IFR Cheat Sheet

Question 1

VMC conditions class G airspace ?

Answer 1

5km vis 
8km vis if above 10,000ft 
1500ft horizontally COC
1000ft vertically COC
When below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL can remain COC and insight of the surface or water

Question 2

VMC conditions class D airspace ?

Answer 2

5km vis
600ft horizontally COC
1000ft above cloud
500ft below cloud

Question 3

VMC conditions class C airspace ?

Answer 3

5km vis
8km when above 10,000ft
1500ft horizontally COC
1000ft vertically COC

Question 4

What’s the acronym for suitable alternates ?

Answer 4

Alternates could very well prove life savers

Question 5

Aid requirements for alternate ?

Answer 5

Must provide for alternate unless destination Aerodrome has two seperate Nav aids in which can be used, or 1 ground based Nav aid of which the aircraft has two receivers eg VOR1, VOR2

Question 6

If the destination Aerodrome doesn’t have a navigation aid eg VOR/ILS/ADF in what WX conditions do we not need an alternate ?

Answer 6

Not more than SCT cloud below the final route segment LSALT +500ft and forecast visibility is greater than 8km

Question 7

Cloud, Visibility and Wind alternate requirements ?

Answer 7

When ETA and up to 30mins prior the forecasted WX is below the following
More than SCT Cloud below the alternate minima
Visibility less than the alternate minima
wind greater than maximum for aircraft

Question 8

Provisional or probability Alternate aerodromes ?

Answer 8

When an aerodrome forecast is provisional then a suitable alternate must be planned for. Also if there isa forecasted probability of conditions being below minima

Question 9

Lighting when it comes to alternates ?

Answer 9

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used. Arrangements must be made so that lighting is available on departure: 10mins prior to departure and at least 30mins after T/O Arrival: 30mins prior to ETA and up until the A/C has landed and taxing has been completed.

Question 10

portable lighting when do you need an alternate ?

Answer 10

When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome that has portable lighting unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance, during the specified time period.

Question 11

What if there is no standby power for the lights ?

Answer 11

Must hold an alternate unless arrangements mad for a responsible person to be in attendance with portable lighting.

Question 12

Do we have to hold an alternate if the lighting is pilot activated ?

Answer 12

Yes unless arrangements made for responsible person to be in attendance to turn on the lights manually.

Question 13

what types of lighting system must it be if RPT ?

Answer 13

lighting system which is not pilot activated or

PAL with someone present who can manually turn it on.

Question 14

When thunderstorms or their associated severe turbulence is forecast at the destination aerodrome what must you do ?

Answer 14

Sufficient fuel to hold an alternate or to hold for 30 mins if its a INTER or 60mins if its a TEMPO

Question 15

Altimeter checks prior to T/O ?

Answer 15

with accurate QNH set the altimeter should read nominated alt to within 60ft if in excess of +or - 75ft then the altimeter must be considered U/S

Question 16

T/O minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane ?

Answer 16

A ceiling of zero ft and visibility of 800m can be reduced to 550m under certain conditions.

Question 17

Max airspeed hold ?

Answer 17

Above FL140 240kts

Below FL140 230kts

Question 18

Timing for holds ?

Answer 18

Above FL140 1.5mins
Below FL140 1 min
Or specified on chart

Question 19

When can we fly below the LSALT ?

Answer 19

Don’t vector in very close 
DME or GNSS arrival 
Vectors 
Instrument app or holding 
Visual 
Climb after T/O

Question 20

Descent below straight in MDA ?

Answer 20

VMC
Visual reference can be maintained
Minima requirements are adhered to
Continuously in a position where a landing can be made with normal rates of descent and manoeuvres.

Question 21

During circling, decent below circling MDA can only happen when ?

Answer 21

VMC day obstacle night MDA
Visibility along flight path not less than specified minima for circling
Maintain visual contact with the landing environment
Inside the circling area
By day not below the minimum obstacle clearance
By night not below MDA until a constant rate of decent can be made with normal rates and manoeuvres

Question 22

Cat C circling distance and required obstacle clearance ?

Answer 22

4.2nm and 400ft

Question 23

Initial and intermediate app speeds Cat B ?

Answer 23

180-120kts

Question 24

Max speed for reversal procedure Cat B ?

Answer 24

140kts

Question 25

Final App speeds Cat B ?

Answer 25

85-130kts

Question 26

Max speeds for circling cat C?

Answer 26

180kts

Question 27

Max speeds for missed App Cat C?

Answer 27

240kts

Question 28

Instrument APP tolerances 2D App lateral path tracking ?

Answer 28

5 degrees of nominated track when using azimuth guidance -/+ 1/2 scale deflection when using CDI indications Within RNP value specified for the published minimum altitude +/- 2nm of DME or GNSS arc

Question 29

3D App lateral path tracking tolerances ?

Answer 29

Same as 2D for the lateral App tracking being used.

Question 30

3D App vertical App path tolerances ?

Answer 30

1/2 Scale deflection or +/- 75ft for RNP baro VNAV procedures

Question 31

Minimum altitudes for instrument Approaches tolerances ?

Answer 31

+100ft and -0ft of published MDA | Missed App not initiated below the published DA

Question 32

Instrument App tolerances ILS ?

Answer 32

Flown to half scale deflection to maintain obstacle clearance If at any time past the FAP you get full scale deflection then a missed app should be commenced.

Question 33

Visual Approaches can be issued by ATC when (Day) ?

Answer 33

Within 30nm Can maintain visual reference with the ground or water Greater than 5km visibility

Question 34

ATC can issue a visual app at night when ?

Answer 34

Within 30nm Visual reference with ground or water >5km visibility Receiving an ATS surveillance assigned MVA and HDG or track instructions to intercept final or to position in the circling area

Question 35

For a visual App, you must maintain your track until when Day and night ?

Answer 35

``` (Day) within 5nm (Night) Within the circling area or 5Nm established on the PAPis or 7NM on PAPI thats equiped with ILS or 10NM established on the Glide slope or 14NM RWY 16/34L Sydney. ```

Question 36

For a visual App you can descend as necessary to what height day and night ?

Answer 36

Day- Not below 500ft above the LL of the CTA, Operate not below CAR 157 Night- Not less than the LSALT/MSA, DGA step or 500ft above the LL of the CTA or if receiving ATS Surveillance not below the last assigned alt until within circling area, 5nm on PAPIs, 7nm on PAPIs ILS RWY, 10nm on glide slope.

Question 37

When can we conduct a visual app as pilot by day ?

Answer 37

Within 30nm >5km vis or Aerodrome insight Clear of cloud and insight of the ground or water Not less than minimum for VFR until within the circling area

Question 38

When can we conduct a visual app as pilot by night ?

Answer 38

Clear of cloud insight of the surface 5km visibility Within the circling area or 5nm on PAPIs,7nm on PAPIs ILS RWY, 10nm on glide slope or 14nm at Sydney

Question 39

When to conduct a missed App IFR ?

Answer 39

So Not Visual ROFL ? Straight in landing cannot be effected unless a circling app can be conducted and weather is above specified minimum Not visual when you reach DA/RA height or MAP RAIM warning or loss of RAIM past the IAF Outside tolerances for the final segment Failure of the aid and below MSA Lost visual reference when circling

Question 40

How to cancel a distress signal ?

Answer 40

“CANCEL DISTRESS”

Question 41

Indications by aircraft of communications failure in flight ?

Answer 41

Rocking your wings during the day | Flashing your landing light or switching off and on twice your navigation lights

Question 42

What do you do if you have a comms failure in controlled airspace ?

Answer 42

Maintain terrain clearance at all times Squawk 7600 Listen out on the ATIS or Verbal NavAids Transmit blind intentions If in VMC stay in VMC and land at suitable aerodrome If IMC or VMC but unsure of maintaining VMC If no clearance limit has been given proceed as cleared If received a cleared altitude limit climb to limit or MSA if limit below MSA then maintain for 3 mins then proceed as cleared. If received a hold then maintain for 3 mins and proceed as cleared. If radar vectors maintain last assigned heading for 2mins then proceed as cleared If in a hold then complete one more complete lap then proceed as per flight plan.

Question 43

Speechless technique when replying to transmissions ?

Answer 43

1 transmission is affirmative 2 transmission is negative 3 is say again 5 is further emergency has occured Continuous pilot intends to abandon aircraft Hold for two seconds if request has been completed.

Question 44

Bank angle for IFR approaches ?

Answer 44

25degrees or rate one whichever is less

Question 45

25 and 10nm Sector altitudes give you how much terrain clearance ?

Answer 45

1000ft

Question 46

When sequencing onto an app how much of a turn can we make ?

Answer 46

30 degrees if it’s not a GNSS app | Within the capture region of GNSS

Question 47

Assumed missed app bank angle ?

Answer 47

15 degrees

Question 48

What must a pilot ensure when using take off minima ?

Answer 48

That if a return to land at the departure aerodrome would be required following an engine failure that the Wx must be suitable for an app If an engine failure is to occur at V1 then terrain clearance is assured until LSALT or MSA And if a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible then the aircrafts performance and fuel is such that it can divert to a suitable alternate

Question 49

FL110 is not available when QNH is below what ?

Answer 49

1013

Question 50

Control area protection class D airspace ?

Answer 50

Maintain 500 feet above the lower limit of the control steps that will provide a vertical buffer with aircraft operating in the adjoining airspace.

Question 51

Aircraft separation class D Airspace?

Answer 51

IFR flights are separated from other IFR and special VFR are flights. IFR Flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights.

Question 52

When a clearance has been issued to deviate from a cleared route the pilot must do what ?

Answer 52

Advise ATC once the deviation is no longer required or has been completed and is established back on it’s cleared route.

Question 53

Subject to Subpart 61.E and regulations 61.860 to 61.880, the holder of an instrument rating is authorised to ?

Answer 53

pilot an aircraft: (a) under the IFR; or (b) at night under the VFR.

Question 54

Note 2. The pilot should maintain the maximum practical obstacle clearance when circling The minimum obstacle clearance requirements are: C

Answer 54

Categories A and B - 300FT; | Categories C and D - 400FT;

Question 55

A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until ?

Answer 55

Is airborne, and has commenced a turn; or - is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to maneuver safely in the event of a missed approach

Question 56

What’s the wake turbulence separation required in time following a departing super ?

Answer 56

3 mins from full length 4 mins from intersection departure.

Question 57

What’s the wake turbulence separation required in time following a departing heavy ?

Answer 57

2 mins from full length 3 mins from intersection departure.

Question 58

What’s the weight changeover for a medium to heavy aircraft?

Answer 58

136 Tonne

Question 59

Distance wake turbulence separation required for a Super ?

Answer 59

7nm

Question 60

Distance wake turbulence separation required for a Heavy ?

Answer 60

5nm

Question 61

TAF are a statement of meteorological conditions expected for a specified period in the air-space within a radius of ?

Answer 61

8km

Question 62

Airport category Sydney?

Answer 62

Category A

Question 63

WIND SHEAR — REPORTING controlled and non controlled airport ?

Answer 63

Wind shear encountered by aircraft should be reported by pilots to ATS as aircraft follow-ing may not have the performance required to recover from the same wind shear encounter. The wind shear may also be increasing in intensity, making flight through the wind shear more danger-ous for following traffic.

Question 64

If unable to obtain a clearance for a deviation and the pilot considers there is no safer alternative course of action ?

Answer 64

1) select code 7700; 2) broadcast an urgency message specifying details of the deviation on the appropriate ATC and emergency frequencies

Question 65

Holding on Runway ?

Answer 65

2.4.4.1 The pilot in command must obtain a clearance before holding on the runway in use

Question 66

Establishment on Track?

Answer 66

Unless tracking via a SID or otherwise instructed by ATC, a pilot in command must remain within 5NM of the departure aerodrome to establish flight on the departure track as soon as practicable after take-off

Question 67

When frequency change instructions are issued immediately preceding the take-off clearance, pilots must transfer automatically from Tower as soon as practicable after take-off, preferably within ?

Answer 67

one mile of becoming airborne

Question 68

2.12.6.2 A landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until ?

Answer 68

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway: (1) is airborne, and – has commenced a turn; or – is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach

Question 69

Except as specified in ERSA for specific locations, an aircraft that is required to go around from a visual approach in VMC must ?

Answer 69

initially climb on runway track, remain visual and await instructions from ATC. If the aircraft can not clear obstacles on runway track, the aircraft may turn

Question 70

In the event that an aircraft is unable, or does not wish, to land from an instrument approach in VMC, the aircraft must ?

Answer 70

carry out the published instrument missed approach procedure for the instrument approach being flown, unless ATC directs otherwise

Question 71

Change from the tower frequency to the ground frequency (where established) when ?

Answer 71

vacating the runway strip, and obtain an ATC taxi instruction.

Question 72

Aircraft Deviations in Controlled Airspace - Advice to ATC when ?

Answer 72

where route or track guidance is provided by a localiser or VOR - half scale deflection or more of the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI); b. where route or track guidance is provided by NDB - ±5° or more from the specified bearing; c. where route or track guidance is provided by DME - ±2NM or more from the required arc; d. where route or track guidance is provided by an area navigation system - when the aircraft cannot be maintained on the desired track plus/minus the prescribed RNP/RNAV value; and e. when navigating by visual reference to the ground or water -more than 1NM from the cleared track

Question 73

Pilots of IFR flights operating outside controlled airspace who desire to establish communication with a non-ATS station and who will not be able to maintain a listening watch on the ATS frequency must ?

Answer 73

advise ATS of their further SAR requirements before making the frequency change.

Question 74

Locations Where LAHSO are Used ?

Answer 74

LAHSO can be implemented at aerodromes controlled by ATC that have suitable runway configurations, together with taxi markings, signs, runway markings, and lights in accordance with the standards in AD 1.1 paras 4.8.4, 4.12.1e, 4.13.1d and 5.10.9

Question 75

LAHSO aerodromes are indicated in ?

Answer 75

ERSA Aerodrome and Facilities section and/or Runway Distance Supplement (RDS) section by the inclusion in the aerodrome information of a table titled “LDA FOR LAHSO

Question 76

LAHSO are to be considered dependent procedures, with participating aircraft classified as either ?

Answer 76

a. active - when an aircraft is issued a hold short requirement and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway; or b. passive - when an aircraft has unrestricted use of the full runway length and is alerted about traffic on a crossing runway

Question 77

Active participation in LAHSO is available to QantasLink pilots how ?

Answer 77

. pilots of Australian registered aircraft of performance category A, B or C where the pilot has been assessed as competent to conduct LAHSO by a person authorised to conduct LAHSO training

Question 78

Active participation in LAHSO is available to QantasLink pilots how ?

Answer 78

. pilots of Australian registered aircraft of performance category A, B or C where the pilot has been assessed as competent to conduct LAHSO by a person authorised to conduct LAHSO training

Question 79

How does ATC classify us if we are doing passive LAHSO ?

Answer 79

All pilots of Australian civil and military aircraft categories A, B and C at pilot discretion

Question 80

A pilot must not accept a requirement to “HOLD SHORT” unless ? LAHSO?

Answer 80

they are qualified, has situation awareness, and has determined that the LDA is adequate for the prevailing conditions and the status of the aircraft

Question 81

Conditions for LAHSO ?

Answer 81

AIP ENR1.1-41 a. The wind for either the active or passive runway, including gusts, does not exceed: (1) 20KT crosswind; (2) 5KT tailwind on a dry runway; (3) no tailwind when the runway is not dry. b. A simultaneous take-off and landing is permitted by day only. c. Simultaneous landings are permitted by day and night. d. The ceiling is not less than the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) for the location where LAHSO are being conducted and visibility is not less than 8KM. e. Visibility may be reduced to 5,000M where ATC are assured of sighting the aircraft prior to a loss of the surveillance standard.

Question 82

Pilot Advise of LAHSO Approval ?

Answer 82

Pilots of civil aircraft operating under a flight number callsign as advised in flight notification, and pilots of Australian military aircraft, may omit the words “LAHSO APPROVED Pilots who elect to participate actively in LAHSO must obtain the ATIS broadcast as early as possible and if within 200NM of a destination where LAHSO is in progress, immediately advise ATC “LAHSO APPROVED

Question 83

What to do if you experience wind shear during LAHSO ?

Answer 83

When crews experience wind shear early advice to ATC is essential to ensure timely information is passed to subsequent aircraft.

Question 84

For operations in the Australian FIR, flight crews must report all flight level deviations of ?

Answer 84

of 300FT or more from the aircraft's assigned level, irrespective of the cause of the deviation

Question 85

An aircraft is considered in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome if it is within?

Answer 85

10NM of the aerodrome and at a height above the aerodrome that could result in conflict with operations at the aerodrome

Question 86

RECOMMENDED CALLS IN ALL CIRCUMSTANCES ?

Answer 86

The pilot intends to take-off Immediately before, or during taxiing The pilot is inbound to an aerodrome 10NM from the aerodrome, or earlier, commensurate with aeroplane performance and pilot workload, with an estimated time of arrival (ETA) for the aerodrome The pilot intends to fly through the vicinity of, but not land at, a non-controlled aerodrome 10NM from the aerodrome, or earlier, commensurate with aeroplane performance and pilot workload, with an estimated time of arrival 113 ENR 1.1 - 53 01 DEC 2022

Question 87

Aircraft should not be operated in the circuit at an indicated airspeed of more than?

Answer 87

200KT

Question 88

During the initial climb-out the turn onto crosswind should be made appropriate to the performance of the aircraft, but in any case not less than ?

Answer 88

500FT so as to be at circuit height when turning downwind.

Question 89

Pilots may vary the size of the circuit depending on ?

Answer 89

a. the performance of the aircraft; b. safety reasons; or c. in accordance with the Aircraft Flight Manual, Pilot's Operating Handbook, or company Standard Operating Procedures

Question 90

An aircraft must not commence take-off until ?

Answer 90

a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway has: (1) crossed the upwind end of the runway; or (2) commenced a turn; or (3) if the runway is longer than 1,800M, become airborne and is at least 1,800M ahead; or . a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway, has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway; or c. a preceding aircraft, using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the take-off aircraft's runway

Question 91

A pilot of an IFR flight must report when changing to the CTAF when ?

Answer 91

the ATS frequency will not, or cannot be monitored. This report must include the aerodrome location and frequency

Question 92

Pilots of IFR flights conducting local training, an instrument approach, or a holding pattern, may extend their SARWATCH by ?

Answer 92

an “OPERATIONS NORMAL” call at scheduled times

Question 93

For aircraft arriving and intending to join the circuit from overhead, the aircraft should?

Answer 93

descend on the non-active side of the circuit and be established at its circuit altitude as it crosses the runway centreline on crosswind, at between midfield and the departure end of the runway

Question 94

When arriving on the live side, the recommended method is to ? 113 ENR 1.1 - 61 01 DEC 202

Answer 94

arrive at the circuit altitude entering midfield at approximately 45 degrees to the downwind leg while giving way to the aircraft already established in the circuit.

Question 95

In any case, the turn onto final should be completed by not less than ? 113 ENR 1.1 - 62 01 DEC 20

Answer 95

500FT above aerodrome elevation. This should allow sufficient time for pilots to ensure the runway is clear for landing. It will also allow for the majority of aircraft to be stabilised for the approach and landing.

Question 96

Pilots who choose to adopt a straight-in approach should only do so when ?

Answer 96

it does not disrupt or conflict with the flow of circuit traffic. CASR 91.395 (2)(b) requires that the pilot conducting a straight-in approach give way to any other aircraft established and flying in the circuit pattern at the aerodrome.

Question 97

When conducting a straight-in approach, the aircraft must be established on final at not less than?

Answer 97

3NM from the landing runway's threshold CASR 91.395 (2)(c)

Question 98

pilots who choose to join on base leg should only do so if they?

Answer 98

a. have determined the wind direction and speed; b. have determined the runway in use; c. give way to other circuit traffic and ensure the aircraft can safely (no traffic conflict likely) join the base leg applicable to the circuit direction in use at the standard height; and d. broadcast their intentions

Question 99

An aircraft must not continue its approach to land beyond the threshold of the runway until ?

Answer 99

a. a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway is airborne and: (1) has commenced a turn; or (2) is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll and there is sufficient distance to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach; b. a preceding landing aircraft using the same runway has vacated it and is taxiing away from the runway; c. a preceding aircraft using another runway, has crossed or stopped short of the landing aircraft's runway

Question 100

Taxiing After Landing?

Answer 100

10.1.1 After landing, the runway strip should be vacated as soon as practicable. Aircraft should not stop until clear of the runway strip.

Question 101

For determining requirements, the cumulative cloud amount is interpreted as follows?

Answer 101

FEW plus FEW is equivalent to SCT, FEW plus SCT is equivalent to BKN, SCT plus SCT is equivalent to BKN or OVC

Question 102

When weather conditions at the destination are forecast to be as specified at para 10.7.2.1, but are expected to improve at a specific time, provision for an alternate aerodrome need not be made if sufficient fuel is carried to allow the aircraft to hold until that specified time plus ?

Answer 102

30 minutes

Question 103

You need to carry an alternate if your visibility is greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a ?

Answer 103

a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or d. a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event

Question 104

You need to carry an alternate if your visibility is greater than the alternate minimum, but the forecast is endorsed with at least a ?

Answer 104

a 30% percentage probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum; or d. a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or a forecast of at least a 30% probability of such an event

Question 105

a. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to create an operational requirement, that operational requirement will become effective ?

Answer 105

30 minutes before the start of the FM time, or 30 minutes before the start of the BECMG period.

Question 106

b. When the weather following the FM or BECMG is forecast to remove an operational requirement, that operational requirement will remain effective until ?

Answer 106

30 minutes after the FM time or 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG period

Question 107

At aerodromes receiving a TAF3 service, and only during the first 3 hours of the TAF3 validity, not beyond the end time for the TAF3 service if such a time is specified, the following do not apply?

Answer 107

a. 30 minute buffers required by paras 10.7.2.7 and 10.7.2.8, b. the alternate or holding fuel required by: (i) para 10.7.2.1 (c) for reduction in visibility, or (ii) para 10.7.2.5 for any PROB30 or PROB40 for TS or associated severe turbulence

Question 108

MINUMUM FUEL 1 The pilot in command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring?

Answer 108

MINIMUM FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot in command calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.

Question 109

Emergency Fuel 10.9.3.1 The pilot in command must declare a situation of emergency fuel by broadcasting ?

Answer 109

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel

Question 110

Note 1: MAYDAY FUEL declaration is a distress message. Note 2: In circumstances where a normal approach and landing is expected and the pilot assesses there is no requirement for emergency services, ATS should be so advised as early as possible e.g ?

Answer 110

“EXPECTING NORMAL APPROACH AND LANDING, EMERGENCY SERVICES NOT REQUIRED

Question 111

Where do we find information on TIBA ?

Answer 111

AIP ENR1.1-91

Question 112

For GPS (GNSS) approaches, RAIM must be available at the Final Approach Fix (FAF), as indicated by the ?

Answer 112

GPS INTEG annunciator extinguished

Question 113

Default RNP values FMS ?

Answer 113

1. Enroute: 2.00 2. Terminal: 1.00 3. Approach: 0.30

Question 114

Default RNP values FMS ?

Answer 114

1. Enroute: 2.00 2. Terminal: 1.00 3. Approach: 0.30

Question 115

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get POSITION UNCERTAIN ?

Answer 115

The FMS position is unreasonable (not verified). ANP values have reached or exceeded the RNP. Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised immediately: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV) DUE TO POSITION UNCERTAIN

Question 116

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get NO SATELLITE INTEG” (Loss of RAIM) ?

Answer 116

If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if RAIM has been unavailable for more than 5 minutes: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV) DUE TO LOSS OF RAIM

Question 117

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get SATELLITE POS ALARM” (RAIM ALERT) ?

Answer 117

GNSS position error outside Integrity Alarm Limit (IAL). Level of integrity known to be unacceptable. Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if a RAIM Alert has exceeded 1 minute: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV) DUE TO RAIM ALERT

Question 118

What must you do in controlled airspace if you get DEAD RECKONING MODE ?

Answer 118

True airspeed and heading are the only sensors being used for navigation. Note: If in controlled airspace, ATC must be advised if the GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode for more than 1 minute: “UNABLE RNP (OR RNAV)

Question 119

Range of Speeds for Initial Approach Cat C ?

Answer 119

160/240kts

Question 120

Range of Final Approach Speeds CAT C ?

Answer 120

115/160kts

Question 121

Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) ?

Answer 121

180kts

Question 122

Max Speeds for Missed Approach CAT C ?

Answer 122

240kts