General Knowledge T.

Question 1

1. Using a primary radar,

A) Target size will influence the maximum range
B) Detection of targets in the area close to the radar will be difficult
C) Precipitation may reduce the useful range
D) All 3 answers are correct

Answer 1

D) All 3 answers are correct

Question 2

2. In it’s simplest form, RNAV may consist of

A) At least one VOR and 2 DME sets
B) A VOR/DME receiver with an associated navigation computer
C) ADF and VOR receiver with an associated navigation computer
D) At least 3 DME sets and an associated navigation computer

Answer 2

B) A VOR/DME receiver with an associated navigation computer

Question 3

3. In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follow:

A) V increases, Ps decreases
B) V decreases, Ps increases
C) V increases, Ps increases
D) V decreases, Ps decreases

Answer 3

A) V increases, Ps decreases

Question 4

4. A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:

A) Thermistor
B) An AC generator
C) A transformer rectifier unit
D) An inverter

Answer 4

D) An inverter

Question 5

5. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:

A) 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
B) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
C) 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
D) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km

Answer 5

B) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

Question 6

6. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?

A) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
B) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
C) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
D) When seems possible to land

Answer 6

A) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

Question 7

7. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

A) 2%
B) 2.5%
C) 5%
D) 3.3%

Answer 7

B) 2.5%

Question 8

8. For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: taxi fuel 600kg, fuel flow for cruise 10000kg/h, fuel flow for holding 8000kg/h, alternate fuel 10200kg, planned flight time to destination 6h, forecast visibility at destination 2000m, the minimum ramp fuel required is:

A) 77800 kg
B) 76100 kg
C) 80500 kg
D) 79200 kg

Answer 8

A) 77800 kg

Question 9

9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75, departure aerodrome elevation 1500ft. QNH 1023 hpa, temperature=ISA, 1 hpa=30 ft

A) 6300ft
B) 6000ft
C) 6600ft
D) 7800ft

Answer 9

A) 6300ft
B) 6000ft

Question 10

10. In the ATS flight plan item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the:

A) Estimated off-block time
B) Estimated time over the first point en route
C) Estimated take off time
D) Allocated slot time

Answer 10

A) Estimated off-block time

Question 11

11. Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the inertial reference system display is correct?

A) It is updated when ‘go-around’ is selected on take-off
B) It is constantly updated from information obtained by FMC
C) It is updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV
D) The position from the two IRS are compared to obtained a best position which is displayed on the IRS

Answer 11

C) It is updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV

Question 12

12. The flight log gives the following data: true track, drift, true heading, magnetic variation, magnetic heading, compass deviation, compass heading.

The right solution, in the same order, is:

A) 125, 2R, 123, 2W, 121, -4, 117
B) 115, 5R, 120, 3W, 123, +2, 121
C) 117, 4L, 121, 1E, 122, -3, 119
D) 119, 3L, 122, 2E, 120, +4, 116

Answer 12

B) 115, 5R, 120, 3W, 123, +2, 121

Question 13

13. The forces acting upon the compass needle in a stand-by compass in an aircraft, are:

A) The earth’s magnetic field, the coriolis effect and aircraft magnetism
B) The total magnetic field in the compass location
C) Mechanic forces only
D) The earth’s magnetic field, the aircraft magnetic field and the effects of attitude and movement of the aircraft.

Answer 13

D) The earth’s magnetic field, the aircraft magnetic field and the effects of attitude and movement of the aircraft.

Question 14

14. Which sensation does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level turn?

A) Descending and turning into the opposite direction
B) Flying straight and level
C) Climbing
D) Turning into the original direction

Answer 14

B) Flying straight and level

Question 15

15. What could cause hyperventilation?

A) Extreme low rate of breathing
B) Abuse of alcohol
C) Fear, anxiety and distress
D) Fatigue

Answer 15

C) Fear, anxiety and distress

Question 16

16. A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approach a larger and wider runway can lead to:

A) A flatter than normal approach with the risk of ducking under
B) A steeper than normal approach dropping low
C) An early or high ‘round out’
D) The risk to land short of the overrun

Answer 16

C) An early or high ‘round out’

Question 17

17. Under what runway condition is the braking action reported to be “unreliable”:

A) Runway covered with dry snow
B) Runway covered with ice
C) Runway covered with wet snow and slush
D) Runway conditions normal

Answer 17

B) Runway covered with ice

Question 18

18. Which elements of instruction or information shall always be read back?

A) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
B) QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
C) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
D) SSR code, QNH, take off clearance, speed instruction

Answer 18

D) SSR code, QNH, take off clearance, speed instruction

Question 19

19. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?

A) Aircraft identification, position, time, level
B) Aircraft identification, position, time
C) Aircraft identification, position, level
D) Aircraft identification, position, next position

Answer 19

A) Aircraft identification, position, time, level

Question 20

20. In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:

A) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
B) Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
C) Squawk 7600
D) Continue the fight in VMC

Answer 20

B) Inform the competent ATC unit immediately

Question 21

21. The total air temperature (TAT) is always:

A) Lower than static air temperature depending on the calibrated air speed
B) Higher than static air temperature depending on the calibrated air speed
C) Higher than static air temperature depending on the altitude
D) Lower than static air temperature depending on the altitude

Answer 21

B) Higher than static air temperature depending on the calibrated air speed

Question 22

22. As an airplane climbs higher, the true airspeed for a given indicated airspeed will:

A) Be lower than indicated
B) The true airspeed and the indicated will be the same
C) Decrease
D) Increase

Answer 22

D) Increase

Question 23

23. When flying with an indicated altitude of 3000 ft into a low pressure area, the actual altitude:

A) Will decrease
B) Will increase
C) Will be the same as indicated altitude
D) Will be as before entering a low pressure area

Answer 23

A) Will decrease

Question 24

24. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:

A) High gross mass and aft centre of gravity
B) Lower gross mass and forward centre of gravity
C) Lower gross mass and aft centre of gravity
D) High gross mass and forward centre of gravity

Answer 24

D) High gross mass and forward centre of gravity

Question 25

25. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected? A) A decrease of the stalling speed B) A decrease of the landing speed C) A decrease in range D) A tendency to yaw to the right on take off

Answer 25

C) A decrease in range

Question 26

26. The actual "Zero Fuel Mass" is equal to the: A) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded B) Operating mass plus all the traffic load C) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load - D) Actual landing Mass plus trip fuel

Answer 26

C) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load -

Question 27

27. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known? A) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield B) Temperature at the airfield C) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL D) Elevation of the airfield

Answer 27

D) Elevation of the airfield

Question 28

28. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? A) Large, abrupt change in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily B) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude C) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times D) Continued fight in this environment will result in structural damage

Answer 28

C) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times

Question 29

29. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility(met.vis) and RVR in the homogeneous fog? A) The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR B) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR C) The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR D) There is no specific relationship between the two

Answer 29

B) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR

Question 30

30. Which of the following are low level clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC B) ST, NS C) CI, ST D) NS, CI

Answer 30

B) ST, NS

Question 31

31. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path - 2- flies below the glide path - 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed the combination of correct statements is: A) 2,4 B) 1,4 C) 2,3 D) 1,3

Answer 31

D) 1,3

Question 32

32. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a: A) Low weight, high speed, gear and flaps up B) High weight, high speed, gear and flaps up C) Low weight, low speed, gear and flaps down D) High weight, low speed, gear and flaps up

Answer 32

D) High weight, low speed, gear and flaps up

Question 33

33. If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to: A) Carry out a further de-icing process B) Complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing C) Switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne D) Complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover(protection)time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

Answer 33

A) Carry out a further de-icing process

Question 34

34. The aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains the same D) May increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane

Answer 34

A) Decreases

Question 35

35. The second segment begins: A) When landing gear is fully retracted B) When flap retraction begins C) When flaps are selected up D) When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction

Answer 35

A) When landing gear is fully retracted

Question 36

36. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remain constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: A) Not change B) Decrease C) Increase D) Increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane

Answer 36

B) Decrease

Question 37

35. The second segment begins: A) When landing gear is fully retracted B) When flap retraction begins C) When flaps are selected up D) When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction

Answer 37

A) When landing gear is fully retracted

Question 38

36. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remain constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: A) Not change B) Decrease C) Increase D) Increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane

Answer 38

B) Decrease

Question 39

37. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the: A) Lift coefficient and the drag B) Maximum lift coefficient(Clmax) and drag C) Stall speed D) lift and the drag

Answer 39

B) Maximum lift coefficient(Clmax) and drag

Question 40

38. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls: A) Decreases with an increase in engine power B) Remains constant regardless of gross weight C) Increases with an increase in engine power D) Varies with gross weight and density altitude

Answer 40

B) Remains constant regardless of gross weight

Question 41

39. Usually electric heating for ice protection is used on: A) slat leading edges. B) elevator leading edges. C) pitot tubes. D) fin leading edges.

Answer 41

C) pitot tubes.

Question 42

40. On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: A) 22 psi B) 3-5 psi C) 13-15 psi D) 7-9 psi

Answer 42

D) 7-9 psi