Final Prep - Key Questions

Question 1

ETHICS - What is the organisational structure of the RICS?

Answer 1

Four tiered structure:

(1) Governing Council - Sits at the top of the structure, and sets the overarching strategic objectives of the RICS.
(2) RICS Board - Sits beneath the Governing Council, and undertakes the day-to-day management of the RICS, ensuring the strategic objectives are pursued
(3) Standards and Regulation Board - Independent body that regulates and accredits professionals, enforces ethical standards
(4) Other bodies - Regional bodies, Sector specific bodies (E.g. project management), Matrix and LionHeart

Question 2

ETHICS - How does the RICS uphold professional standards in the industry?

Answer 2

(1) Accredits professionals who demonstrate technical competence and ethical standards
(2) Issues professional standards and guidance notes
(3) SRB regulates and enforces standards

Question 3

ETHICS - What are the five rules of conduct?

Answer 3

(1) Maintain Professional Competence
(2) Act with Integrity and Honesty
(3) Provide a high quality of service
(4) Treat others with respect
(5) Act in the Public Interest

Question 4

ETHICS - What are professional standards?

Answer 4

Professional standards are mandatory requirements that all members must oblige and adhere to.

Include: (1) Rules of Conduct (2) Countering Bribery, Corruption, Terrorist Financing and Money Laundering (3) Client Money Handling (4) Conflict of Interest

Question 5

ETHICS - What are guidance notes?

Answer 5

Practice information provided by the RICS which establishes recommended best practice for firms and surveyors. These are not mandatory, but surveyors should consult and use wherever possible to ensure a high standard of service.

Include: (1) Management of Risk (2) Stakeholder Management

Question 6

ETHICS - What are the RICS CPD Requirements?

Answer 6

Currently the CPD requirements are:

1) Trainees must undertake 48-hours of recorded CPD per year, 24 hours should be formal with clear learning outcomes
2) Members must undertake 20 hours of CPD, 10 hours should be formal with clear learning outcomes
3) Members must familarise themselves with Ethics and Professional Standards every three years

From January of next year however, there are some changes:

1) More flexibility - members can bring forward 15 hours of CPD to the following year if undergoing a structured qualification
2) Mandatory topics increased to include (1) sustainability (2) AI and (3) Ethics

Question 7

ETHICS - Talk me through rejecting a gift on 1ES

Answer 7

1) Gift offered was an expensive case of wine following recommendation of tender to D&E contractor
2) Immediately rejected the gift and notified my manager. Logged on gift register anyway for clarity.
3) Considered CB, ML, TF, C professional standard. Not considered bribery, however:
4) Felt inappropriate due to (A) value and (B) context following tender recommendation
5) Considered the Ethical tree - whilst legal, I did not feel it was in line with the Rules of conduct (promoting trust in the profession) and would not be happy to justify it

Question 8

ETHICS - How do you act in line with the RICS rules of conduct?

Answer 8

1) Professional Competence - Undertaking CPD
2) Integrity - Rejecting gifts if inappropriate
3) Good quality and diligent service - producing high quality output, in a timely manner in line with clients requirements
4) Treat others with respect - fair and transparent tendering process, providing feedback to unsuccesful tendering parties
5) Act in the public interest - consulting with third party stakeholders

Question 9

ETHICS - Talk me not through providing construction cost advice / letting value advice

Answer 9

1) Asked by client to give ballpark estimates for future lettings values and construction costs for proposed scheme to inform feasibility studies
2) Declined as not in my area of expertise, did not act with integrity, and could lead to errors or omissions that could negatively impact the works

Question 10

ETHICS - Talk me through ensuring an equal tendering approach on 1TS?

Answer 10

1) Recommended to the client that the objective assessment criteria be issued to tendering parties.
2) This was in line with Rules of Conduct, but also ensured high quality tender returns specific to the clients objectives
3) Criteria = Cost (25%) ; Programme (25%) ; Experience (25%) ; Sustainability (25%)

Question 11

ETHICS - What does the conflict of interest professional standard say?

Answer 11

1) Conflict of interest is a situation whereby a member has competing duties which compromise their ability to act impartially and in favour of the client

2) Defines three types (A) Party Conflict - duty to one party is in contravention to another ; (B) Own-Interst - Ones own interest contravenes the interest of the client ; (C) Confidential Information - Duty to disclose information to one party is in contravention to keep confidential

3) Sets parameters when dealing with COI - (1) Establish the facts (2) Higlight conflict of interest to parties (3) Seek alternative means to carry out work (4) Obtain informed consent (5) If in doubt, do not proceed.

Question 12

ETHICS - What does the Countering Bribery, Corruption, Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing Professional Standard Say?

Answer 12

1) Do not offer, accept bribes
2) Undertake DD on Clients
3) Have an accepted gift policy
4) Provide training
5) Keep records

Updated recently to incorporate sanctioned entities, provides additional guidance on emerging risks, and focuses on additional training

Question 13

ETHICS - What does the RICS Client Money Handling Professional Standard Say?

Answer 13

1) Client monies should be held in a named separate account
2) Only used for intended purposes
3) Payments made promptly
4) Unidentified monies return to correct recipient
5) Records Kept

Question 14

ETHICS - What is the role of the RICS?

Answer 14

1) Accredit professionals
2) Act in line with public interest
3) Provide guidance to governments and policy makers
4) Maintain standards for firms and surveyors

Question 15

ETHICS - Why do you want to join the RICS?

Answer 15

1) Accredited as a professional
2) Recognised as someone who acts ethically, and in line with the Rules of Conduct
3) Access CPD and training

Question 16

ETHICS - What is your companies gift policy?

Answer 16

1) All gifts declared no matter the value
2) Approval of gifts above £50
3) Above £50, seek MD approval
4) No gifts offered without prior consent - above £1,000 CEO approval
5) No gifts to public bodies

Question 17

ETHICS - Is it ever acceptable to receive a gift?

Answer 17

• Yes, but only if:
  (1) If its reasonable
  (2) Does not influence behaviour or imply an improper obligation
  (3) Recorded

Question 18

ETHICS - What are the 7 obligations of RICS regulated firms?

Answer 18

1) CHP published
2) Relevant PI policy
3) Procedure in place in the event of a sole trader not being able to work
4) Demonstrate in RICS literature
5) Comply with the RICS
6) Provide information to the SRB if requested
7) Report any matters to the RICS that reportable - i.e. insolvency

Question 19

ETHICS - What does the Management of Risk Guidance Note say?

Answer 19

1) Defines a risk as an event which if occured would materially impact the project
2) Highlights the importance of risk management
3) Highlights risk management process - identify, assess, mitigate, review
4) Provides assessment techniques, both quantitative and qualitative

Question 20

ETHICS - What does the Stakeholder Managament Guidance note say?

Answer 20

1) Highlights the importance of stakeholder management and engagement
2) Based on several principles, including:
A) Consult
B) Communicate
C) Plan
D) Relationships
E) Compromise

Question 21

ETHICS - What is the Levitt Review

Answer 21

1) Review in 2021 following a Treasury Audit in 2018, where the RICS’ overdraft facility needed to be extended by £3m.
2) Highlighted governance failures, with a lack of clarity on roles and responibilities
3) Governing Council were not kep informed of internal processes.
4) 18 recommendations - all of which were accepted, including: 1) Incresed role of governing council 2) Increased frequency of management meetings per year

Question 22

ETHICS - What does the RICS say about whistleblowing?

Answer 22

• Whistleblowing is the process of raising serious concerns about malpractice, wrongdoing or danger at work.

RICs are clear that:
1) RICS members have an obligation to report serious breaches of RICS standards
2) Balancing confidentiality vs public interest - client confidentiality should be respected, however if maintaining confidentiality would cause significant harm to the public, the duty to report outweighs confidentiality obligations
3) Recommendation that all companies have a whistleblowing policy.

Question 23

ETHICS - What is the Bichard Review

Answer 23

1) A Review in 2021 following the governance failure outlined in the Levitt Review. Purpose was to restore trust, clarify RICs purpose, and ensure the institution acts for the public advantage
2) Introduced the RICS Board
3) Strenghten the autonomy of the SRB
4) Increase focus on younger members, diversity and inclusion.

Question 24

ETHICS - What is the Royal Charter?

Answer 24

The mechanism (given by powers from the Crown) for the RICS to (1) Set and enforce standards (2) Regulate members and (3) Act in the public interest

Question 25

ETHICS - What professional bodies are there in the RICS?

Answer 25

There are 18 in total, including: 1) Building Control 2) Dispute Resolution and 3) Project Management In addition, there is the (1) RICS Matrics for younger members and (2) Lionheart - charity providing welfare and support for RICS members

Question 26

ETHICS - What are the requirements for RICs to be registered?

Answer 26

1) 25% of its directorship are accredited 2) Provides surveying services to the public

Question 27

ETHICS - What is the RICS CHP?

Answer 27

Two stage mechanism: 1) Internal: - Firms must have a written policy - Sole principals cannot deal with complaints themselves - Backed by PI - Acknowledge within 7 days - Formally respond within 8 days 2) External: - Include a redress system, by a RICS approved provider

Question 28

ETHICS - What are the RICS PI requirements?

Answer 28

1) Must be from a RICS approved insurer 2) Must have the minimum RICS wording 3) Must have civil liability cover - extends it from just negligence to include for breach of contract and dishonesty 4) Minimum limits depending on turnover: A) £0-£100k - £250k PI B) £100k - £200k - £500k PI C) £200K + - £1m PI 5) 6-year run off cover required. 6) Uninsured excess limits introduced: (1) Companies less than £10m, maximum insinsured excess is the greater of £10,000 or 2.5%; (2) Companies with a turnover in excess of £10m, there is no maximum ininsured excess

Question 29

ETHICS - What would you do if you were offered a bag of cash?

Answer 29

1) Wouldn't accept it and would document it with my line manager 2) Because (A) My company dosen't accept cash (B) I would not be able to accurately audit the cash to ascertain whether it comes from reputable sources (C) I would not be happy if it was made public.

Question 30

ETHICS - What would you do if you watned to set up a firm tomorrow?

Answer 30

- Notify the RICS - Register with companies house - Obtain PI insurance - Publish a CHP - Ensure H&S policy, training is in place, equal opportunities for all staff

Question 31

ETHICS - What is the latest RICS Business Plan?

Answer 31

(1) Increase engagement with the RICS members (2) Attract a diverse next generation of talent (3) Continue to lead on sustainability

Question 32

ETHICS - What does the RICS say on AI?

Answer 32

(1) RICS are introducing a new professional standard on the ethical use of AI (2) Requires firms to review their AI software, ascertain whether they need to use AI, obtain consent from clients (3) Harris debate last year on the ethical use of AI (4) Making it mandatory for members to study / familiarise themselves with on a 3-year basis

Question 33

ETHICS - What are the RICS byelaws?

Answer 33

(1) The formal legal rules that govern how the RICS operates as a public body. These include: (A) Byelaw 2 - Membership and Registration (B) Byelaw 5 - Disciplinary Powers and Sanctions (C) Byelaw 10 - Subscription and Fees

Question 34

ETHICS - What is the RICS inclusive employer quality mark?

Answer 34

(1) Initiative by the RICS to encourage firms to commit to improving diversity and inclusion (2) Premised on 6 principles, including (A) Leadership (B) Recruitment (C) Employee Engagement

Question 35

ETHICS - Why did the RICS Rules of Conduct Change in 2021?

Answer 35

(1) Following consultation with members, they were udpdated to make them simpler, clearer and more consistent (2) Replaced the 2007 which split the obligations between members and firms

Question 36

CLIENT CARE - What is Client Care?

Answer 36

The provision of a high quality, transparent level of service, which is specifically tailored to the Clients objectives.

Question 37

CLIENT CARE - Why is Client Care important as a PM?

Answer 37

(1) To comply with the RICS rules of conduct - (A) Ensure high quality of service (2) To promote trust in the profession - (A) Act in the public interest (3) Commercial benefits - can lead to repeat business.

Question 38

CLIENT CARE - What are the behaviours that demonstrate good client care?

Answer 38

(1) Provision of high quality output (2) In line with the professional competence of the individual / firm (3) In a timely manner (4) In line with the clients objectives.

Question 39

CLIENT CARE - Why is it important to have formal procedures in place?

Answer 39

To ensure a consistent, transparent and high quality service. It can also provide a clear audit trail if something goes wrong.

Question 40

CLIENT CARE - What formal procedures do you have in place on your projects?

Answer 40

(1) Weekly written reports (newsflashes) which highight key actions, successes and risks (2) Fortnightly client meetings to discuss key issues, project updates and actions (3) Monthly detailed reports, including risk register, CapEx summary, contingency allocation

Question 41

CLIENT CARE - How have you demonstrated good client care?

Answer 41

(1) By adapting the financial reporting process on 1ES, following the formalisation of a financing agreement (2) Ensured that the invoice pack was issued a week prior, enabling the third party fund monitor to review payments before issuing the drawdown request to the bank (3) This was a key driver of the clients, and adapting the approach ensured that their commercial objectives were met.

Question 42

CLIENT CARE - How do you report to your client?

Answer 42

(1) Written - Newsflashes, Monthly Reports, Agendas, Meeting Minutes (2) Oral - Fortnightly minuted meetings (3) Visual - Produce strategic programmes, site visits etc.

Question 43

CLIENT CARE - What is ISO 9001?

Answer 43

- An international standard for quality management systems. - It sets out a framework and set of principles to ensure businesses consistently deliver a high quality of service. - Focus on (1) Customer (2) Leadership (3) Improvement

Question 44

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What is communication?

Answer 44

The transfer of information from one party to another.

Question 45

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What different forms of communication are you aware of?

Answer 45

Written ; Oral ; Visual Formal ; Informal

Question 46

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What should you consider when adopting a method to use?

Answer 46

Who you are communicating to (interest, level of expertise) What you are communicating (Visual, Oral, Written) Why you are communicating (Formal / Informal)

Question 47

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What is negotiation?

Answer 47

A structured communication process between two or more parties with the aim of formalising a mutually acceptable agreement.

Question 48

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - When would you negotiate as a PM?

Answer 48

(1) Appointments with consultants (fees / scope of services) (2) Contract terms with a Main Contractor (e.g. Clarifications & Exclusions ; LADs) (3) S106 Agreements

Question 49

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What is the traditional negotiation process?

Answer 49

(1)Preparation of information (2) Exchange of information (3) Barganining (4) Concluding (5) Executing PEBCE

Question 50

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What are the core components of good negotitation?

Answer 50

(1) Finding an area of common ground (2) Maintaining relationships (3) Recognising that both parties have different objectives.

Question 51

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - What communication styles do you use on 1ES?

Answer 51

(1) Written - Newsflashes ; Emails ; Reports (2) Oral - Presentations ; Phone Calls ; Meetings (3) Visual - Programmes

Question 52

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - How do you adapt your communication style dependent on the recipient?

Answer 52

- Have worked on four different projects with two different clients who have different levels of expertise. - British Land are an experienced developer who understand the development process ; LaSalle / PNB are more financially biased with less construction / development experience. - Refrain from using technical language with the Client on 1ES, and focus on key strategic implications (Cost, Time, Quality) - More hands on with LaSalle / Lighter touch reporting with BL

Question 53

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - Talk me through negotiating the CMT on One Exchange Square?

Answer 53

- Negotiating the appointment of the MEP CMT consultant on 1ES. - Preferred MEP consultant was chosen via a competitive tender process, however the fee was higher than the budget. - I prepared for the negotiation by benchmarking the fee against comparables and reviewing their proposed scope of service - Held a meeting with the consultant where I outlined the ned to align fees with the clients expectations - Identified areas of overlap between the MEP CMT and the Verification Engineer, while maintaining the core quality and deliverables. Led to a 10% reduction in their fee. - Conceded on the payment milestones - previously the client had wanted to pay the consultant at the completion of various project milestones, however agreed that this would be done so on a pro-rata'd basis instead. - Concluded the negotiation.

Question 54

COMMUNICATION & NEGOTIATION - Why would you want to negotiate?

Answer 54

- To maintain professional relationships - To mitigate the requirement to undergo alternative formal dispute resolution measures, such as adjudication, arbitration or litigation.

Question 55

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is the H&S at work act?

Answer 55

- The key piece of legislation that governs Health and Safety in the work place, which was formalised in 1974. - It places a duty of care on employers, employees and others involved to ensure health and safety at work. - Duties include: A) Employers must ensure the Health, Safety and Wellbeing of all employees; Provide safe systems of work, training and supervision B) Employees must take reasonable care of their own H&s, and comply with their employers to meet legal obligations

Question 56

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is CDM?

Answer 56

- Construction Design and Management Regulations 2015 - Regulations that are aimed to improving health, safety and wellbeing throughout all stages of a project. - Places specific duties on duty holders throughout the design, development and management of a project

Question 57

HEALTH & SAFETY - What are the Sections of CDM?

Answer 57

(1) Introduction (2) Clients Duties (3) Principal Contractor and Principal Designer Duties (4) General H&S Requirements - Including safe places of work, welfare and traffic procedures (5) General Provisions- legal and administrative details

Question 58

HEALTH & SAFETY - What are the duty holders under CDM?

Answer 58

(1) Client A. Must appoint duty holders B. Must provide adequate resource and welfare C. Must issue an F10 if required. D. Must ensure the PCI is produced. (2) Principal Designer A. Must plan, manage and monitor the pre-construction phase to ensure H&s risks are eliminated or controlled. B. Coordinate the design work and ensure the designers comply with their duties C. Produce the HSF at completion (3) Principal Contractor A. Plan, manage and monitor the construction phase to ensure the work is carried out safetly B. Prepare, develop and implement the CPP

Question 59

HEALTH & SAFETY - What documents must be produced under CDM?

Answer 59

(1) Pre-Construction Information a. Project description b. Existing site hazards c. survey information (2) Construction Phase Plan a. Site rules b. Welfare arrangements c. Emergency procedures (3) Health and Safety File a. As-built drawings and specifications b. Residual risks c. Details of hazardous materials

Question 60

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is RIDDOR?

Answer 60

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurances Regulations. Highlights the instances that must be notified to the HSE, including: 1) Deaths 2) Dangerous Instances 3) Fractures 4) Injury to non-workers 5) 7+ day injuries Reports are made online via the HSE RIDDOR Website.

Question 61

HEALTH & SAFETY - What measures can a Principal Contractor put in place to mitigate health and safety risks?

Answer 61

(1) Mandatory 5-point PPE (2) Site Inductions (3) RAMS (4) Permits to Work for high risk activities (5) Daily Activity Briefings (6) Toolbox Talks

Question 62

HEALTH & SAFETY - Why is health and safety important in the construction industry?

Answer 62

(1) Construction is a high risk industry - 35 worker deaths in 2024 (2) Compliance with legal regulations (HSWA, CDM, RIDDOR) (3) Project Efficiency

Question 63

HEALTH & SAFETY - Talk me through highlighting H&S risks on 1ES?

Answer 63

(1) Scaffolder did not have his chin strap on when working at height. Risk to both him and other workers. (2) As per my obligation under the HSWA, I immediately stopped the workers and highlighted the importance of wearing the chin strap effectively. (3) Informed the Project Director of the incident. (4) Requested a toolbox talk be undertaken. (5) Remained vigilant on future site visits.

Question 64

HEALTH & SAFETY - Talk me through overseeing the production of the H&S File on 1FA?

Answer 64

- Understood my role as a PM to coordinate and oversee the production by the PD - Ensured the PD was aware of their responsibility - Reviewed with the PD the information that was required, including as-built drawings, residual risks, operation and maintenance guideliens - Ensured that the PD allocated responsibilities, outlining who was responsible for providing information - Ensured a H&S File agenda item was included on all weekly meetings

Question 65

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is the CSCS?

Answer 65

Construction Skills Certification Scheme A UK intiative which accredits professionals with H&S knowledge relevant to their own area of expertise.

Question 66

HEALTH & SAFETY - What CSCS test did you pass?

Answer 66

CSCS Test for Managers and Professionals

Question 67

HEALTH & SAFETY - What does passing the CSCS test allow you to do?

Answer 67

Be inducted onto site, and undertake unaccompanied site visits.

Question 68

HEALTH & SAFETY - What are risk assessments?

Answer 68

Assessments which identify risks associated with specific targets and how those risks will be controlled. The process includes: (1) Identify the Risk (2) Ascertain who might be harmed (3) Evaluate the risks (4) Record and Document (5) Establish a method statement to safely undertake the works

Question 69

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is an F10?

Answer 69

- A formal document issued to the HSE at the commencement of a construction project. Must include: (1) Name of Client (2) Name of Principal Contractor & Principal Designer (3) Project Details inc. duration (4) Location of nearest emergency facilitiy

Question 70

HEALTH & SAFETY - What does the RICS say about H&S?

Answer 70

The RICS "Surveying Safely" Professional Standard. It requires firms to manage health and safety appropriately, employ competent staff. It also introduces the principal of the Safe Working Person - which is an individual who understands the risks associated with their work, acts responsibly and makes informed judgements.

Question 71

HEALTH & SAFETY - Who are the HSE?

Answer 71

The Health and Safety Executive, a UK government agency responsible for regulating and enforcing workplace heath and safety across all industries.

Question 72

HEALTH & SAFETY - What can the HSE do?

Answer 72

(1) Inspect and enter workplaces without prior notice. (2) Investigate accidents (3) Issue improvement notices (4) Issue prohibition notices (5) Prosecute for breaches of H&S law

Question 73

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is included in a H&S File?

Answer 73

(1) Project Description and Information (2) Key Contact Details (3) As-Built Drawings (4) Commissing Information (5) Operation & Maintenance Measures (6) Residual Risks

Question 74

HEALTH & SAFETY - What projects are notifiable?

Answer 74

(1) Projects that last longer than 30 days with 20 or more workers, or (2) Projects with more than 500 working person days

Question 75

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is COSHH

Answer 75

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations COSHH requires employers and project teams to control exposure to hazardous substances that could cause ill health (including solvents, paints and adhesives). Key requirements include: 1) Risk assessments 2) Control measures 3) Monitoring exposure 4) Emergency procedures for accidents and spills

Question 76

HEALTH & SAFETY - What is CAR (Asbestos)

Answer 76

Control of Asbestos Regulations (2012) Sets the legal requirements for identifying and removing ACM (Asbstos Containing Materials). You must ensure that an asbestos register is maintained, and an R&D survey is undertaken prior to works.

Question 77

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What are Company Accounts?

Answer 77

Statutory accounts that must be produced by companies on an annual basis, and submitted to Companies House.

Question 78

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What are included in Companies Accounts?

Answer 78

(1) Cashflow Statement (2) Balance Sheet (3) Profit and Loss Statement

Question 79

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is a cashflow statement?

Answer 79

A financial statement which shows how cash moves in and out of a business over a specific period. Including: (1) Operating Activities (2) Investing Activities (3) Financing Activities Cashflow statements show liquidity and cash movement.

Question 80

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is a profit and loss statement?

Answer 80

A financial statement which summarises a business revenues, costs, and expenses over a period to calculate its profit or loss. It shows a companies ability to generate profit over a period.

Question 81

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is a balance sheet?

Answer 81

A financial summary of a companies financial balances at the end of a financial year. It includes: (1) Assets (Both fixed and current) (2) Liabilities (Both long term and current) (3) Equity - Including reserves

Question 82

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is the difference between management and company accounts?

Answer 82

Company Accounts - Statutory accounts that must be produced on an annual basis, and must include a P&L Statement, a cashflow statement and a balance sheet. Must be submitted to companies house. Management Accounts - Discretionary accounts that do not need to be shared with the Companies House, may be produced more frequently and include other KPI measures.

Question 83

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is the role of an auditor?

Answer 83

Individuals or organisations who are responsible for examining and verifying the accuracy of a company's financial records.

Question 84

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is Companies House?

Answer 84

The UK Register of Companies, defined under the Companies Act 2006.

Question 85

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is GAAP?

Answer 85

(1) The Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (2) A rules based system which seeks to ensure that all Company Accounts are reliable, standardised and transparent. Failure to comply with the GAAP or IFRS can lead to non-compliance with the Companies Act 2006, which may result in penalties or prosecution.

Question 86

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - Why is it important to understand accounting principles as a PM?

Answer 86

(1) Understand basic accounting principles such as cashflows. (2) Understand requirements if starting own business. (3) Provide context when tendering for contractors (although this would be undertaken by the companies accountant) (4) Builds confidence with clients, who tend to be financial institution. Ensure that I can speak in the same language

Question 87

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What are some qualitiative characteristics of UK GAAP?

Answer 87

RFU, TVC (1) Relevant (2) Faithful (3) Understandable (4) Timely (5) Verifiable (6) Comparable.

Question 88

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is ratio analysis? Can you give some examples?

Answer 88

An analysis technique that uses numbers from a Companies Accounts to assess its performance, financial health and efficiency. Example: (1) Liquidity Ratio - Current Assets / Current Liabilities -> Ability to meet short term obligations (2) Gearing Ratio - Debt / Equity -> How dependent are the company on debt

Question 89

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What are International Accounting Standards?

Answer 89

International Standards used for accounting, known as the International Financial Reporting Standards. In the UK, most companies comply with UK GAAP, but FTSE 100 companies must comply with the IFRS.

Question 90

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is the difference between IAS and GAAP?

Answer 90

IFRS are principles based, whereas UK GAAP is rules based.

Question 91

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - How is property treated under GAAP?

Answer 91

Property is usually treated as a long term asset under UK GAAP, that is depreciated over its useful life. (Depreciation is an accounting method that is used to allocate the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life).

Question 92

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is the difference between an accrual and cash accounting?

Answer 92

Accrual accounting records transactions when they are earned or incurred, rather than when cash is exchaged. Cash accounting records transactions when payments are made. Importantly, P&L statements represent accrual accounting, whereas cashflow statements reflect cash accounting.

Question 93

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What are Capital Allowances?

Answer 93

Capital Allowances is a tax reduction scheme available for businesses for certain capital expenditures. Typically, you can claim it on (1) Plant and Machinery and (2) Research and Development

Question 94

ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLES & PROCEDURES - What is CIS?

Answer 94

The Construction Industry Scheme - A UK scheme which is used to prevent tax evasion in the construction industry. Contractors must deduct money from payments to subcontractors and pass it to HMRC. These deductions count as advance payments towards the SC tax and national insurance.

Question 95

BUSINESS PLANNING - What is a Business Plan?

Answer 95

A formal document which outlines a companies strategic objectives and how it plans to acheive them. Usually produced over a 3-5 year period.

Question 96

BUSINESS PLANNING - What different types of Business Plan are there?

Answer 96

(1) Strategic - A companies strategic objectives over a 3-5 year period. (2) Operational - Business plans produced on a more frequent basis which outline how operationally the business will proceed to meet the strategic objectives. Usually produced annually. (3) Financial Business Plans / Start Up - Business plans which are financially focused to raise capital for a new project or business (4) Project Specific Business Plans - For some long term or large projects, specific business plans may be produced.

Question 97

BUSINESS PLANNING - What techniques can be used to create a business plan?

Answer 97

SWOT - Internal assessment of a companies internal strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. PESTLE - External assessment of the political, economic, social, technological, legal and environmental factors that may impact the business Add only if asked: Porters Five Factors - a framework to analyse the competitive dynamics of an industry, including (1) Competitive Rivalry (2) Threat of New Entrants (3) Bargainning Power of Suppliers (4) Bargaining Power of Buyers (5) Threat of Substitutes.

Question 98

BUSINESS PLANNING - How does the BP contribute to acheiving corporate objectives?

Answer 98

(1) It establishes what the businesses strategic objectives are (2) It establishes the programme required to acheive the strategic objectives (3) And a plan of action of how to acheive these

Question 99

BUSINESS PLANNING - What different types of BP are you aware of?

Question 100

BUSINESS PLANNING - What are the contents of a BP?

Answer 100

(1) Executive Summary (2) Introduction - Mission and Vision Statement (3) Market Analysis (4) Organisation and Management (5) Products or Services Being Offered (6) Marketing and Sales Straegy (7) Operational Plan (8) Financial Plan

Question 101

BUSINESS PLANNING - What is your company's business plan?

Answer 101

My company aims to be the most sought after PM and DM consultancy in London. Its specific objectives are: (1) Financial - Increase revenue and profit (2) Operational - Increase head count and promote next generation of PMs (3) Clients / Projects - Diversify client base and win new work (4) Sustainability - Reduce environmental harm and increase social value.

Question 102

BUSINESS PLANNING - What is contained within an appointment document?

Answer 102

(1) Clarification of Work Scope (2) Agreed Fee (3) Terms of Business (4) Contact Details

Question 103

BUSINESS PLANNING - What is discussed during your company meetings?

Question 104

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What are the common causes of conflict on a project?

Answer 104

(1) Contract Errors or omissions (2) Poor communication (3) Lack of clarity on roles and responsibilities (4) Poor Performance (5) Misunderstanding of the brief

Question 105

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What conflict avoidance procedures are you aware of?

Answer 105

(1) Clear project brief (2) Clear roles and responsibilities (3) Clear contract documents (4) Early stakeholder engagement (5) Proactive risk management

Question 106

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - Why is it important to have conflict avoidance procedures in place?

Answer 106

Conflict avoidance procedures prevent poor performance, which can lead to better outcomes for the project. Equally, reduces the requirement to undergo more formal conflict / dispute resolution measures.

Question 107

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What dispute resolution methods are you aware of?

Answer 107

Consensual: (1) Negotiation - A structured communication process where two or more parties seek to come to a mutually beneficial agreement. (2) Mediation - A third party mediator is employed to structure the communication process between two parties. (3) Concilliation - The same as mediation, but the concilliator offers a non-binding resolution Contractual: (1) Arbitration - a third party arbitrator is employed. The process mirrors litigation and the resolution is enforceable. Statutory: (1) Adjudication - An adjudicator is employed to provide a temporarily bind dispute resolution in construction contracts, usually within 28 days. (2) Litigation - A dispute is settled publicly in a court of law.

Question 108

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is the difference between adjudication and arbitration?

Answer 108

(1) Adjudication applies to all construction contracts by law (governed by the HGCRA 1996), arbitration only when the contract refers to it (2) Adjudication is a less formal, quicker process which provides a temporarily binding solution. Arbitration is longer, mirrors litigation and is permanently binding. (3) The decision made by an arbitrator can overrule that made by an adjudicator.

Question 109

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - Why would you choose adjudication over arbitration?

Answer 109

If you wanted a quick, decision on a specific issue which would allow the project to continue progressing.

Question 110

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - Why would you choose arbitration over adjudication?

Answer 110

If you wanted a legally binding and enforcable decision over multiple contract clauses.

Question 111

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is your companies CHP?

Answer 111

(1) Inform line manager (2) Acknowledge within 5 days (3) Formally respond within 14-18 days, with resolution proposal (4) Lessons learned thereafter

Question 112

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is RICS CHP?

Question 113

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is ADR?

Answer 113

Any dispute resolution method that does not involve solving disputes through litigation. Examples: Adjudication, arbitration, mediation, concilliation, expert determination, negotiation.

Question 114

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is the RICS Dispute Resolution Service?

Answer 114

A formal service offered by RICS to help resolve disputes involving RICS members or firms. Services offered include: (1) Mediation (2) Arbitration (3) Expert Determination (4) Adjudication

Question 115

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is an Expert Witness? What is a Surveyor Advocate?

Answer 115

Expert Witness - An individual with specialist knowledge in a particular field who provides indepdendent evidence to assist with resolving a dispute. Surveyor Advocate - A qualified surveyor who is legally trained and authorised to represent a client in a dispute resolution proceeding. The expert witness provides an independent opinion, and must remain neutral. A surveyor advocate presents arguments in favour of a specific party, however must remain honest and act with integrity.

Question 116

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What must you do if called as an Expert Witness?

Answer 116

(1) Issue the "Surveyors Acting as an Expert Witness" Client guide to the Client. (2) Notify the client that the CHP will not apply as their duty is to the tribunal and not the client. (3) Check that there are no conflicts of interest (4) Ensure there is a written appointment as an expert witness (5) If being paid, both parties must pay an equal share.

Question 117

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is the traditional adjudication process?

Answer 117

(1) Notice of Adjudication Issued (2) Adjudicator Appointed (3) Parties issued referals (evidence) to the adjudicator (4) Adjudicator reviews details (5) Adjudicator issues a written decision award Typically comes within 28-days from issuing of referals.

Question 118

CONFLICT AVOIDANCE - What is the traditional arbitration process?

Answer 118

1) Party raising the dispute notifies the party 2) Parties select an arbitrator with relevant experience. 3) Preliminary conference held. 4) Submission of evidence from both sides. 5) Formal hearing held 6) Deliberation and award. Time frame depends on complexity of dispute, however betweeen 3 - 6 months

Question 119

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is Data Management?

Answer 119

The process by which information is stored, collected, managed and used on a project or within a business.

Question 120

DATA MANAGEMENT - How does Data Management change over the course of a project lifecycle?

Answer 120

In the earlier stages of the project, data is used to inform decision making processes. For example, data is used to assess whether to proceed with a particular scope over another. In the latter stages of a project, data is used for approval. For example, the contractor will issue design information to the client team for approval. Throughout a project, data is always used as an audit trail and a reference point.

Question 121

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is the difference between primary and secondary data?

Answer 121

Primary data is data that has been collected first hand - for example, observations from site inspections. Secondary data is data that has been collected from a second hand source - for example, general market cost data or tender price inflation forecasts.

Question 122

DATA MANAGEMENT - What are the characteristics of a good database?

Answer 122

(1) Data / documents clearly named (2) Revisions of documents titled appropriately (3) A clear filing structure across a business or project (4) Old information archived, rather than deleted (5) User friendly or easy to filter

Question 123

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is the difference between data and information?

Answer 123

Data = raw, unorganised facts that need to be processed. For example. individual datapoints in a point cloud survey. Information = Processed data, presented in a context to make it meaningful and useful. For example, a full point cloud survey.

Question 124

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is GDPR?

Answer 124

General Data Protection Regulation (2018). An EU directive which seeks to protect individuals private data. Key principles include: (1) Data is collected for a specific purpose (2) Data is collected and processed lawfully (3) Data is accurate and appropriately up to date (4) Not retained for longer than its purpose (5) Data is kept secure. Failure to comply with GDPR can lead to hefty fines, as much as 20mEUR or 4% of global turnover.

Question 125

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is the Data Protection Act?

Answer 125

A piece of UK legislation that governs the processing of personal data. It essentially works alongside GDPR to ensure individuals personal information is handled lawfully, securely and transparently in the UK.

Question 126

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is the difference between them?

Answer 126

GDPR - Applies to organisations processing EU citizens' data. DPA - Applies to organisations processing UK citizens' data. Additional exemptions when dealing with matters relating to national security and law enforcement.

Question 127

DATA MANAGEMENT - Why is it important to uphold confidentiality?

Answer 127

(1) Compliance with the RICS Rules of Conduct - Rule 1 - Act with honesty and integrity, and keep information confidential. (2) Compliance with legislation (such as GDPR) (3) Builds trust with those you're doing business. Demonstrates good client care.

Question 128

DATA MANAGEMENT - What RICS Guidance is there on data?

Answer 128

RICS has a professional standard on Data Handling and Protection. This states that members must: (1) Comply with data protection law (2) Handle personal data lawfully, fairly and securely (3) Be transparent about how data is collected and used

Question 129

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is BIM?

Answer 129

Building Information Modelling. It is the process of designing a building collaboratively using one coherent system of computer models, rather than a separate set of drawings. I am aware of 4 levels of BIM: BIM 0 - 2D CAD, no collaboration between teams. BIM 1 - Mixture of 3D and 2D CAD. Models are stand alone and not linked in any way. BIM 2 - 3D Models are produced separately, but the information is shared in the same format between teams. (All public sector projects must use BIM 2) BIM 3 - Fully integrated 3D model, where all parties input at the same time.

Question 130

DATA MANAGEMENT - Who are the data actors under GDPR?

Answer 130

Data Subject - Individual whose personal data is being collated or processed. Data Processor - Individual / company who are processing the data. Data Controller - Individual / company who are collating the data. Data Protection Officer - Individual to oversee data protection compliance

Question 131

DATA MANAGEMENT - What is an EDM System?

Answer 131

Electronic Document Management System - A digital system used to store, manage, track and control documents electronically. E.g. Aconex or Sharefile.

Question 132

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is a team?

Answer 132

A group of people with complementary skillsets working towards a common goal or objective.

Question 133

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is Tuckmans Key Stages of Development?

Answer 133

Tuckmans theory of development posits the various stages of development that a team goes through as it becomes its most efficient. Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning It's important for a PM to know what stage of the development cycle the team are in, and adapt their approach to suit.

Question 134

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is diversity?

Answer 134

The presence of a variety of characteristics in a group, organisation or society.

Question 135

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is unconscious bias?

Answer 135

When our brains make quick judgements about people or situtations without realising. This can be influenced by backgrounds, cultural environments and stereotypes.

Question 136

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is the difference between direct and indirect discrimination?

Answer 136

Direct = when an individual or group is being targeted or unfairly trated based on a protected characteristic. Indirect = when someone is unreasonably disadvantaged because of their protected charateristic.

Question 137

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - How can you mitigate against the impacts of discrimination?

Answer 137

Attempt to adopt an objective criteria as possible when creating new teams. For example, by pre-establishing an objective assessment criteria before appointing a team on a project.

Question 138

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is the Equality Act? What does it say?

Answer 138

The key piece of UK legislation that prevents discrimination against individuals within the workplace or in society. It establishes a set of protected characteristics (characteristics that can not be changed) that it is illegal to discriminate against someone for, including (1) age, (2) disability (3) religion (4) sexual orientation.

Question 139

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is the RICS doing on diversity?

Answer 139

Diversity, Equity and Inclusion is a core objective of the RICS, and forms a fundamental part of the rules of conduct (treat others with respect and promote equality and inclusivity). Also forms part of the 2025 RICS Business Plan. Measures include: (1) Issue guidance and online training on DEI (2) Establishment of the Inclusive Employer Quality Mark.

Question 140

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What makes an effective team?

Answer 140

(1) Understanding of roles (2) Strong leadership (3) Understanding of the brief (4) Diversity of thought and backgrounds (5) Common sense of purpose (6) Adequate resources

Question 141

DIVERSITY, INCLUSION & TEAMWORKING - What is the difference between a group and a team?

Answer 141

A group is a collection of individuals who coordinate their own efforts, whether or not they are centered around a common goal. A team is a collection of individuals who share a common goal and purpose.

Question 142

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - What is an inclusive environment?

Answer 142

An environment which is accessible and welcoming to a diverse range of users.

Question 143

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - What are the principles of inclusive design?

Answer 143

* Inclusive * Welcoming * Adaptable * Responsive * Convenient

Question 144

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - What is the difference between the moral and legal obligations of inclusive design?

Answer 144

There are several legal requirements for Developers to develop inclusive buildings, such as compliance with part M requirements and the Equality Act 2010. These are minimum standards which must be met, failure to could result in penalties or legal action. The moral obligation goes further and links to the RICS rules of conduct, by developing buildings which are truly inclusive. An example could be: On the affordable workspace, the decision was taken to install adjustable desks and workstations for people with mobility impairments. Not required but morally the right thing to do.

Question 145

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - What is Part M? Give some examples of requirements?

Answer 145

(1) Step free access to main entrances - must have a ramp with a maximum gradient of 1:12 (2) Corridor widths - Minimum width of 1.2m (3) Doorways - minimum clear opening of 775mm

Question 146

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - What is the difference beteween inclusive and universal design?

Answer 146

Inclusive Design = Design that meets the needs of as many people as possible. However it has a specific focus on specific groups, in the context of the building. Universal Design = Design is that usable by everyone without the need for adaption from the start.

Question 147

INCLUSIVE ENVIRONMENTS - How does planning impact inclusive environments?

Answer 147

The National Planning Policy Framework (NPPF) highlights that the planning process should promote healthy, inslusive and safe places. An example of this is that the City of London require Design and Access Statements, which highlight how various user groups can access and use buildings.

Question 148

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a contract?

Answer 148

An agreement between two or more parties which sets out the rights and obligations of parties, which is enforcable by law.

Question 149

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the requirements of a valid contract?

Answer 149

(1) Offer (2) Acceptance of the Offer (3) Consideration of the Offer - usually in the form of money paid for goods or services (4) Intention to form a legal agreement (5) Capacity to form a legal agreement (6) Authority to form a legal agreement?

Question 150

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the standard forms of construction contract used in the UK?

Answer 150

(1) Joint Contracts Tribunal (JCT) (2) New Engineering Contract (NEC) (3) FIDIC - International Federation of Consulting Engineers (Only answer if pushed)

Question 151

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the benefits of standard contract suites over bespoke contracts?

Answer 151

(1) Drafted by industry professionals - which leads to a balanced and fair risk allocation (2) Widely recognised and understood - makes administration of contracts easier (3) Quicker to agree as already drafted (4) Leads to a cheaper procurement process with less legal fees.

Question 152

CONTRACT PRACTICE - When would you use a bespoke contract?

Answer 152

(1) Highly complex or unique projects - such as Research and Development (2) International projects without a recognised local form (3) Client has specific or unique risk requirements

Question 153

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a JCT?

Answer 153

Joint Contracts Tribunal - a private company which provides a suite of standard construction contracts, which have been drafted by industry professionals. Also accompanied with guidance notes which highlights how and when the contracts should be used.

Question 154

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What forms of JCT are you aware of?

Answer 154

(1) JCT Major Projects Construction Contract (2) JCT Standard Building Contract (3) JCT Design & Build (4) JCT Intermediate Building Contract (5) JCT Minor Works Building Contract

Question 155

CONTRACT PRACTICE - When would you use each form of JCT?

Answer 155

(1) JCT Standard Building Contract - For large, complex projects with a fully designed scheme (traditional procurement route) (2) JCT Intermediate Building Contract - For medium sized, moderately complex projects. (3) JCT D&B Contract - Where the contractor takes both design and construction responsibility (4) JCT Minor Works Building Contract - For simple, lower risk projects over a defined period. (5) JCT Major Project Construction Contract - For very large, complex projects with experienced clients.

Question 156

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the key differences betweeen the JCT MPCC and Standard Building Contract?

Answer 156

(1) Intended Project Type - SBC is for medum-large building projects. MPCC is for very large or complex projects (2) Level of Detail - SBC is highly prescriptive with detailed procedures ; MPCC is shorter and less prescriptive, giving more flexibility to experienced parties. (3) Contract Administration - SBC uses a Contract Administrator ; MPCC uses an Employer's Representative.

Question 157

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is an NEC?

Answer 157

New Engineering Contract, a suite of contracts produced by the Institute of Civil Engineers.

Question 158

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What forms of NEC contract are you aware of?

Answer 158

(1) Engineering and Construction Contract, which is a primary works contract with various payment mechanisms. (2) Professional Services Contract

Question 159

CONTRACT PRACTICE - When would you use an NEC contract?

Answer 159

I've never used an NEC contract, however I'm aware that these contracts should be considered for projects where collaboration is key, such as public sector infrastructure or transport projects. This is because the NEC encourages early warnings, and has flexible payment mechanisms, which are more suited to long-term projects.

Question 160

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the key differences between an NEC & JCT?

Answer 160

(1) Risk: JCT's have a more traditional risk allocation between Client and Contractor; whereas the NEC is more collaborative with shared risk and incentivisation options. (2) Administration: JCT is administered by the Contract Administrator / Employers Agent, whereas the NEC is administered by the Project Manager. (3) Programme: The programme is a contractual document under the NEC, which must be regularly updated and issued to the PM for review on agreed upon intervals. In the JCT, only the start and completion date are contractual. (4) Time / Cost: Under a JCT, a Contractors eligibility for additional time and cost is separate, and dealt with under Relevant Events / Relevant Matters. Under the NEC, there are predescribed Compensation Events which can lead to both time and cost.

Question 161

CONTRACT PRACTICE -What is an Employers Agent, and how does this role differ from a Contract Administrator?

Answer 161

An Employers Agent acts as the employers representative and large, complex construction projects, usually under the JCT D&B contract or MPCC. The EA can issue instructions, certify payments and assess variations. The EA is traditionally appointed earlier on the project, helping to draft the ETRs. The CA is a more procedural role, as a neutral referee under Standard Building Contracts.

Question 162

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What factors should you consider when selecting a form of contract to use?

Answer 162

(1) The procurement strategy that has been selected. (2) The specific project in question, size, nature, and the clients risk / quality requirements (3) The expertise and experience of the client. (4) Familarity and market apettite.

Question 163

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What insurances are you aware of?

Answer 163

(1) Construction All Risks - A comprehensive insurance policy covering physical loss or damage to a construction project during the construction period. (2) Latent Defects - An insurance policy which provides protection against latent defects in the design or construction, which may not be immediately clear at completion. (3) Public Liability - An insurance policy which provides protection against claims made by third parties that occur as a result of a project. (4) Professional Indeminity - A mandatory insurance policy for all RICS firms which protect against claims of negligence, errors or omissions in their professional services. (5) Employers Liability - An insurance policy which protects against claims made by employees who suffer injury, illness or death as a result of their work.

Question 164

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a warranty?

Answer 164

A form of guarentee issued by a contractor or manufacturer that the service or product offered will perform its intended purpose. Provides legal recourse for the Client if the supplier or contractor fails to deliver the works to an agreed standard.

Question 165

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What forms of warranty are you aware of?

Answer 165

(1) Contractor Warranty - A contractual guarentee given by the contractor that the works will be carried out in accordance with the contract documents. (2) Product Warranty - A contractual guarentee that a specific product will perform against its intended purpose. (3) Collateral Warranty - A separate legal agreement that extends the rights and obligations of a contractor, consultant or subcontractor to a third party.

Question 166

CONTRACT PRACTICE - Why was a JCT D&B selected on 1ES?

Answer 166

(1) Mainly due to the procurement strategy that was selected, which was based on the clients requirements for risk allocation, and programme speed. (2) Transfer the risk and design of the works to the contractor (3) Relatively inexperienced client, so D&B is a more standard form with less requirement for client expertise.

Question 167

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is the second stage in a two stage procurement process?

Answer 167

The second stage in a two stage procurement process is the PCSA (pre-construction services agreement). It is after the preferred contractor has been selected, who then provide pre construction services, including (1) Reviewing and completing the clients design (2) Review construction logistics and buildability issues (3) Establish a programme for the works (4) Agree contract sum on a staged basis (5) Agree contract requirements.

Question 168

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What contractual documents did you help produce on 1ES?

Answer 168

The JCT D&B was split out into 3 volumes: (1) The Contract Particulars (2) Employers Requirements (3) Contractors Proposals. I fed into the drafting an agreement of the ER's. Specifically, I helped produce the: (1) Employers Technical Requirements (2) Third Party Agreements (3) Soft Landing Process

Question 169

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What did you specifically do when pulling together the relevant contractual documents within the Employers Requirements?

Answer 169

(1) Worked with the Employers Agent and my Project Director during the second stage to establish what documents needed to be included (2) Produced a tracker which highlighted what documents were established, who was responsible for producing these, and when these needed to be produced by to give the contractor enough time to review (3) Chaired weekly Client Team meetings to check in on status (4) Helped draft with my Director the ETR document.

Question 170

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are ETRs, and what was included in your ETRs?

Answer 170

(1) Employers Technical Requirements - these outline the minimum requirements that the employer expects, and the Contractor must adhere to in their Contractors Proposals (2) Included: (A) A description of the works and the project and Building Summary (B) Technical Requirements, including floor to ceiling heights, structural grid layouts, and occupancy requirements for WC provision and MEP servicing (C) Sustainability accreditations that the Contractor would have to comply with (D) Testing, commissioning and handover requirements

Question 171

CONTRACT PRACTICE - Why was a JCT minor works contract used for the emergency drainage works?

Answer 171

(1) There was one drain which passed over a retail storage room in Liverpool Street Station. Leaks were reported by the retailer, however it was not possible to ascertain the cause from a visual survey. Importantly the same NWR isolations and possession requirements did not apply because it was not within 3m of the tracks. (2) A standard form of contract needed to be used, as this enabled the works to proceed quicker as opposed to drafting a bespoke agreement. (3) The JCT Minor Works was chosen as this enabled a variation mechanism, meaning that following confirmation of what the issue was, an instruction could be issued to the contractor following the initial survey, saving additional costs for a new agreement.

Question 172

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What insurances were relevant to the 1ES contract?

Answer 172

(1) Construction All Risks (2) Professional Indemnity Insurance as the Contractor was providing design services (3) Third Party Liability - Required under the Basic Asset Protection Agreement with Network Rail.

Question 173

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What warranties were relevant to the 1ES contract?

Answer 173

(1) Collateral Warranties - between the Client and the Subcontractors (2) Product Warranties - Various, namely a product warranty for new drainage lining and waterproofing products.

Question 174

CONTRACT PRACTICE - Why did you recommend a D&B contract on 1FA?

Answer 174

(1) Based on the procurement route which was chosen - which was a single stage design and build, where the contractor would undertake both the design and construction simultaneously. Based on the clients brief of finishing the project quickly to return the vacant floor back to market asap. (2) Client did not want to employ a vast technical team, and instead wanted a single point of responsibility for all design and construction elements.

Question 175

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is sectional completion?

Answer 175

A contractual mechanism whereby a section / portion of the works are completed and handed over at different times, rather than waiting for the entire project to be finished.

Question 176

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the minimum requirements for sectional / practical completion in the JCT suite of contracts?

Answer 176

The minimum requirements (which may be amended or expanded on under specific contracts) are: (1) The works must be substantially complete, so the works can be used for their intended purpose. Minor works or snags are permitted. (2) Compliance with Statutory Requirements (E.g. planning) (3) Safety - the employer can safely occupy and use the works (4) Practical Completion Certificate issued.

Question 177

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What did you do in the sectional completion process on 1ES?

Answer 177

(1) Pre-determined sectional completion of a retail unit. (2) Identified, with the Employers Agent, the contractual requirements for Sectional Completion to be issued. This included: (A) Substantial completion of the works (B) Contractor issuing their notice of completion (C) As-built drawings, O&Ms and HSF issued/ (D) List of snagging items (E) CMT compliance statements (F) Issuance of Sectional Completion certificate (3) Once established, I produced a sectional completion checklist, attributed action holders, and required completion dates. (4) Scheduled site walks with the CMT.

Question 178

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a defects rectification period?

Answer 178

The period whereby the contractor is contractually obliged to return to site and rectify defects during the defects liability period. This is traditionally 12 months after Practical Completion.

Question 179

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What was the defect rectification period on 1ES? What did you do?

Answer 179

The Defect Rectification Period was 12 months from the issuance of Sectional Completion. I ensured that the Contractor was aware of the period, and ensured that the Employers Agent was managing a defects register. Following completion, the tenant confirmed there was an issue with the access control. I raised this with the EA, who confirmed that this was a valid defect under the contract. They then issued a written notice of defect, and established the timescales by which they needed to come back and rectify. I ensured that the tenant was kept up to date throughout.

Question 180

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What did you do when negotiating and recommending consultant appointments on 1ES?

Answer 180

(1) Recommending the CMT appointments on 1ES - client in experienced so outlined the requirement to have this scope. (2) Talk through negotiation example of MEP CMT.

Question 181

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are LADs? What do you need to do to levy LADs?

Answer 181

Liquidated Ascertained Damages - pre-determined estimates of actual loss to the Client, in the event that the Contractor fails to complete the works by the Completion Date. To levy LADs, the EA must: (1) Confirm that the completion date has passed, and no relevant event has occured. (2) Once ratified, the CA / EA must issue a non-completion certificate, and a witholding notice to the Contractor. (3) Usually levied via the pay less mechanism.

Question 182

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a relevant event?

Answer 182

A Relevant Event is recognised event which if occured, entitles the Contractor to additional time under the Contract. If a Relevant Event occurs, the EA must issue an Extension of Time which sets a new completion date, establishes a new baseline from which LADs can be levied. Standard Relevant Events include: (1) Employer Caused Delays or instructions (2) Statutory Authority Delays (3) Force Majeure (including panedmics)

Question 183

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a relevant matter?

Answer 183

A Relevant Matter is a recognised event which entitles the Contractor to additional cost (captured under a Loss and Expense Claim) under the Contract. These include, failure to give the contractor possession to site, or delay in issuing instructions.

Question 184

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is the difference between a collateral warranty and a TPR?

Answer 184

- A collateral warranty is a separate agreement that gives a third party direct rights against a contractor or consultant, which can provide direct enforceable obligations. - For example, a collateral warranty is often agreed between a Client and a Subcontractor which means that the client can enforce contractual terms with the subcontractor without being party to it. - Importantly, collateral warranties can establish different terms than under the main contract, for example extended liability periods. - A third party right is a statutory mechanism that allows a third party to enforce specific rights under the main contract without being a signatory. - For example, a Tenant can directly call for defects to be rectified. - Importantly, third party rights are limited to what the contract or statute allows.

Question 185

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is an Extension of Time? What is the process of agreeing to an EOT?

Answer 185

An EOT is when a Relevant Event occurs under the Contract which entitles a Contractor to additional time (but not cost). This sets a new completion date, and baseline from which LADs can be levied. (1) Notice of Delay issued as soon as reasonably practicable after becoming aware of a delay. (2) Contractor submits an EOT claim, including the Event, dates impacted, and impact on overall programme (3) EA assesses the claim to understand whether a Relevant Event has occured, and request additional information if required. EA has 8-weeks to do this under the JCT 2024. (4) If a Relevant Event has occured, the EA issues an Extension of Time, and sets a new completion date.

Question 186

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the key changes made to the JCT suite of contracts in 2024?

Answer 186

(1) Inclusion of pandemics as a Relevant Event (2) Removal of gendered language througout the suite of documents (3) Reduces timescales by which the EA has to asssess a Contractors Notice of Delay from 12 - 8 weeks.

Question 187

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is assignment?

Answer 187

When the benefits of a contract are assigned to a new party. Importantly, the obligations remain with the existing entity.

Question 188

CONTRACT PRACTICE - When can a contract be terminated?

Answer 188

(1) Contractor fails to comply with the obligations under the contract and fails to correct them within 4 weeks. (2) The Contractor has assigned or changed any rights within the contract, unless the contract specifically allows for assignment (3) Legal ownership of the Contractor has changed.

Question 189

CONTRACT PRACTICE - How is a contract executed?

Answer 189

Two main ways: (1) Under Hand - Agreements signed by an authorised individual. No witness required. Limitation period of 6-years. (2) Executed as a Deed - A more formal legal agreement, expressed clearly as a deed, and must be signed by 2 authorised signatories, or by a single director in the presence of a witness. Limitation period of 12-years.

Question 190

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What amendments were made to contracts you have worked on?

Answer 190

JCT D&B with Multiplex: (1) Allocation of structure risk (2) Payment from 14-28 days from the due date

Question 191

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What are the different insurance options under a JCT?

Answer 191

Insurance Option A - Contractor Arranged Insurance - Contractor is responsible for taking out and maintaining insurance on the works during construction Insurance Option B - Employer - Arranged Insurance - Employer arranges and maintains insurance Insurance Option C - Joint Insurance

Question 192

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is a loss and expense claim?

Answer 192

A loss and expense claim is when a Relevant Matter has occured under the Contract, which entitles the Contractor to additional money under the Contract. For example: Disruption caused by works being carried out by the Client.

Question 193

CONTRACT PRACTICE - What is the process of reviewing a loss and expense claim?

Answer 193

(1) Contractor must notify for the EA as soon as practical after being aware of the Event. (2) Contractor must submit a detailed Loss an Expense claim, with a breakdown of the costs and supporting documentation (3) EA reviews the claim and verifies whether it is a relevant matter under the contract (4) EA agrees the claim. If not agreed, adjudication used. (5) Once agreed, the L&e is included in the next interim payment.

Question 194

PROJECT BRIEF - What is a project brief?

Answer 194

A project brief outlines the clients objectives for a project and how it will be acheived.

Question 195

PROJECT BRIEF - What are the components of a project brief?

Answer 195

(1) Background and Business Case (2) Project Objectives (3) Quality Requirements (4) Budget Requirements (5) Programme Requirements (6) Stakeholder Summary (7) Risks and Constraints (8) Governance & Decision Making

Question 196

PROJECT BRIEF - What is the role of the PM in forming the project brief?

Answer 196

PM has a key role in: (1) Identifying the contents of the brief (2) Organising workshops to capture stakeholder requirements (3) Advise on objectives and test clients requirements (4) Document the brief formally (5) Communicate with the project team (6) Monitor compliance.

Question 197

PROJECT BRIEF - What is a Change Control procedure?

Answer 197

A formal procedure used to manage, assess and approve changes to the project brief.

Question 198

PROJECT BRIEF - What was the process of establishing the project brief on 1TS?

Answer 198

- My Company were appointed at RIBA Stage 1. I joined the project midway through Stage 2. - I had several workshops with the Client Team to establish what the project objectives were. Simply, these were to: (1) Deliver a high-quality affordable workspace to comply with a S106 requirement (2) Deliver it prior to March 2024 (3) Within a budget of £3m (4) Focus on sustainability, targetting a fit-out embodied carbon score of less than 180kgCO2e/m2 - I ensured that all relevant stakeholders fed into the brief, including the Building Management Team, Leasing Agents, and the Client sustainability team - I, with my director, provided input onto potential procurement strategies in line with the clients programme requirements - Once agreed, I documented the brief, got it signed by the Client, and issued copies to the relevant members of the design team.

Question 199

PROJECT BRIEF - What was included in the project brief?

Answer 199

(1) Background and project summary - highlighting the requirements as outlined in the S106 condition (2) Project Objectives - across time, quality and cost (3) Summary of key stakeholders (4) Governance and Change Control Procedure (5) Procurement Strategy

Question 200

PROJECT BRIEF - How did you ensure clarity with the project team on the brief?

Answer 200

* I ensured that the relevant members of the team fed into the brief, including the design team. * Once the brief was established, I ensured that the key stakeholders physically signed the brief to ensure clarity on its objectives * I organised a workshop with the project team where I presented the relevant sections of the brief * I issued a physical and digtal copy of the brief for future reference.

Question 201

PROJECT BRIEF - What is a Project Execution Plan? What was included on the PEP on 1TS?

Answer 201

A formal document which outlines the operational day-to-day processes of how the project will be run in order to comply with the objectives outlined in the brief. The PEP included: (1) Introduction (2) Summary of Project Brief (3) Summary of Project Scope (4) Summary of Key Stakeholders (5) Project Admin - Including, organogram, communication protocal, and reporting protocols. (6) Change Control Procedure (7) Programme

Question 202

PROJECT BRIEF - What was the change control procedure on 1TS?

Answer 202

- Having frozen the project brief at the end of Stage 2, I developed the change control procedure. The process was: 1) Change was raised by member of the design team / client 2) Log was raised on the change tracker I managed 3) Impact was assessed - QS reviewed cost impact, PM reviewed potential programme changes 4) Recomended whether the change should be approved / rejected 5) Approval / Rejection.

Question 203

PROJECT BRIEF - Talk me through the changes raised during the PCSA on 1ES?

Answer 203

(1) Contractor proposed VE change - changing the TGU to DGU on elements of the facade in the retail arcade. Contractor confirmed this would reduce the CSA by c.£500k (2) Once change received, I ensured this was reviewed by the relevant members of the project team, including architect, facade consultant, MEP consultant, sustainability consultant (3) Highlighted that this would have brought a saving, and there would be no physical alteration. However would have had an impact on operational performance and NABERS rating (key proponents of the Clients brief) (4) Compiled the accompanying information and submitted to client for review. (5) Change rejected.

Question 204

PROJECT BRIEF - How does the project brief change during the RIBA stages?

Answer 204

RIBA Stage 0 (Strategic Definition) - Establish the clients requirements via the business case. Establish the strategic brief. RIBA Stage 1 (Preparation and Brief) - Client requirement are refined, options are analysed, and the initial project brief is drafted RIBA Stage 2 (Concept Design) - Project team validates requirements, budget and programme and the brief is frozen. RIBA Stage 3 Onwards - Brief becomes the reference guide by which success is measured.

Question 205

PROJECT BRIEF - Give me an example of a change that was raised on the AW?

Answer 205

(1) During Stage 3 - client requested that an additional meeting room was installed, due to a request from a prospective AW provider. (2) I tasked the team with undertaking an analysis - this would require an additional 2-week design process, and the QS confirmed it would likely cost an additional £100k in construction costs (3) Compiled the evidence and issued to the Client for review. (4) Client approved change, as it was a requirement by the tenant and complied with the project brief requirements for leasing the space.

Question 206

PROGRAMMING - What is a programme?

Answer 206

A tool used to measure, track and visually demonstrate the route to completion of a project.

Question 207

PROGRAMMING - What are the key components of a programme?

Answer 207

Activities - Specific actions that need to happen to complete the works. Interdependencies - The order of which activities need to happen. Durations - How long each activity is likely to take.

Question 208

PROGRAMMING - What programme techniques are you aware of?

Answer 208

GANTT charts - visual programme technique which posits a programme on a graph in a visual way. On the Y axis you have the activities, and on the X axis you have the durations. PERT - Programme Evaluation Review Technique - a more detail technique where activities are representated by nodes and logic links are applied to each to highlight the interdepencies between each activity.

Question 209

PROGRAMMING - What are the benefits of GANTT charts over PERT?

Answer 209

GANTT charts are visually easier to read, and can help simplify long term programmes over many years.

Question 210

PROGRAMMING - What are the benefits of PERT over a GANTT chart?

Answer 210

PERT is a more complex technique which focuses on the interdepencies between activiities. Better used for specific elements of a programme.

Question 211

PROGRAMMING - What is the critical path?

Answer 211

The longest sequence of dependent tasks which must be completed to finish a project. Importantly, activities on the critical path do not have any float.

Question 212

PROGRAMMING - How is the critical path identified?

Answer 212

1. List out all the project activities 2. Determine the dependencies between each task 3. Estimate the duration of each activity (using the PERT method) 4. Draw a network diagram with nodes and arcs 5. Identify the longest path (critical path)

Question 213

PROGRAMMING - What is float?

Answer 213

There are three types of float: (1) Free float - the amount of time one activity can be delayed without impacting the start date of the next activity on the programme (2) Total float - the amount of time an acitivity can be delayed without impacting the completion date of the project. (3) Terminal float - the difference between the contractors forecast completion date and the contractual completion date.

Question 214

PROGRAMMING - How can float be used?

Answer 214

Knowledge of float can help allocate resources / focus to activities with less float on the programme.

Question 215

PROGRAMMING - Talk me through producing the Strategic Programme on 1FA? (What were the key milestones, durations and activities)

Answer 215

(1) Considered the project brief, which was to deliver a refurbished CAT A floor of 30,000sqft. (2) With my Director, I identified the activities that were required, these included: (A) Appointment of the professional team (B) Procurement of Main Contractor (C) Strip Out of Existing Floorplate (D) Forecast construction duration (3) Estimated durations for each activity and reviewed with my Director (using knowledge of previous projects, and my Directors expertise) (4) Established interdepdencies between different activities (E.g. procurement required prior to main works commencement) (5) Reviewed with Director and issued to Client for review and approval.

Question 216

PROGRAMMING - How did you track construction progress on 1TS?

Answer 216

Three main ways: (1) Review of contractors construction programme and dropline which was issued on a monthly basis. Reviewed this against the baseline established in the contract programme (2) On site review to highlight any activities that were not proceeding in line with contractors programme. (3) Earned Value Analysis reviewing the Contractors cashflow against actual expenditure.

Question 217

PROGRAMMING - Were works ever behind programme? What did you do?

Answer 217

* Installation of first fix services and containment for sprinklers was due to complete on the contractors programme, but 1/3 of floorplate was significantly behind programme * Ascertained whether on critical path - it was so could lead to programme delay (due to interdependence with commissioning and BCO sign off) * Interrogated cause of delay with contractor - due to supply chain issues and a week delayed of delivery. * Interrogated contractual position - contractor risk, so no relevant event and contractor had a duty to mitigate to their best efforts. * Discussed mitigation measures with Contractor - backshift working to install once delivered. Resequencing so pipework could start to be installed on the 2/3rd of floorplate where they were installed * Checked in to see if succesful at next review.

Question 218

PROGRAMMING - Talk me through producing the party wall programme on 1ES?

Answer 218

* Reviewed with the Party Wall Surveyor which works would need to have a party wall award - this was namely removal of facade elements which abuted the neighbouring building * Reviewed the main contractors programme to understand when these works were programmed. Third party approvals were a client risk. * Established a set of milestones when the PW awards would need to be in place to allow the works to commence - allowed one month float to enable delays. * Highlighted what was required to enable awards - method statement for works and design information for temporary waterproofing * Highlighted likely review timescales. * Produced a GANTT chart and issued to the relevant personnel who would need to provide informaiton.

Question 219

PROGRAMMING - Talk me through producing the programme analysis on 1FA?

Answer 219

* During feasibility study, client was reviewing whether to proceed with a refurbished CAT A or CAT B option. * The client were going to decide which option based on three criteria (1) Cost (2) Leasing Implication (3) Programme duration * Produced two strategic programmes - highlighted the CAT A option would complete 8 weeks faster than the the CAT B option.

Question 220

PROGRAMMING - Talk me through the acceleration analysis on 1TS?

Answer 220

* Adjoining retail unit was due to start trading 1 month prior to the projects PC. * Client wanted to understand whether there was any possibility for completing the works in line with the retail unit, to mitigate impacts of construction works on day-to-day trading * Reviewed with Contractor, who highlighted that they could speed up the works by 2 weeks, at a cost of c.£100k. This could be done by: (1) Additional resource on site (2) Working backshifts and on the weekends (3) Resequencing activities so the joinery installation would be undertaken at the same time as the commissioning activities. * I captured this, and highlighted the risks of acceleration, namely that there was a risk of poorer quality, and H&S risks due to backshift working. Importantly, there was also an increased commissioning risk, as this would be done whilst the joinery was being installed, which could negatively impact the process (dust free environment required) * Client decided not to proceed due to risks and required expenditure. Stakeholder engagement strategy adopted instead.

Question 221

PROGRAMMING - What is a forward pass?

Answer 221

The process of calculating the earliest possible start and finish times for each task in the project. Process: (1) Start with the first task on the project. (2) Calculate the earliest start and finish date for each activity, by using the quickest programme assumption (3) Calculates the projects minimum duration

Question 222

PROGRAMMING - What is a backward pass?

Answer 222

The process of calculating the latest possible start and finish dates for each activity without delaying the project PROCESS: (1) Determine the Latest Start and Latest Finish date for each activity, without delaying completion. (2) Once produced, the Forward Pass and Backward Pass helps identify float, and the critical path

Question 223

PROGRAMMING - What is concurrent delay?

Answer 223

A situation where there are two or more independent delays to the project at the same time. Both events would have caused a delay to completion, if they were independent of each other. Typically, this is when there are two causes of delay (1) Relevant Event (2) Contractor Risk

Question 224

PROGRAMMING - What is the Party Wall Act?

Answer 224

The Party Wall etc. Act 1996 is a piece of legislation in England and Wales that provides a framework for preventing and resolving disputes relating to party walls, boundary walls, and excavations near neighbouring buildings.

Question 225

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is procurement and what is tendering?

Answer 225

Procurement = The strategic process of acquiring the goods, services, contracts or consultants necessary for a business or project to function Tendering = The bidding process to obtain the most suitable bid.

Question 226

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What factors guide the selection of a procurement strategy?

Answer 226

(1) Clients objectives when it comes to quality, cost, time (2) The specific project in question (3) Market appetite (4) Clients experience (5) Risk appetite / requirements

Question 227

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What procurement strategies are you aware of?

Answer 227

(1) Traditional - Client produces the design, usually up to stage 4. Contractor builds based on the design produced. Clear separation of responsibilities. (2) D&B - Contractor takes on both the design and construction portions of the project. Employer completes a set of ERs, which are then developed and taken on by the Contractor who delivers the CPs (3) Construction Management - A CM is employed to manage the works. Client takes out trade contracts individually. Client retains design risks. No fixed price until the end. (4) Managament Contracting - Client takes out a contract with a management contractor who then takes out various trade contracts (no direct relationship between subbies and client). Client retains design risk. No fixed price until the end.

Question 228

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

Answer 228

Traditional Advantages: (1) Client retains control of design (2) Usually fixed price if design completed adequately Disadvantages: (1) Client retains risk of design (2) Longer, no ability to overlap design and build (3) No contractor input on buildability issues D&B: Advantages: (1) Earlier contractor input if PCSA used (2) Contractor takes design risk (3) Can overlap design and construction Disadvantages: (1) No fixed price at issue of first stage tender (2) Can be more expensive due to PCSA fees (3) Less quality control CM: Advantages: (1) Client maintains control of design (2) Can overlap design and build portions (3) Can be cheaper as no MC on costs (4) Flexibility Disadvantages: (1) Requires an experienced client with expertise on management of trade contracts (2) Retains design risk (3) No fixed price until last trade contract placed

Question 229

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - Why is it important to select a procurement strategy at the start of a project?

Answer 229

(1) Sets the basis for design development - understanding how much design needs to be produced before going to tender (2) Establishes risk early on (3) Impacts programme assumptions (4) Impacts cost allocation (allowance for PCSA fees)

Question 230

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What tendering strategies are you aware of?

Answer 230

Single Stage Tendering Two Stage Tendering Restricted Tendering Open Tendering

Question 231

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is single stage tendering?

Answer 231

A tendering process where an invitation is issued to a contractor(s) to submit their final bid for the works in one stage, based on fully developed project information.

Question 232

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is two stage tendering?

Answer 232

A tendering process used to allow the early appointment of a contractor, prior to completion of all information to enable them to offer a fixed price, usually under a PCSA. First Stage = A limited appointment is agreed allowing the contractor to begin working under a PCSA. Prelims and OHPs are agreed; and potentially a target cost plan. Second Stage= A fixed price is negotiated for a contract.

Question 233

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is Open Tendering?

Answer 233

A tendering strategy where anyone can express an interest to tender (e.g. through websites such as Find a Tender_

Question 234

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is restrcited tendering?

Answer 234

A tendering strategy whereby invitations to tender are issued to a shortlist of selected contractors

Question 235

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What are the advanatages and disadvantages of each (tender)?

Answer 235

Single Stage Tender: Advantages (1) Simple and straightforward - one step to award a contract. (2) Price certainty at initial tender stage if design is sufficiently complete. Disadvantages (1) Limited contractor input on design (2) Less flexibility - any changes to the design can delay the tender or lead to variations. Two Stage Tender: Advantages: (1) Contractor input from earlier on in the process, on buildability issues, VE and logistics (2) Flexibility during the second stage Disadvantages: (1) Lack of initial cost certainty (2) More complex administration - two rounds of tendering Open Tendering: Advantages: (1) More competitive - can leader to greater competition (2) Enables tender returns from a wider pool of tenderers Disadvantages: (1) Time-consuming - preparing and evaluating bids can leader to longer tender programmes (2) Risk of inappropriate bids which are non-compliant with requirements Restrictive Tendering: Advantages: (1) Pre-qualified contractors - only contractors with proven experience are invited to tender (2) Quicker - fewer bids to evaluate Disadvantages: (1) Reduced competition may leader to higher prices (2) Potential for bias - can be influenced by relationships or subjective criteria.

Question 236

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is JV? What is Partnering? When might they be used?

Answer 236

Joint Venturing is when two or more parties come together for a specific project(s), forming an SPV (Special Purpose Vehicle). In essence they form a new company where benefits and obligations are pre-determined. JV's are typically used for large, complex projects where two or more parties have a complementary skillset (i.e. 1 Triton Square - RLAM and BL) Partnering is when two or more parties come together under a collaborative working environment for a project / series of projects. Unlike JV'ing both parties retain their unique identities, and retain the existing benefits or obligations. Partnering is typically used for long term infrastructure projects, over a long period of time. (E.g. Taylor Woodrow and TFL)

Question 237

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What procurement and tendering strategy did you propose on 1FA? Why?

Answer 237

* I recommended a single stage D&B, negotiated tender on 1FA. * I did this for two main reasons: (1) Client objectives - Client was focused on delivering at speed, and having one sole point of responsibility for design and construction. Single stage D&B, negotiating with one tenderer was the quickest route to doing so. (2) Project Context - The project was to deliver a refurbished CAT A, removing existing fit-out, validating and recomissioning of services. Importantly, this scope of works had recently been completed in one of the Clients recent projects within the Broadgate Estate, which was procured by a competitive tender.

Question 238

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - Why was a single stage D&B used on 1TS?

Answer 238

* A single stage D&B tender was used, based on Stage 4A information. * I recommended this (with my Director) for two main reasons: (1) Client Objectives - Client wanted to deliver quickly, and didn't want to go through a PCSA process given the relative size of the works (£2m construction contract). (2) Was tendered competitively to obtain a competitive price.

Question 239

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - Talk me through the tender process?

Answer 239

(1) Establishment of procurement strategy - undertaken at Stage 2 and defined with Client. (2) Compiled all relevant tender information with the QS and Design Team, including Stage 4A information, ETRs and Third Party Requirements (3) Identified a list of contractors for the long list - ascertained through the clients fit-out contractor framework (4) Issued PQQs (5) Reviewed PQQs and whittled down to the 3 most suitable contractors (6) Issued Tender Information (Form of Contract, Instruction to Tender, Design Info, Target Programme) (7) Mid-tender interviews held (8) Tender Responses received (9) Review, equalisation and recommendation (10) Appointment of Tender and Contract.

Question 240

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is a procurement strategy?

Answer 240

The process of reviewing the most appropriate procurement route, based on the project, the client, and their KPIs on programme, cost, quality and risk.

Question 241

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What is the difference between private and public sector procurement?

Answer 241

Public sector tendering is bound by more prescriptive regulation. This includes open tendering for certain sizes of projects, use of frameworks, and a slower tender process. Private sector procurement is less prescriptive and at the discretion of the client (who can use a negotiated tender for example). Nevertheless, they still need to comply with statutory legislation (Equality Act 2010; Bribery Act 2010)

Question 242

PROCUREMENT & TENDERING - What are the key regulations on procurement?

Answer 242

Equality Act 2010 ; Bribery Act 2010 Public Contract Regulations 2015 - contracts above £5.3m must be advertised on find a tender.

Question 243

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - What different leadership styles are you aware of?

Answer 243

Democratic, Authoriatrian, Laissez Faire, Paternalistic

Question 244

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - What are the key characteristics / behaviours of a leader?

Answer 244

* A good communicator * Honest * Imaginative * Charismatic * Motivator

Question 245

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - What communication tools are you aware of?

Answer 245

Organogram - Highlights all members of the project team, hierarchy and reporting structures. RACI - Highlights who is responsible, accountable, consulted and informed Communication Plan - Outlines who needs to be communicated with, when and by what means.

Question 246

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - What is Herzbergs Two Factor theory? How does knowledge of this help you?

Answer 246

A motivational theory which posits that there are two types of factors that lead to dissatisfaction and satisfaction accordingly. These are called hygiene factors - factors which must be met to prevent demotivation and motivator factors - that lead to job satisfaction. Knowledge of these is important to ensure that both factors are sufficiently being met - for example, ensuring that consultants are not being overworked and have a work-life balance (hygiene), and are being recognised and given adequate responsibility (motivator).

Question 247

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - Talk me through leading the S278 process on 1ES?

Answer 247

(1) A S278 agreement is an agreement under the Highways Act which enables a Developer to undertake works to the local highway (2) A S278 was required on 1ES to facilitate the installation of the pit lane, which was crucial for the main contractors logistics strategy (3) I established the various disciplines who were going to be required for this role (transport consultant, lawyers, contractor) (4) I established the roles and responsibilities of each consultant (5) I chaired regular meetings where I reminded the consultants of the importance of the work.

Question 248

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - Talk me through adapting your leadership approach on 1TS?

Answer 248

* During design stage, adopted a more democratic approach particularly in Stage 2 where I enabled all members of the project team to input and have their say * Once the brief was developed, and construction started I adopted a more authoritarian approach to remind everyone of the importance of completing the project in line with the clients brief.

Question 249

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - Talk me through leading the procurement of the CMT on 1ES?

Answer 249

* I led the Client first and foremost by highlighting the requirement to employ a CMT * Client was inexperienced so I had to clearly outline the importance of the role in acheiving the brief * I then led the process with my Director

Question 250

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - Talk me through leading the completion of the 10 Exchange Square project?

Answer 250

CONTEXT: * 10 Exchange Square - a 10,000sqft CAT B fit-out. I joined the project during Stage 5 and towards practical completion. ACTION: * Given the project was reaching it's conclusion, I adoped an authoriative leadership approach, to ensure that all parties adhered to the strict timescales. * I chaired weekly meetings with all parties to assess progress, highlight key risks, and ensure they were aware of their obligations. * For example, ensuring that the relevant PC checklist requirements were adhered to. * I developed a specific PC programme for the last two months, which outlined when key documents needed to be issused, such as (1) CMT Compliance Statements (2) Contractor Notice of Completion (3) PC Site Inspection (4) O&M Issue (5) Snagging and Outstanding Works Lists (6) HSF

Question 251

LEADING PEOPLE, PROJECTS AND TEAMS - Talk me through highlighting poor performance on 1ES planning?

Answer 251

CONTEXT: On One Exchange Square, I led the planning and S106 condition submission process. On the project, the planning consultant who was responsible for issuing conditions to the City of London was regularly uncontacable, and would often turn up to meetings unprepared without having reviewed key documentation. ACTION: * I informally approached the planning consultant and raised my concerns. * The planning consultant confirmed they had just been given a secondary project, meaning they had a stretched workload and were struggling. * I then formally raised this to the individuals line manager, and outlined the concerns and requested that additional supporting resource was employed.`

Question 252

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are the RIBA Stages?

Answer 252

RIBA Stage 0 - Strategic Definition RIBA Stage 1 - Preparation and Brief RIBA Stage 2 - Conceptual Design RIBA Stage 3 - Spatial Coordination RIBA Stage 4 - Technical Design RIBA Stage 5 - Construction and Manufacture RIBA Stage 6 - Handover RIBA Stage 7 - In Use

Question 253

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What legislation and regulation are you aware of that impact the Development of Buildings?

Answer 253

(1) Building Regulations - Governed by the Building Act 1984 - set the minimum standards that must be met in the design and construction of building (2) CDM 2015 - Ensures that health, safety and wellbeing is championed during the design and development of buildings (3) Town and Country Planning Act 1996 - Governs the use of land, and physical characteristics of buildings

Question 254

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are the key components of a building?

Answer 254

(1) Substructure (2) Superstructure (3) Facade and Cladding (4) MEP and Servicing (5) Fit-Out

Question 255

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are the different specifications a building can be delivered to?

Answer 255

Shell and Core - Frame and external elements of a building CAT A - Installation of basic services, inc. RAF, emergency lighting, sprinklers, WC and Landlord Facilities CAT A + - CAT A, plus meeting rooms, tea points etc. CAT B - Installation of partitions, layouts and finishes Turnkey - Fully finished, including furniture and dressings

Question 256

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is the typical sequence of construction?

Answer 256

Assuming it is a new build: (1) Preparation of site and excavation (2) Substructure and Piling (3) Superstructure Install (4) Facade and Cladding Install (5) Install of MEP and Commissioning (6) Fit-Out

Question 257

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What facade types were used on 1ES?

Answer 257

* Three main facade types were used: (1) Unitised facade on the newly constructed West Extension (2) Stick System - on retained elements and on ground floor and retail arcade (3) Rainscreen Facade - on southern elevation adjoining neighbouring building

Question 258

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a unitised facade? Pros and Cons?

Answer 258

* Pre-fabricated panels which are manufactured offsite and come in one unit (including glazing, framing etc.) Pros: (1) Quick to install (2) Quality control easier as can be QA'd on a production line Cons: (1) Limited flexibility (2) Logistically complex, requirement for TC in most instances

Question 259

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a stick facade system? Pros and Cons?

Answer 259

* A facade type which is installed on site. Comprised of transoms, mullions and glazing which are installed piece by piece on site. Pros: (1) Flexible to make adjustments on site (2) Logistically easier to install as come in component parts Cons: (1) Can be more expensive as installed on site so higher labour costs (2) Quality control can be more complex (3) Can take longer to install

Question 260

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a rainscreen facade system?

Answer 260

* A facade type that provides protection from the rain while allowing ventilation and drainage between the cladding. * The facade is comprised of the (1) Outer cladding panels (2) Ventilated cavity which allows air to circulate and water to drain (3) Weatherproof barrier behind the cavity to protect the building cavity. Advantages: (1) Simplified replacement and maintenance as individual panels can be removed / replaced (2) Lower material costs than bespoke unitised panels Disadvantages: (1) Slower installation than unitised (2) Weather sensitivity during installation

Question 261

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are the approved documents under Building Regs?

Answer 261

A - Structure B - Fire Safety C - Site Preparation and Prevention of Contamination D - Toxic Substances E - Acoustics and Sound Separation F - Ventilation G - Sanitation H - Drainage & Waste Disposal J - Combustion and Fuel K - Protection from falling from height L - Energy and Fuel Conservation M - Access to and use of buildings O - Overheating P - Electrical Safety Q - Safety and Security R - Electronic Communications S - Electric vehicle charging T - Toilet Accommodation

Question 262

CONSTRUCTION TECH - Talk me through the surveys undertaken on 1ES?

Answer 262

* Brief specified reusing as much of existing building fabric as possible. * Design team reviewed as built drawings and highlighted that existing stick system could be reused, and external cladding system redecorated, whilst also complying with sustainability accreditations and requirement for new TGU * Discussed with design team surveys required: (1) Structural assessment of existing strongback system to understand load bearing capacity for new TGUs (2) Tensile pull out tests for cladding to ensure adequate fixing strength (3) Advanced weather testing for treated granite * Discussed with Director and populated a survey tracker * Sought approval from Client and obtained quotes

Question 263

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What performance criteria did the facade need to meet?

Answer 263

(1) Structural capacity - needed to meet a loading capacity of 85kg/m2. The strongback did this in 80% of instances, strengthening required in some instances where additional base plates mechanically fixed to the supports. (2) Tensile Pull Out Tests - 10% of fixings tested for panels on West Extension - these needed to meet a pull out strength of 3kN (3) Advanced weather testing - 25 years of advanced weather conditions, including frosting.

Question 264

CONSTRUCTION TECH - Talk me through the process of delivering the AW fit out in line with Part M?

Answer 264

* During the design stage, I undertook several reviews with the Architect, and BCO, to understand the specific requirements that Part M would require. * This highlighted three specific examples, including: (1) Level access would need to be provided to the entrance of one of the doors - a ramp was installed at the main entrance so wheelchair users could easily access the site (2) All corridors and circulate space required 900m width to allow wheelchair users to access the space (3) Provision of accessible WCs with adequate grab rails

Question 265

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What foundation types are you aware of?

Answer 265

Foundations provide support for structures, transferring the load of a building to layers of soil which have sufficient bearing capacity. Deep Foundations - such as bored or pre-cast piles Shallow Foundations - such as strip foundations, raft foundations and pad foundations.

Question 266

What are pad foundations?

Answer 266

Provide a shallow base for individual concrete or steel columns.

Question 267

What are strip foundations?

Answer 267

Provide a shallow foundation that runs continuousy along the length of a building.

Question 268

Raft foundations?

Answer 268

Provide a shallow foundation that consists of a concrete slab that spreads the load of a building across a wide area of soil

Question 269

CONSTRUCTION TECH - When would you use each foundation type?

Answer 269

Factors to consider include: (1) Load bearing capacity of soil (2) Loading of structure above (3) Structural layout of building (4) Proximity of building to others Scenarios: (1) If you are building a small domestic structure, which has low loading requirements and the soil has sufficient load bearing capacity, you would use shallow. (2) If you were building a tall structure, on a site with low load bearing capacity of the soil, you would use deep.

Question 270

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a substructure?

Answer 270

All elements of work that are undertaken below the damp proof course that provides the basis for the superstructure to be constructed upon.

Question 271

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a superstructure? What types are you aware of?

Answer 271

The part of a building or structure that is above the foundation inc. walls, floors and columns. * Concrete superstructure * Steel superstructure * Timber superstructure * Masonry superstructure

Question 272

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are the advatages / disadvantages are you aware of?

Answer 272

Concrete (Advantages): (1) Inherent fire protection characterists (2) Inherent acoustic characteristics Concrete (Disadvantages): (1) Environmental Impact (2) Slow to construct due to curing times Steel (Advantages): (1) Strong strength to weight ratio (2) Can be pre-fabricated so quick to install Steel (Disadvantages): (1) Needs to be protected against fire (2) Needs to be protected against rust and corrosion Timber (Advantages): (1) Sustainable (2) Aesthetic Timber (Disadvantages): (1) Vulnerabe to decay (2) Insurance issues Masonry (Advantages): (1) Fire resistant (2) Thermal Insulation Masonry Disadvantage (1) High labour costs (2) Time - not able to pre-fab.

Question 273

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is CLT? What is Glulam?

Answer 273

CLT = Cross Laminated Timber. Engineered solution where planks of timber are adhered at a cross section to each other. Glulam = Glue laminated timber. Engineered solution where planks of timber are adhered perpendicular to each other. CLT provides strngth in two directions, and is therefore more suitable for walls, floors and roofs. Glulam provides greater strength in one direction, is therefore more suitable for columns and beams.

Question 274

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is HVAC?

Answer 274

Heating Ventilation and Cooling Strategy Systems that regulate temperatures, maintain air quality and remove humidity

Question 275

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is an FCU?

Answer 275

Fan Coil Unit - small units used to heat or cool specific rooms by circulating air over hot / cold coils. Can be 2-pipe or 4-pipe.

Question 276

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is an AHU?

Answer 276

Air Handling Unit - Large system that heats, cools and ventilates entire buildings

Question 277

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is MVHR?

Answer 277

Mechanical Ventilation with Heat Recovery - Systemst that ventilate the building while recovering heat from the outgoing air

Question 278

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is VRF?

Answer 278

Variable Refrigerant Flow - a type of HVAC system where one outdoor unit can cool or heat many rooms, and it adjusts automatically how much air each room gets.

Question 279

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is an ASHP? How does it work?

Answer 279

The system uses a refrigerant that absorbs heat from the outside air (even when it’s cold). A compressor (powered by electricity) increases the temperature of that heat. The heat is then used for space heating or hot water. Although it consumes electricity, it delivers more heat energy than the electrical energy it uses (typically 3–4 times more efficient).

Question 280

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is the difference between Stage 2, Stage 3 and Stage 4 design?

Answer 280

These stages all deal with the design portion of a construction project, however they have differing focus: Stage 2 - Concept Design - Establish overall design concept, and options - include initial layouts, sketches, massing studies Stage 3 - Spatial Coordination - Refine the design, integrate the various components - include detailed plans, elevations Stage 4 - Technical Design - Prepare for construction, produce coordinated drawings, specifications and construction details

Question 281

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is the building safety act? How does it impact you?

Answer 281

The BSA is a piece of government legislation introduced following the Grenfell Tower FIre (2017) to improve safety in high rise and complex residential buildings. Primarily applies to residential buildings over 18 meters or 7 storeys. Key features include: 1) Defines accountable persons who are responsible for safety compliance and risk management 2) Gateway Approach - Three gateways (Gateway 1 - Planning) (Gateway 2 - Construction) (Gateway 3 - Occupation) 3) Introduced the role of a Building Safety Regulator to ensure compliance, who has the powers to enforce remediation, stop works and levy fines. 4) Golden Thread of information - duty holders must maintain a digital record of building safety information.

Question 282

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is the difference between the BSPD and the CDMPD?

Answer 282

The BSA PD focuses on ensuring buildings are designed and constructed in line with building regulations. Only required for HRBs. The CDM PD focuses on ensuring buildings are designed and managed in line with CDM. Applies generally to all projects.

Question 283

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is cladding?

Answer 283

A non-load bearing envelope which protects a building from weather conditions, and provides an aesthetic appearance. Types include: (1) Curtain Walling - A non-structural cladding system for the external walls of buildings, usually made out of glass or aluminum. (2) Sandwich Panels - Prefabricated panels with insulation materials sandwiched between two metal or composite sheets. (3) Metal Profile - Sheets of corrugated or flat metal fixed to the building's exterior. (4) Brick Slips - Thin slices of brick attached to an external wall to replicate traditional blockwock.

Question 284

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What HVAC system does your project use?

Answer 284

One Exchange Square uses an Air Handling Units on each floor to distribute conditioned air via ductwork to different zones. On the CAT A floors, a 4-pipe FCU system is used, which allows for simulatenous heating and cooling.

Question 285

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a sump pump?

Answer 285

A mechanical device installed in a low point of a building to remove water or waste, pumping the waste up and out of the building.

Question 286

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What is a fire barrier? What is a fire compartment?

Answer 286

Fire Barrier: A physical or passive system designed to prevent the spread of fire and smoke within a building. Including fire-rated plasterboard or gypsum; or firestop sealants and collars around services. Fire Compartment: A fire compartment is a section of a building separated by fire-resistant walls, floors, or barriers to prevent the spread of fire and smoke.

Question 287

CONSTRUCTION TECH - What are MMC?

Answer 287

MMC are innovative approaches to designing and assembling buildings, aimed at improving efficiency, speed, sustainability and quality. Examples, include: (1) Modular Construction - 3D modules are manufactured offsite (volumetric construction) (2) Cross-Laminated Timber (3) BIM

Question 288

SUSTAINABILITY - What is sustainability?

Answer 288

* Meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 289

SUSTAINABILITY - Why is it important in the UK construction industry?

Answer 289

The built environment is responsible for nearly 40% of global carbon emissions and raw material consumption. The industry therefore bares a significant responsibility in ensuring that the UK meets its sustainability and Net Zero objectives

Question 290

SUSTAINABILITY - What renewable technologies are you aware of? What used on your projects?

Answer 290

1. Photovolaic Panels (PV Panels) – Capture the sun’s energy and turns it into electricity 2. Wind Turbines – Turn energy from the wind into electricity. 3. Use of Green Roofs - Stormwater management, mitigation or urban air pollution and provide insulation. 4. Use of CLT 5. Reuse / retention of existing structure.

Question 291

SUSTAINABILITY - What are the key principles of sustainability?

Answer 291

Economic sustainability can be defined as being the ability of an economy, business or project to support long term economic growth without negatively impacting social, environmental or cultural aspects of the community. Social sustainability refers to creating and maintaining conditions that support the well-being of communities, both now and in the future. Environmental sustainability refers to the protection and enhancement of the natural environment.

Question 292

SUSTAINABILITY - How can these economic sustainability be acheived on a project?

Answer 292

Client Led: 1) Using life-cycle costing to evaluate costs over the entire life of an asset. 2) Investment in sustainable technologies to reduce operational costs 3) Using local labour / work forces to reduce transport costs and boost the local regional economy. Statutory Led: 1) Community Infrastructure Levy - Payments made to the local council to fund infrastructure improvements. 2) S106 Conditions

Question 293

SUSTAINABILITY - How can these social sustainability be acheived on a project?

Answer 293

Client Led: 1) Community Engagement - ensure that concerns of the local community are met and embedded. 2) Inclusive Design - Ensure buildings and public spaces are accessible to all. 3) Local Employment / Training - Upskill the local community and offer apprenticeship opportunities to locals. Statutory Led: 1) Affordable Housing Contribution 2) S106 Conditions - Such as Cultural Management Plans 3) Noisy working hours and waste reduction targets. 4) Planning Consultation

Question 294

SUSTAINABILITY - How can Environmental Sustainability be acheived on a project?

Answer 294

Client Led: 1) Targeting of sustainability accreditations - Such as NABERS, WELL, BREEAM 2) Use of renewable energy sources, such as PV Panels, Green Roofs etc. Statutory Led: 1) Setting of prescriptive targets in the planning process (e.g. retrofit first, minimum BREEAM targets, Environmental Impact Assessments.) etc.

Question 295

SUSTAINABILITY - What is the role of the PM in the sustainability process?

Answer 295

* As a PM we sit at the centre of the Development process, and therefore have the ability to influence how clients act and how they prioritise sustainability. * For example, can persuade / influence the client to sign up / target sustainability accreditations such as NABERS, BREEAM and WELL.

Question 296

SUSTAINABILITY - What is WLC? What is EC?

Answer 296

Embodied carbon is the total carbon produced in the creation of an asset, all the way through the development and construction lifecycle. Whole life carbon can be defined as the embodied carbon of a building (i.e. the total carbon produced in the development lifecycle), plus operational carbon (i.e. carbon produced in the operation of the space.)

Question 297

SUSTAINABILITY - What is WELL?

Answer 297

The WELL Building Standard is a performance-based certification system that focuses on enhancing human health and well-being in development. It is undertaken and assessed by the International Well Building Institute, and is rated on a scale of Bronze to Platinum. WELL Assesses: LAMPS ; NCMT 1) Light 2) Air 3) Mind 4) Phsycial Movement 5) Sound 6) Nourishment 7) Community 8) Materials 9) Thermal Comfort

Question 298

SUSTAINABILITY - What is NABERS?

Answer 298

National Australian Built Environment Rating System. It is a performance based sustainability rating for commercial office buildings. It was introduced to bridge the gap between design intentions and actual energy performance of buildings. NABERS assesses the energy performance of building in use. Meausred in stars - up to 6. Measured in KWH/m2/year. Targetted rates to acheive a 5 star rating is c.90KWH/m2/year.

Question 299

SUSTAINABILITY - What is BREEAM?

Answer 299

BREEAM stands for the Building Research Establishments Environmental Assessment Method. It provides a standardised framework for assessing the environmental, social and economic performance of buildings. Rated on a scale of Pass - Outstanding. BREEAM assesses the sustainability performance against multiple categories, including: WWELTH-M: 1) Waste - Construction and operational waste management 2) Water - Water consumption, efficiency and leak detection 3) Energy - Operational energy use and efficiency 4) Land Use -Biodiversity and ecological value 5) Transport - Accessibility, and low-emission transport options 6) Health & Wellbeing - Indoor air quality, lighting and comfort. 7) Materials - Sustainable sourcing of materials.

Question 300

SUSTAINABILITY - Talk me through managing the WELL process on 1ES?

Answer 300

I ran regular sessions with the project team during the Stage 4, to ensure the project complied with WELL requirements. I ensured that the project complied with all mandatory targets, such as: A01 - Ensuring compliance with indoor air quality standards W01 - Ensure potable water quality meets quality standards N01 - Provide access to fruits and vegetables. As well as, several targeted credits, such as: A07 - Enhanced air quality - Installation of real time air quality monitors in front of house areas M05 - Active Design Strategies - provision of sit-stand desks in the FM areas. I ensured that these requirements were included within the contractual requirements for tender.

Question 301

SUSTAINABILITY - Talk me through reviewing CPCs during the PCSA? How did you review against sustainability?

Answer 301

CONTEXT: During the PCSA on One Exchange Square, the Contractor was tasked with issuing some VE proposals to help limit project spend and ensure the budget was maintained. One such proposal was by changing some of the projects triple glazed units to double glazed units. ACTION: * Once the submission was received, I, alongside the relevant consultant team (QS. MEP engineer etc.) reviewed the VE proposal against the Clients brief objectives (programme, cost, sustainability accreditation impacts) * The QS highlighted there would be a c.30% upfront cost saving for the change. * However, the MEP engineer said that the change would likely impact the projects NABERS ratings, as the DGU had about double the U-value of the TGU. This would increase the HVAC requirements of the builidng more generally, which would lead to higher operational costs, as well as requiring more intense energy requirements which would impact the projects targted NABERS accrediation * I presented the findings of the analysis to the Client against their objectives with my project Director, recommending that the change was not pursued, which was accepted by my Client.

Question 302

SUSTAINABILITY - Talk me through the process of reusing granite for new terrazzo tiles?

Answer 302

CONTEXT: The existing building had several marble features in WCs and lift lobby areas. The decision was taken to reuse these materials in the new building. ACTION: With the architect, we drew up a scope of services that included the careful dismantle of the existing material, which was then transported to a terrazzo company in Shoreditch, who who crush the white marble down to form the base, whereas the green marble would be retained and installed in organic pieces within the tile. This significantly reduced the embodied carbon associated.

Question 303

SUSTAINABILITY - What is the difference between economic and social sustainability?

Answer 303

Whilst the two are not mutually exclusive and reinforce each other, they focus on different aspects. Specifically, social sustainability focuses on people, communities and societal wellbeing; whereas economic sustainability focuses on financial viability and long term economic health. However, they can interact, with certain measures reinforcing both strands of sustainability: E.g. Use of local workers can bring both an economic and social benefit.

Question 304

SUSTAINABILITY - What are the key pieces of legislation which impact sustainability?

Answer 304

Climate Change Act 2008 -> Cut greenhouse gas emissions and reach net zero by 2050. Building Regulations Part L -> Sets energy efficienct standards for buildings Energy Performance Certificates -> Requires EPC for new, sold or rented buildings. MEES requires all offices to acheive an EPC of C from 2025. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Regulations 2017 - Require certain types of projects to assess and report their environmental impacts before planning permission is granted.

Question 305

SUSTAINABILITY - What does the RICS say about sustainability?

Answer 305

One of the RICS key strategic objectives is to lead and influence on Sustainability. It does this by providing training (mandatory from next year) WLCA Methods, and Sustainability reports. The 2025 sustainabiity report was issued very recently and urges policymakers to standardize carbon assessment, enforce energy-efficient building regulations, and support financial mechanisms. It emphasizes the need for skills development, projecting 350,000 new UK roles to meet net-zero targets, and encourages global collaboration for zero-emission buildings by 2030.

Question 306

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What are stakeholders?

Answer 306

Stakeholders are individuals or groups who have an interest in the project because they are involved in the work or affected by the outcomes. There are three main classification: 1) People and groups doing the work - PM, Client, Contractor, Consultants 2) People affected by the work - Third parties, residents, etc. 3) Statutory Undertakers - Local authorities, utilities, LFB etc.

Question 307

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What opportunities / challenges can stakeholders bring?

Answer 307

Advantages: (1) Funding (2) Planning application support (3) Marketing support (4) Increase tenant interest Disadvantages: (1) Oppose planning (2) Misaligned objectives (3) Negative press (4) Lead to planning / programme delays.

Question 308

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What is a stakeholder engagement strategy?

Answer 308

A structured plan that outlines how the project team will identify, communicate and manage relationships with stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle.

Question 309

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What does the RICS Practice Information on Stakeholder Management say?

Answer 309

RICS Guidance note on stakeholder engagement – highlights the key principles of stakeholder engagement Key principles includes: 1) Communicate regularly 2) Consult early and often 3) Plan the stakeholder engagement 4) Compromise with stakeholders 5) Take responsibility

Question 310

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - Talk me through producing the stakeholder engagement strategy on 1ES?

Answer 310

* On One Exchange Square, following the signing of the main works contract, I undertook an analysis of the projects stakeholder engagement strategy with the comms consultant and stakeholder engagement lead. * A stakeholder identification excercise was undertaken, which highlighted the wide variety of stakeholders who were involved in the project, either because they were involved in it, or impacted by its outcomes. The excerise was focused on third party stakeholders. * Once these were identified, I used an interest vs influence grid to highlight their level, and adopt a communication strategy as a result. A stakeholder was deemed to have high influence if they had, the ability to either directly or indirectly impact the works, either through providing approvals to work, or providing objections. A stakeholder was deemed to have high interest, based on previous experience.

Question 311

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - Talk me through engaging with these stakeholders?

Answer 311

NWR - High influence, they had an approval role for works in the vicinity of the Station. However they were less interested in the general progress of the works. Targeted communication strategy, focusing on key approval items (such as Tower Crane install, or works within a 3m radius of their asset) LUL - High influence, low interest. Approval role on installation of some temporary fins in the vicinity of their Vents. Targetted communication specific to that issue. BL - High influence, high interest. Regular communication on a weekly basis.

Question 312

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - Any issues with engaging with stakeholders?

Answer 312

CONTEXT: One Exchange Square, during the demolition and enabling phase there were noise complaints from an adjoining tenant. * They complained about the noisy working hours being employed on the site, and that this was impacting their business operations. * I discussed their concerns, and they explained they were a trading firm, who were busiest between 08:00 - 10:00. * Discussed this with the Contractor - applied for a temporary adjustment to the noisy working hours w/ the COL on a trial basis.

Question 313

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - Talk me through producing the organogram for internal stakeholders on 1ES?

Answer 313

CONTEXT: * On One Exchange Square, the Client Team had a number of different stakeholders who had varying roles and remits on the project. This included: (1) Development Team - Day to Day Client Lead (2) Sustainability Team (3) Insurance Team (4) Asset Team (5) Communications / Marketing Team * Whilst traditionally, we would only engage with the Development Team, it was important that the other internal stakeholders were informed and updated on their key workstreams. * To assist this, I produced an organigram which outlined who worked for each team, and what information they should be consulted and informed on

Question 314

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - How do you identify stakeholders?

Answer 314

(1) Property Matters report - produced by the lawyers which details parties with a land interest (2) Stakeholder Mapping excercise - ask open questions within the project team (3) Review regulatory authprity interest (4) Open stakeholder engagement events

Question 315

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What are the four steps of stakeholder management?

Answer 315

1. Identify Stakeholders 2. Assess their interest and influence 3. Develop communication and management plans 4. Engage and influence stakeholders

Question 316

STAKEHOLDER MANAGEMENT - What stakeholder engagement tools are you aware of?

Answer 316

RACI ; Organogram ; Interest vs. Influence

Question 317

MANAGING PROJECTS - Why is it important to establish appropriate processes to ensure tasks are carried out in the correct sequence?

Answer 317

The RIBA stages ensures a logical progression of design, with each action building on the outputs of the previous one. It also: 1) Helps to manage resources efficiently - ensuring specialists are engaged at the right time 2) Reduces risk - ensuring compliance with statutory approvals, planning permissions etc.

Question 318

MANAGING PROJECTS - What tools can be used?

Answer 318

1) Develop a comprehensive strategic programme, showing all tasks and dependencies 2) Gateway / Milestone Approval Process - formal sign offs at the end of each RIBA stage before progressing to the next stage. 3) Regular communication and coordination with the project team.

Question 319

MANAGING PROJECTS - When might it be required to deviate from the RIBA Plan of Work?

Answer 319

There are a number of situations where it may be recommended to deviate away, to respond to practical, financial or strategic constraints. For example: 1) Early contractor involvement to understand buildability issues 2) Procurement of long-lead in items to mitigate delay - e.g. procurement of ASHPs

Question 320

MANAGING PROJECTS - How can you manage cost, time and quality?

Answer 320

1) Time - Creation of a detailed programme, which is regularly interrogated. Undertake the CPA (Critical Path Analysis) to highlight route to completion. 2) Cost Control - Establish a budget. Produce cost reports and cost plans to assess performance against the budget 3) Quality - Site inspections, employ a CMT, agree a list of suppliers.

Question 321

MANAGING PROJECTS - Talk me through managing the CapEx on 1ES?

Answer 321

CONTEXT: * I managed the Development CapEx which had been established with the Client @ the outset of the project ACTION: * On a monthly basis I would approve consultant invoices against their reported cashflow, highlighting spend to date, against approved budget and forecast spend. * I would also track project contingency, and highlight any early warnings to the Client

Question 322

MANAGING PROJECTS - Talk me through managing the risk register on 1ES?

Answer 322

* I held regular risk workshops during Stage 4 and kept the risk register up to date * The risk register listed out the key risks, rated the severity of each risk, by assessing each risk on a scale of 1-3 by assessing its (1) Likelihood (2) Cost Impact (3) Programme (4) Value Impact. Maximum risk score was 12. * Highlighted the specific risk owner, as well as the mitigation measures to reduce the risk Examples of risks that were captured include: * Commercial Risks - Provisional Sum expenditure * Construction Risks - As-built structure not matching with archive information * Third Party Risks - PW awards. NWR Approval etc. * Programme Risks - Procurement risks

Question 323

MANAGING PROJECTS - Talk me through managing the survey process? How did this mitigate issues

Answer 323

CONTEXT: * One Exchange Square is a cut and carve, with significant portions being retained, inc. 90% of structure and 50% of the facade/ * The design team had based their design on the available archive information, however this was from the 80's so there was a risk that this information would contain errors or changes, which would require design changes. ACTION: * I discussed this with the Design Team at regular DTMs, and established a full surveys scope and tracker. * I presented the list to the Client, and recommended that a suite of surveys be undertaken immediately following vacant possession (specifically, surveys to the retained stick facade system, and structural layout) * The client approved the recommendation, and I appointed a variety of surveyors to undertake surveys following the strip-out. * A point-cloud survey was undertaken on a level by level basis. Once received, I shared the output with the design team, which highlighted that several elements in the as-built drawings were not correct (for example several instances where beams were installed were there should have been trusses). * This enabled the design team enough time during the Stage 4 to update their drawings (particularly servicing layouts), which resulted in cost and programme saving.

Question 324

MANAGING PROJECTS - Talk me through producing the DRM on 1TS?

Answer 324

* On 1 Triton Square, at the commencement of Stage 2, I produced a DRM which outlined who was responsible, accountable, consulted and informed of all design elements. * This was across the architect, MEP engineer, structural engineer and acoustic consultant * I produced the draft, ensured it was consistent with each consultants appointment, and shared with the design team for comment, review and agreement. * Once agreed, I issued to the Client for review, and inputted into the PEP.

Question 325

MANAGING PROJECTS - What is the role of the PM? How does this change through each stage?

Answer 325

A project manager is the person / organisation who has the overall responsibility for the successful completion of a project throughout the RIBA stages they have been appointed on. It is their job to lead, coordinate and control a project to ensure it meets the client's objectives.

Question 326

MANAGING PROJECTS - What does the RICS say on risk management?

Answer 326

The RICS Management of RIsk Guidance Note 2015 (Updated to a practice information) in March 2025. It defines what a risk is, systems to identify and assess risks, and how you can respond to them. Key principles include: 1) Defines risk as an uncertain event that has an effect on at least one project objective 2) Details a risk management process - identify, assess, respond / mitigate, monitor and review 3) Response strategies - including avoidance, reduction and transfer 4) Discuss various methods of quantifying risk, including qualitative (description of risks), semi quantitative, and quantitative 5) Talks about the requirement to embed risk management into the process

Question 327

MANAGING PROJECTS - What is VE? What is VM?

Answer 327

VE: The systematic process used to improve the value of a project by optimising its function, performance and cost without compromising quality or the client's requirements. VM: A structured, collaborative process used to ensure that the project delivers the maximum value to the client. In essence, it is a process by which value to the client is defined. Undertaken at the earliest stages of a projec

Question 328

PROJECT FINANCE - What procedures must be in place to ensure a project is completed on budget?

Answer 328

1) Before works start: a) Cost Plan / Budget baseline which sets the financial target for the project b) Risk Register c) Procurement Strategy d) Overall CapEx with breakdown to total project budget 2) At Contract award: a) Approved budget / CSA b) Change control procedure 3) During Deliery: a) Cost reports b) Risk register update

Question 329

PROJECT FINANCE - What is a cost plan?

Answer 329

A plan produced by the cost consultant which estimates the outturn construction costs for a project. 1) Project Overview, including assumptions used in costing 2) Elemental breakdown of costs 3) Professional Fees 4) Contingencies 5) Provisional Sums / Allowances.

Question 330

PROJECT FINANCE -What is a contingency? What types are you aware of?

Answer 330

An additional capital allowance above the budget to capture any changes or risks that may materialise during the works. Client contingency budgets, such as: o Developers Contingency – for client changes to the project o Professional Fees Contingency – for fees in relation to client changes of a project QS contingency budgets, such as: o Design Contingency – to capture design development from the set of drawings their costs are based on o Construction Contingency – to capture spend for post-contract signing change or provisional sum movements.

Question 331

PROJECT FINANCE - How can contingencies be calculated?

Answer 331

Depends on the stage of the project, the risk appetite of the client and level of uncertainty of associated with the project Contingencies could be benchmarked from other similar projects, or a % of the total CapEx should be adopted.

Question 332

PROJECT FINANCE - What is the Construction Act 2009?

Answer 332

The Housing Grants, Construction and Regeneration Act 1996. Note: This was updated in 2009, in the Local Democracy, Economic Development and Construction Act 2009. 1. Right to Interim Payment Contractors are entitled to regular progress payments during the works. Removes pay-when-paid clauses. 2. Payment Notices Introduced formal payment notices. The Employer must issue a notice stating the amount they intend to pay, and the due date. 3. Adjudication Any disputes over payment can be referred to adjudication 4. Timing of Payments Contracts must specify payment intervals, but if they dont the default under the LDEDCA 2009 applies.

Question 333

PROJECT FINANCE - Key changes made to the HGCRA 1996?

Answer 333

(1) If no payment notice is received, contractor application stands (2) Right to suspend works in part (3) Right of reimbursement for costs of demobilising (4) Contracts dont have to be in writing.

Question 334

PROJECT FINANCE - Talk me through managing post contract change?

Answer 334

* 1ES - specific contractor clarification that if a number of timber doors did not comply with Part M requirements, this would need to be instructed as a change. It was not possible to confirm the specific opening forces pre-contract * Post contract, several tests were undertaken, which demonstrated that several of these doors, due to their fire rating and acoustic requirements, they would not be able to open with less 30N worth of force (in line with Part M) * As such, power assistance would be required.

Question 335

PROJECT FINANCE - How would you build a CapEx?

Answer 335

1. Breakdown the works and the various packages / consultants who will work on the project 2. Allocate fees against each activity a. Using previous experience b. Fee proposals c. Benchmark Rates 3. Allocate a contingency based upon a % of the overall budge

Question 336

PROJECT FINANCE - How can you minimise change?

Answer 336

* Carry out thorough site investigations and condition surveys * Ensure a comprehensive brief which is approved by all stakeholders * Identifying and managing risks * Coordinating the design before tendering

Question 337

PROJECT FINANCE - What cost planning tools are you aware of?

Answer 337

* Benchmarking – comparing the project with best practice examples * Whole life costing – consider the cost of a building from construction to disposal (initial capital costs, running costs, maintenance costs, disposal costs) * Tender Price Inflation Forecasts – predicting construction prices at time of going to tender

Question 338

PROJECT FINANCE - What is a provisional sum? Types?

Answer 338

A provisional sum is an estimated allowance for work or activities, where the scope, extent or cost of the work is uncertain. Defined: * An estimate inserted into tender documents or a CSA for works that are not yet defined accurately enough to be priced properly * For example, it may be known that a quantity of material is needed, although the exact product details are not yet defined, so an exact price cannot be determined. * This leads to a defined provisional sum, where there is sufficient information available at the point of tender for the contractor to define the potential programme, planning and pricing prelims Undefined: - Less known than a defined provisional sum, with little design work complete - The contractor cannot be expected to have allowed for it within the programme or pricing – allowing EOT or additional payment

Question 339

PROJECT FINANCE - What is a Prime Cost sum?

Answer 339

* An estimated amount of money allocated in a construction contract for the supply of materials, fixture or fixing where the exact specification and costs are not yet known

Question 340

PROJECT FINANCE - What is the payment process on your projects?

Answer 340

1) Interim Payment Application Submitted 2) QS verifies the payment applicaton, undertakes a site visit and issues a recommendation for payment to the EA. 3) Five days following the Due Date, Payment Notice is issued to the contractor 4) Pay Less Notice is 5 days before the final date for payment. 5) Final date for payment is 28 days after the due date.