew and Aircraft Turbulence/ Weather conditions Operational considerations Password Threats
275
Operational debrief what to include?
Factual, technical and operationally relevant info
276
Are we allowed baby capsules, booster seats and collapsible strollers in the cabin ?
No OM 1 6.8.4.2 Bassinettes and Car Capsules
277
Operational debrief acronym? And info where to find it?
6.6.3.1 APPROACH ASAP PARTICIPATE PURPOSE REVIEW facts OPERATIONAL factors ASK if there are any questions CHECK fitness to fly HELP see if any further help is required
278
Where to find information on the carriage of personal Oxygen?
OM1 6.8.5.1 Carriage of Personal Oxygen
279
Persons in custody definition, where to find it ?
OM1 6.8.6 Persons in Custody
280
Sterile flight deck
Closure main door until enroute PA Cabin crew acknowledged prep cabin for landing PA to main entry door opening after landing
281
Do you have to carry a person in Custody?
The Pilot in Command is under no obligation to carry a person in custody and if they believe that it is necessary, additional restrictions may be imposed on the carriage of the person in custody. OM1 6.8.6.2 Refusal of Carriage
282
Critical phase
Application of power for takeoff until landing gear is up Landing gear down until aircraft turns off runway
283
Age of child and infant
Child 2 to 13 yrs Infant less than 2 years
284
Can you serve alcohol to the PIC or Escort ?
No OM1 6.8.6.6 Restrictions
285
How many crew must be onboard for boarding?
At least one cabin crew and one flight crew
286
Auto boarding start times?
-17mins Sydney -15mins otherports
287
Where can we find information regarding carriage of Cargo ?
OM 1 6.8.7.4 Cargo Handling 6.8.7.5 Cargo Restraints and Precautions
288
What manual does Qantas use for dangerous goods ?
The acceptance and carriage of dangerous goods will be in strict accordance with the IATA Dangerous Goods Manual and the Qantas Group Dangerous Goods Manual.
289
What things should be said over company frequencies on the radio?
6.10.6.1 Use pax seat numbers rather than names Specific maintenance issue details unless you are inbound to an airport with maintenance facilities and may be required Health and well-being of aircrew unless safety of the aircrew member will be compromised if not done
290
What is PTS?
Precision Timing Schedule
291
What time should crew arrive to the aircraft?
Not less than 25mins or 30 for first flight
292
Where to find the rules for the carriage of firearms and Ammunition?
OM 1 6.8.9 Firearms, Weapons and Ammunition
293
Do we have to report departure delays?
They are mandatory
294
How do we know what to do if we have a service dog on board ?
OM 1 6.8.10.2 Carriage of Service Animals
295
Min taxi distance
At or below normal slow taxiing thrust 15m turbo prop 30m jet At thrust used to initiate movement of a stationary aircraft 23m 46m
296
• When a single or multi-sector flight has commenced with serviceable TCAS equipment and the equipment subsequently fails what happens ?
the flight or series of flights may continue on normal revenue service in any airspace until the flight concludes in a port where maintenance is available. OM 1 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) 6.9.1
297
Do you have to tell ATC that your TCAS Is unserviceable?
Yes
298
Can we accept a wake turbulence waiver?
No
299
Any on-ground TA or RA indications must be ?
in the QL-3 as a NEF for tracking of the affected aircraft. OM 1 6.9.1.3 TA or RA Alerts on the Ground
300
When operating under an EGPWS/GPWS MEL, the following conditions apply ?
• The aircraft shall not depart with that equipment unserviceable from an aerodrome where facilities are available to repair or replace the ground proximity warning system; • For a total GPS failure, the destination must be serviced by radar-controlled airspace; • A Baro-VNAV or RNP-AR approach may only be conducted in any airspace with terrain alerting functions serviceable; and • Flight crew are to identify and brief the required risk 6.9.2 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS)
301
Radio Failure procedures
Emergency Procedures listed in Jepps manual or jepps chart
302
Crew shall seek clarification in the event either crew member expresses ?
doubt surrounding an ATC instruction or aircraft intention.
Dash 8 Q300/200
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